Real Oral Exam Guide Flashcards
(105 cards)
1
Q
What certifications and documents must be on board the aircraft for it to be considered legal?
A
A : Airworthiness Certificate R : Radio License (For operation outside US) R : Registration (Every 3 years) O : Operating Limitations (Found in POH) W : Weight and Balance (Found in POH)
2
Q
What are the items that are required to be carried with you to act as pilot in command?
A
- Photo ID
- Current Medical Certificate
- Pilot License
3
Q
What are the limitations regarding flying for hire as a private pilot?
A
A private pilot cannot act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire. A private pilot must pay an equal (pro rata) share of operating expenses of a flight carrying passengers.
4
Q
How long is a third class medical valid?
A
- Under 40 : 5 years
- 40 or Older : 2 years
5
Q
What is required to act as PIC of a complex, high performance or tailwheel airplane?
A
You are required to receive and log ground and flight training and obtain a logbook endorsement from an appropriately rated CFI.
6
Q
What is required to act as PIC of a turbojet powered aircraft, or an aircraft weighing over 12,500 pounds?
A
You are required to obtain a type rating.
7
Q
What is a flight review? Within what time period must a flight review have been satisfactorily completed in order to act as PIC?
A
A flight review is a minimum of one hour of ground training and one hour of flight training that must be completed in the proceeding 24 calendar months to act as PIC.
8
Q
What must be done to remain current to act as PIC carrying passengers?
A
3 takeoffs and 3 landings within the proceeding 90 days.
9
Q
Define category, class and type.
A
Category is a broad classification of aircraft such as airplane, rotorcraft, glider, etc. Class refers to aircrafts having similar operating characteristics such as single engine land, single engine water, etc. Type refers to a specific make and model of aircraft.
10
Q
What flight experience must be entered into a logbook?
A
Flight experience which is required for obtaining a certificate or rating, completing a flight review, or meeting currency requirements.
11
Q
What type of airframe inspections is an aircraft required to have undergone to be considered airworthy?
A
An annual inspection within the proceeding 12 calendar months, as well as a 100 hour inspection if the aircraft is used for compensation or hire.
12
Q
Is an airplane owner, who is not a mechanic, allowed to perform any type of maintenance on the aircraft?
A
Yes. Aircraft owners can perform preventative maintenance, such as oil changes.
13
Q
How often must a transponder be inspected to be considered airworthy?
A
Every 24 calendar months there must be a transponder inspection.
14
Q
Who is responsible for keeping the aircraft in an airworthy condition?
A
The owner or operator.
15
Q
What is an airworthiness directive? Why are they issued?
A
An AD is issued by the FAA when there is a safety issue with a particular type of aircraft. They are mandatory and must be complied with within a certain time frame.
16
Q
What instruments and equipment are required for VFR day flight?
A
A - Anti-Collision Lights T - Tachometer O - Oil Pressure Gauge M - Manifold Gauge A - Altimeter T - Temperature Gauge O - Oil Temperature Gauge F - Fuel Gauge L - Landing Gear Indicator A - Airspeed Indicator M - Magnetic Compass E - ELT S - Safety Belts
17
Q
What instruments and equipment are required for VFR night flight?
A
All the equipment for daytime VFR plus: F - Fuses L - Landing Light A - Anti-Collision Lights P - Position Lights S - Source of electrical energy
18
Q
Must you notify the FAA of an address change?
A
Yes you must report it to the FAA within 30 days.
19
Q
Define the responsibility and authority of the pilot in command?
A
The PIC has the final authority over the aircraft. He is responsible for the safety of the crew and passengers.
20
Q
Above what altitude must all passengers be provided with supplemental oxygen?
A
All passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen when the cabin altitude is 15,000 feet MSL or above. The required flight crew must be provided with supplemental oxygen in excess of 30 minutes above 12,500’ MSL, or for the entire time above 14,000’ MSL.
21
Q
Which occurrences require immediate notification to the NTSB?
A
The inability of a required crew member to perform his/her duties, an in-flight fire, a flight control system malfunction, a mid-air collision, failure of the structural components of a turbine engine, damage to property in excess of 25,000 dollars, or when an aircraft is overdue and is to believed to have been involved in an accident.
22
Q
What is standard sea level temperature and pressure?
A
15 degrees Celsius and 29.92” Hg.
23
Q
What is the standard lapse rate?
A
2 degrees for every 1,000’
24
Q
What is the Coriolis Force?
A
It is a theory that explains how things deflect to the right in the Northern Hemisphere. It applies to wind, pressure and general weather patterns. The Coriolis Force is the reason wind and weather patterns generally move from west to east in the United States.
25
Why is wind shear dangerous?
Wind shear is dangerous because it is unpredictable, and it can cause significant changes in heading, airspeed, and altitude, especially close to the ground.
26
What is the significance of a close temperature - dew point spread?
A close temperature-dew point spread indicates the probable formation of visible moisture in the form of dew, mist, fog or clouds.
27
What are the characteristics of stable and unstable air?
```
Stable Air:
Visibility - Poor
Precipitation - Steady
Turbulence - Smooth
Unstable Air:
Visibility - Good
Precipitation - Showery
Turbulence - Rough
```
28
What are the three types of fronts and what significance is this to aviation?
The three types of fronts are cold front, warm front and stationary front. Each front indicates a different type of weather.
29
What type of weather is associated with a cold front?
Cold fronts usually contain the most volatile weather. Because cold air replaces warm air quickly, the difference in pressure is the greatest with the potential for violent weather.
30
What type of weather is associated with a warm front?
The weather associated with a warm front is usually relatively mild. Warm front weather is usually much more widespread and longer lasting then that of a cold front.
31
What type of weather is associated with a stationary front?
A stationary front is when warm and cold air masses meet, but do not mix. Wind always blows along the frontal boundary of a stationary front, and in some cases embedded storms occur.
32
What is an occluded front?
An occluded front is a combination of cold, warm, and cool air. Thus, weather in occluded fronts are a combination of cold and warm front weather.
33
What is clear air turbulence? Why is it dangerous?
Clear air turbulence is turbulence not associated with thunderstorms. It usually occurs along an upper level temperature inversion. It is dangerous because it is often unexpected, and it can be severe.
34
What are three types of structural icing?
The three types of structural icing are clear, rime and mixed ice. Clear ice forms when drops are large as in rain or in cumuliform clouds. It is hard, heavy, and unyielding. Rime ice forms as a result of small drops found in stratified clouds and drizzle. Air becomes trapped in between the drops and makes the ice appear white. Mixed ice is a combination of clear and rime ice.
35
How much can ice or frost degrade performance?
It is important not to operate with frost on the wings because it can degrade performance by up to 40%.
36
What are the types of fog and how are they formed?
The fog types include radiation, advection, precipitation-induced, upslope, and ice. Radiation fog forms when the air close to the ground is cooled faster than the air above it. It usually forms at night or near daybreak. Advection fog forms along coastal areas when the water is warmer than the air around it. Precipitation-induced fog forms when relatively warm rain or drizzle falls through cool air and evaporation from the precipitation saturates the cool air. Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain. Ice fog occurs in cold weather when the temperature is well below freezing and water vapor sublimates directly as ice crystals.
37
What conditions must be present for a thunderstorm to form?
Formation of a thunderstorm requires a lifting action, an unstable lapse rate, and sufficient water vapor.
38
What is a microburst? Why is it hazardous to aircraft? How long does a microburst typically last?
A microburst is a heavy downdraft occurring within a thunderstorm. It is hazardous to aircraft because of the extreme down force. The downdrafts become stronger outflowing horizontal surface winds flowing outward from the base of the thunderstorm. A microburst usually lasts for a total of 10 minutes with the maximum intensity winds lasting for 2 to 4 minutes.
39
What type of flying weather do low-pressure systems present?
Low-Pressure systems are quite often regions of poor flying weather, and high-pressure systems are predominantly regions of favorable flying weather.
40
Where is weather information available on the ground?
Weather information is available on the ground from a Flight Service Station (FSS), Direct User Access Terminal System (DUATS), and Telephone Information Briefing Service (TIBS). You can speak to a pre-flight briefer at FSS and/or receive TIBS by calling 1-800-WX-BRIEF anywhere in the country. DUATS is a free service available to pilots on the Internet. Here you can receive weather information, and file a flight plan. TIBS is recorded weather information that can be obtained by calling 1-800-WX-BRIEF.
41
Where is weather information available in-flight?
Weather information is available in-flight with:
HIWAS - Hazardous In-Flight Weather Advisory Service
FSS - Flight Service Stations
TWEB - Transcribed Weather Broadcast
ATIS - Automatic Terminal Information Service
ASOS - Automated Surface Observation Service
AWOS - Automated Weather Observation Service
42
What is a METAR?
A METAR is a current weather observation that is updated as a regular interval, and applies to a 5-mile radius around the observation point (usually an airport), reporting wind, visibility, storm activity, ceilings, temperature, altimeter setting, and remarks.
43
What is a TAF? How often are TAFs updated?
A TAF is a forecast of conditions for the next 24 hours (30 hours at the largest U.S airports) that applies to a 5-mile radius around an airport. TAFs are updated four times a day and report wind, visibility, significant weather, sky condition, and possible wind shear.
44
How do TAFs indicate wind shear?
TAFs indicate forecasted wind shear with the code WS after the sky conditions segment.
45
What is a PIREP? How is one submitted? How can a pilot receive one?
A PIREP is a Pilot Weather Report. PIREPs are important sources of observed weather aloft. PIREPs are submitted by pilots to an FSS.
46
What type of information can be found in an area forecast (FA)? How often is an area forecast updated? What are the four sections of an area forecast?
An area forecast (FA) is a forecast of clouds and general weather conditions over an area of several states, and is updated three times a day. An FA contains four sections, the communication and product header, precautionary statement, synopsis, and VFR clouds/weather section. The communication and product header indicates the date and time of issuance, valid times, and area of coverage. The precautionary statement icing, low-level wind shear, and IFR conditions, and non-MSL heights are denoted by AGL or CIG. The synopsis is a brief summary of the location and movement of fronts, pressure systems, and circulation patterns. The VFR clouds/weather section contains a 12-hour specific forecast and a 6 hour outlook and covers possible weather hazards such as IFR conditions, icing, thunderstorms and wind shear.
47
What do winds and temperatures aloft forecasts indicate? What can a pilot determine from these forecasts?
Winds and temperatures aloft forecasts indicate the wind speed and direction, as well as temperature at various altitudes. Pilots are interested in most favorable winds and temperature inversions.
48
What are the minimum VFR cloud clearance and visibility requirements for Class E airspace below 10,000' MSL? What are they above 10,000' MSL?
The minimum VFR cloud clearance and visibility requirements in Class E airspace below 10,000' MSL are 500 ft below clouds, 1,000' above clouds, 2,000ft horizontally from clouds and 3 miles visibility. The minimum VFR cloud clearance and visibility requirements in Class E airspace above 10,000ft MSL are 1,000' below clouds, 1,000' above clouds, 1 SM horizontally from clouds, and 5 miles visibility.
49
How is Class E airspace that extends to the surface depicted on sectional charts? How is Class E to 700 ft AGL depicted?
Class E airspace that exends to the surface is indicated on a sectional chart by the dashed magenta line surrounding the airport. Class E airspace that extends to the surface of an airport signifies that the airport has instrument approach procedures. Class E to 700 feet AGL is indicated by a shaded magenta ring. Class E airspace that begins at 700 ft AGL is used for transitioning aircraft operating under IFR to/from the terminal or en route environment.
50
What airspace designation do Federal Airways have? What are the dimensions of a Federal Airway?
Federal Airways are an example of Class E airspace. A Federal Airway extends upward from 1,200' up to, but not including, 18,000' MSL.
51
What are the minimum VFR cloud clearance and visibility requirements for Class G airspace below 1,200' AGL during the day? During the night?
The minimum VFR cloud clearance and visibility requirements in Glass G airspace below 1,200' AGL during the day are clear of clouds and 1 mile visibility. During the night are 500' below clouds, 1,000' above clouds and 2,000' horizontally from clouds, and 3 miles visibility.
52
What are the minimum VFR cloud clearance and visibility requirements for Class G airspace above 1,200' AGL but below 10,000' MSL during the day? During the night?
During the day : 500' below clouds, 1,000' above clouds, 2,000' horizontal and 1 mile visibility.
During the night : 500' below, 1,000' above, 2,000' horizontal and 3 miles visibility.
53
What class of airspace requires a clearance prior to entry? What classes of airspace require that 2-way radio communication be established prior to entry?
Class B airspace requires a clearance prior to entry, and class C and Class D airspace require that 2-way radio communication be established prior to entry.
54
How do you determine when 2-way radio communication has been established?
Two-way radio communication has been established when ATC responds with your correct call sign.
55
When is a transponder with Mode C required for VFR flight?
A working transponder with Mode C is required any time you are above 10,000' MSL, inside Class B or Class C airspace, and above class B or Class C airspace up to 10,000' MSL, or within 30NM of a Class B primary airport.
56
What are the typical dimensions of Class D airspace?
Class D airspace typically extends upward from the surface to 2,500' AGL and outward to a 5 SM radius from the primary airport. Airspace dimensions may vary according to local requirements, however.
57
What are the typical dimensions of Class C airspace?
Class C airspace is typically composed of two sections that are referred to as the surface area and the shelf area. The surface area typically extends upward from the surface to 4,000' MSL and outward to a 5NM radius upward from the primary airport. The shelf area typically extends upward from 1,200' MSL to 4,000' MSL and outward to a 10NM radius from the primary airport. Airspace dimensions may vary according to local requirements, however.
58
What is a TRSA?
TRSA stands for Terminal Radar Service Area. TRSAs are established around class D airports that have radar service capability, but do not meet all the criteria to be designated as Class C airspace. Participation in TRSA service is voluntary (thought it is recommended), but 2-way radio communication must still be established prior to entering Class D airspace.
59
What are the minimum cloud clearance and visibility requirements to obtain special VFR clearance?
To obtain a special VFR clearance, you must be able to remain clear of clouds and have at least 1 mile visibility. Flight under special VFR at night is only permitted if the pilot has an instrument rating and the aircraft is IFR equipped.
60
What is a Prohibited Area? What is a restricted Area? What is a Military Operations Area? What is an Alert Area? What is a Warning Area?
Prohibited Areas are established for reasons of nation security; flight is prohibited at all times within them. Restricted Areas are established to contain unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft such as aerial gunnery or missile tests. Flight is restricted within a Restricted Area when that area is active. Military Operations Areas (MOAs) are established to separate IFR and military traffic. VFR flight is always permitted within MOAs. Alert Areas are established to notify pilots of unusual aerial activity such as high volume of flight training but flight is always permitted within them. Warning areas are located offshore and are established to alert pilots.
61
What is a Military Training Route (MTR)?
Military Training Routes are depicted on sectional charts to alert pilots to establish flight paths used for military training, usually occurring at high speeds and low altitudes.
62
What information do Airport/Facilities Directories provide?
They provide all the information needed for an airport or radio navigation aid (NAVAID). A/FDs also provide published NOTAMs and areas of parachute and aerobatic activity.
63
What type of information do sectional charts provide?
Sectional charts provide topographical, physical, airport, NAVAID, and airspace information for a specific geographic location.
64
What information does the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) provide?
The AIM provides information regarding airport operations, navigation aids, airspace, flight operations and ATC procedures.
65
Where can pilot certification information be found?
Pilot certification information can be found in FAR part 61.
66
Where can information on oxygen requirements, fuel requirements, airspace, and all other regulatory flight rules be found?
All flight rules that apply to general aviation are in FAR part 91.
67
What is an Advisory Circular (AC)?
ACs are used by the FAA as a means of issuing non regulatory information to pilots, mechanics, and manufacturers.
68
How is density altitude calculated?
To calculate density altitude:
1. Obtain the field elevation
2. Barometric Pressure : Add (if below standard) or subtract (if above standard) to obtain pressure altitude. For example, if the field elevation is 2,000' and the barometric pressure is 30.00, you will subtract 80ft (30.00 - 29.92 * 100) from 2,000.
3. Line up the pressure altitude and temperature on your flight computer to find density altitude. If temperature is above standard, density altitude will be greater than pressure altitude; the opposite will occur if temperature is below standard.
69
What are typical performance charts found in the POH?
Performance charts common to all POHs include takeoff, climb, cruise, landing, maximum glide chart, and the density altitude chart.
70
How does density altitude affect airplane performance?
High density altitude has a noticeable negative effect on aircraft performance. First, because the air going into the engine is not as dense with high density altitude, the engine does not develop as much power. Second, the propeller is an airfoil and does not develop as much thrust in the thinner air at high density altitude. Third, at high density altitude, the wing is not as efficient, and therefore requires more airflow to produce the same amount of lift as would be produced at lower density altitudes. Thus, high density altitude has a negative effect on your takeoff roll, climb rate, and cruise performance.
71
What are some factors that affect takeoff performance?
The common factors that affect performance are density altitude, the weight of the aircraft, wind speed and direction, and the surface of the runway. With a higher density altitude, the aircraft will have a longer takeoff roll. Increased weight also increases the takeoff roll. If the wind speed is high and it is close to a headwind, the ground roll will be reduced because of the increased relative wind. Finally, a soft runway surface will make the takeoff roll longer.
72
What is maximum range? What is maximum endurance?
Maximum range is the maximum distance an aircraft can fly on full fuel. Maximum endurance is the maximum time an aircraft can fly on full fuel.
73
What are some factors that affect landing distance?
The most common factors that affect landing distance are wind speed and direction, the runway surface, and the weight of the airplane. The stronger the headwind, the slower the airplane's normal speed at landing and the shorter the landing distance. A poor runway surface decreases braking efficiency. A heavier airplane has more inertia and requires more landing distance.
74
Define center of gravity (CG).
The center of gravity is the point at which the airplane would be balanced if it were possible to suspend it from that point. It is calculated by dividing the sum of the moments by the sum of the weights.
75
What are some of the effects that being over gross weight can have on an airplane?
Being over gross weight is illegal and very dangerous. It can increase the takeoff and landing distance, decrease climb performance, cause possible structural damage, and accelerate metal fatigue.
76
Where are the measurements taken for the computation of the CG?
The CG is computed from the reference datum, which is defined by the airplane manufacturer. It is frequently the firewall or the leading edge of the wing.
77
What are the handling characteristics of an airplane with an aft CG?
An airplane with an aft CG is generally unstable. It will fly at a higher airspeed, but it may be impossible to recover from a stall or spin.
78
What are the handling characteristics of an airplane with forward CG?
An airplane with a forward CG is generally more stable than one with an aft CG. It will fly at a slower airspeed (more drag), and it will stall at a higher indicated stall speed.
79
Why should a weight and balance be calculated with both current conditions and with zero or low fuel under the given conditions before departing?
Before beginning any flight, you must compute a weight and balance with the current conditions. However, as fuel burns during a flight, the CG moves. To make sure the CG will stay within limits the entire flight, you should calculate theoretical weight and balance with no or low fuel as well.
80
Which flight instruments are part of the pitot-static system?
Typically, the airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, and altimeter are the flight instruments in the pitot-static system.
81
What is an AIRMET?
It is an in-flight hazardous weather advisory issued for 6 hours to warn all aircraft (especially light aircraft) of potential hazardous weather.
82
What are the different types of AIRMETs?
Sierra - Denotes IFR and mountain obscuration.
Tango - Denotes turbulence, strong surface winds and low-level wind shear.
Zulu - Denotes icing and freezing levels.
83
What is a SIGMET?
An inflight advisory concerning non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft.
84
What do SIGMETs report?
They report weather forecasts that include severe icing not associated with thunderstorms, severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence not associated with a thunderstorm, dust storms or sandstorms that lower surface or inflight visibilities to below three miles, and volcanic ash.
85
How long are SIGMETs valid for?
4 hours.
86
What is a convective SIGMET?
An inflight weather advisory issued for hazardous convective weather that affects the safety of every flight.
87
What are convective SIGMETs issued for?
Severe thunderstorms with surface winds greater than 50 knots, hail at the surface greater than or equal to 3/4" in diameter, tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, or thunderstorms with heavy or greater precipitation that affect 40 percent or more of a 3,000 square mile or greater region.
88
How long are convective SIGMETs valid for?
2 hours. They are issued at 55 minutes past the hour.
89
What are PIREPs?
They are weather reports reported by pilots while en-route, and provide valuable information regarding the conditions as they actually exist in the air, which cannot be gathered from any other source.
90
```
How do you decode a PIREP?
UA - ?
/OV - ?
/TM - ?
/FL - ?
/TP - ?
/SK - ?
/WX - ?
/TA - ?
/WV - ?
/TB - ?
/IC - ?
/RM - ?
```
```
UA - Routine PIREP
/OV - Location : Use NAVAID, /OV ABC 090025 ; ABC VOR 090 radial 25 NM out.
/TM - Time in Zulu
/FL - Altitude/Flight Level
/TP - Type Aircraft
/SK - Sky cover/Cloud layers
/WX - Weather
/TA - Air Temperature in Celsius
/WV - Wind
/TB - Turbulence
/IC - Icing
/RM - Remarks
```
91
Why is load factor important?
1. It is possible for a pilot to impose a dangerous overload on the aircraft structures.
2. An increased load factor increases the stalling speed and makes stalls possible at seemingly safe flight speeds.
92
What does it mean if the load factor is 3G's?
A load factor of 3 means the total load on the aircraft's structure is 3 times the weight. G's mean acceleration of gravity.
93
What is load factor?
It's the ratio of total load supported by the wings to the weight of the aircraft.
94
What is hypoxia?
It is a deficiency of oxygen in the blood and the brain.
95
What are the different types of hypoxia?
1. Hypoxic Hypoxia : A result of insufficient oxygen available to the body as a whole.
2. Hypemic Hypoxia : Occurs when the blood is not able to take up and transport a sufficient amount of oxygen to the cells in the body.
3. Stagnant Hypoxia : Happens when the oxygen-rich blood in the lungs is not moving to the tissues that need it. Can occur with excessive acceleration of gravity (Gs).
4. Histotoxic Hypoxia : The inability of the cells to effectively use oxygen is defined as Histotoxic Hypoxia. "Histo" refers to tissues or cells, and "toxic" means poisonous. Oxygen is being transported to the cells that need it, but they are unable to make use of it.
96
What are the four left turning tendencies?
1. P-Factor
2. Torque Effect
3. Spiraling Slipstream
4. Gyroscopic Precession
97
What is P-Factor and when is it most common?
P-Factor (Propeller Factor) is most common when at a high angle of attack. The angle of attack on the propeller blades changes, and the right descending blade produces more thrust than the left ascending blade, causing the aircraft to yaw to the left.
98
What is Torque Effect?
Torque Effect is based on Newton's third law, "For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction". The propeller rotates clockwise, therefore since it is moving to the right, the plane reacts and rolls to the left.
99
What is Spiraling Slipstream?
As the propeller turns, it generates air moving down the side of the fuselage and over the wings, creating a slipstream. When the slipstream strikes the horizontal stabilizer, it has a tendency to yaw the aircraft to the left.
100
What is Gyroscopic Precession?
The result of a deflective force being applied to a rotating body, like a propeller. Gyroscopic precession, such as the rotating propeller effect, is delayed by 90 degrees.
101
What is Ground Effect?
When the airplane operates less than one wingspan length from the ground, the surface interferes with the airflow being generated by the wing, reducing the wingtip vortices. As a result, this improves the aircraft’s aerodynamic performance.
102
What problems can Ground Effect cause?
If you have too much airspeed on final, ground effect can cause you to float excessively before touching down. Ground effect can also cause you to takeoff too early without enough airspeed.
103
What are the magnetos used for and why are they important?
The left and right magneto are both connected to a spark plug in each cylinder (2 spark plugs per cylinder) and produce the energy to spark and ignite the spark plugs. The reason we check them is to make sure if we lose one magneto, the engine won't die, and also to make sure there is no spark plug fouling. Normally two spark plugs fire in each cylinder. When we test our magnetos, only one magneto is powering one spark plug in each engine instead of two, resulting in the RPM loss.
104
What does the electrical system power in the aircraft?
- Position Lights
- Anticollision Lights
- Landing Lights
- Taxi Lights
- Interior Cabin Lights
- Instrument Lights
- Radio Equipment
- Turn Indicator
- Fuel Gauges
- Electrical Fuel Pump (AUX fuel pump)
- Pitot Heat
- Starting Motor
105
Describe the flow when starting the aircraft.
The battery powers the starter, which turns the crankshaft until the engine starts. After that the magnetos ignite the spark plugs and the engine is self sustained.
