Recall - Fatima Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

Describe the treatment for Reiter Syndrome post-Campylobacter infection.

A

NSAIDs are typically used for symptom management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define osteoporosis.

A

A condition characterized by weakening of bones, making them fragile and more likely to break.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do elevated prostate levels due to prostate cancer metastasis lead to?

A

Osteoblastic (bone-forming) lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Differentiate between osteoblastic and sclerotic lesions.

A

Both indicate increased bone density but are not identical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the guidelines regarding prostate cancer in Australian men?

A

It is the most common non-skin cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the recommended action for PSA levels below 10 ng/mL?

A

Active surveillance is recommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What treatment is often utilized for tumor stage 3b prostate cancer?

A

Radiation therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the most common side effect post-prostatectomy?

A

Erectile dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Do individuals with Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome have an absent uterus?

A

Yes, they have a 46, XY karyotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe the absence of breast development in Turner Syndrome.

A

It is due to a 45, XO karyotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do low FSH and LH levels indicate?

A

Hypogonadism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do high FSH and LH levels suggest, with karyotyping for diagnosis?

A

Hypergonadism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What karyotype is associated with premature ovarian failure?

A

45, XO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does delayed puberty in girls aged 8-13 without breast development indicate?

A

Delayed puberty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What testis volume in boys aged 9-14 indicates delayed puberty?

A

Less than 4 mL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe Glioblastoma in pediatric brain tumors.

A

It is rare in young children, aggressive, and leads to rapid neurological decline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What symptoms are associated with Ependymoma in pediatric brain tumors?

A

Hydrocephalus symptoms.

18
Q

What causes precocious puberty in Pinealoma?

A

Beta-hCG secretion.

19
Q

What are the effects of Craniopharyngioma on puberty and growth?

A

It causes delayed puberty and growth failure.

20
Q

What trimester should Nitrofurantoin be avoided in during pregnancy?

A

The 3rd trimester.

21
Q

When should Trimethoprim be avoided during pregnancy?

A

The first trimester (due to low folate risk).

22
Q

Describe the management of rectal bleeding in gastrointestinal conditions.

A

DRE and Proctoscopy.

23
Q

How is labor progression managed in a primigravida if CTG is normal?

24
Q

Define Presbycusis and its symptoms.

A

Age-related hearing loss; Increased volume for TV, hearing aids, etc.

25
What is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for GBS during labor?
IV Prophylaxis for high-risk individuals.
26
Do for Neck Masses evaluation.
Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC).
27
Describe the functions associated with the left parietal brain lobe.
Apraxia, writing, math issues.
28
How is Cryptogenic Organizing Pneumonia treated?
Prednisolone or dexamethasone for 6-12 months.
29
Define Tinea and its management.
Fungal infection; Skin scraping, repeat nail clipping if initial negative. Oral terbinafine for 3 months or itraconazole.
30
How is Impetigo managed?
Waterproof dressing, mupirocin ointment, cephalexin if recurrent or severe.
31
Describe the treatment for Lung Abscess.
Penicillin, possibly add metronidazole.
32
How is Lateral Epicondylitis managed if crepitus is present?
X-ray needed.
33
Describe the management for orbital cellulitis.
IV flucloxacillin and ceftriaxone.
34
What is the treatment for MRSA infections?
Severe - vancomycin; Moderate - clindamycin.
35
How should lice infestations be managed?
Use comb when lice seen, permethrin application, reapply as necessary.
36
Define Hereditary Spherocytosis treatment options.
Folic Acid and B12 (if < 6 years old), Blood transfusion, Splenectomy (if > 6 years old).
37
What are the colonoscopy guidelines post-adenoma for Advanced Adenoma at 1 Year?
Next colonoscopy in 3 years.
38
Describe the features of Transient Global Amnesia.
Retains personal details but not current date; resolves within 24 hours.
39
How does chronic hyperkalemia relate to digoxin use in renal impairment?
It is common with digoxin use in renal impairment.
40
What is the preferred antibiotic prophylaxis for Cat and Human Bites Management?
Amoxicillin with clavulanate.
41
Do you need early surgical assessment for hand bites in Cat and Human Bites Management?
Yes.
42
Describe the duration of treatment for established infections in Cat and Human Bites Management.
7-10 days.