Recombinant DNA Technology Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the structure of most bacterial chromosomes?

A

Double-stranded circular DNA

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2
Q

Why is circular DNA considered more stable than linear DNA in bacteria?

A

It has no ends for exonucleases to degrade.

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3
Q

What mechanisms help package the negatively charged bacterial DNA?

A

Supercoiling and DNA-bending proteins

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4
Q

Where is the bacterial genome located?

A

In the cell cytoplasm

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5
Q

Where does bacterial chromosome replication typically start?

A

At the origin of replication (oriC)

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6
Q

How does bacterial replication proceed from the origin?

A

Bi-directionally

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7
Q

What happens to bacterial chromosomes during rapid cell division?

A

Replication often begins again before the cell has finished dividing.

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8
Q

What are ORFs and what do they encode?

A

Open reading frames; encode mRNA which leads to protein production.

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9
Q

How are transcription and translation related in bacteria?

A

They are coupled and occur simultaneously.

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10
Q

How is gene expression mainly regulated in bacteria?

A

At the transcriptional level.

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11
Q

How much can bacterial genome size vary?

A

From < 1Mb to > 10Mb

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12
Q

Why do environmental bacteria tend to have larger genomes?

A

They require more genes to adapt to changing environments.

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13
Q

What kind of genes are retained in bacteria with reduced genomes?

A

Essential housekeeping genes.

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14
Q

What are the types of point mutations caused by DNA polymerase errors?

A

Transitions and transversions.

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15
Q

How can recombination affect bacterial genomes?

A

It can invert or delete bacterial genome segments based on sequence orientation.

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16
Q

What factors can increase mutation rate in bacteria?

A

Mutagens like base analogues, radiation, and oxidative stress.

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17
Q

What are the major mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?

A

Conjugation, transduction, and transformation

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18
Q

What role do plasmids play in horizontal gene transfer?

A

They transfer genes between bacteria, often via conjugation.

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19
Q

How can transposable elements assist horizontal gene transfer?

A

By moving chromosomal genes onto plasmids.

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20
Q

What type of DNA are plasmids made of?

A

Circular double-stranded DNA.

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21
Q

What determines whether a plasmid is maintained in a population?

A

Natural selection and the fitness cost vs benefit to the host.

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22
Q

What is a selfish plasmid?

A

A plasmid that persists by enforcing its own replication, despite a fitness cost.

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23
Q

What is an insertion sequence (IS)?

A

A transposable element that can disrupt genes or activate their expression.

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24
Q

What sequences are essential for a transposition?

A

Inverted Repeats (IRs).

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25
What is a composite transposon?
A structure flanked by IS elements that allows movement of genes between chromosome and plasmids.
26
How do complex transposons differ from composite ones?
They include additional genes like resolvase and can copy-paste themselves.
27
What is the function of integrons?
To capture gene cassettes, especially antibiotic resistance genes.
28
What is cloning?
Inserting a gene of interest into a plasmid, introducing it into bacteria, and selecting colonies that contain the desired recombinant DNA.
29
Where do exonucleases cut?
Cleaves the phosphodiester bonds at DNA ends.
30
Where do endonucleases cut?
Cleaves internal phosphodiester bonds, generating DNA fragments.
31
What does S1 Nuclease cut?
ssDNA, bit can nick dsDNA under certain conditions (e.g. long incubation periods).
32
What does DNase I cut?
Both ssDNA and dsDNA non-specifically to produce small fragments.
33
What is a restriction endonuclease?
highly sequence specific enzymes that cut dsDNA at defined sites. Essential for cloning.
34
What is a Type II Restriction Modification Enzyme?
An endonuclease that cuts at defined positions close to/ within its recognition sequence.
35
How many Type II RM enzymes have been discovered and characterised?
>3,500
36
How many different DNA sequences do type II RM enzymes recognise?
~350
37
How many amino acids are Type IIP RM Enzymes?
250-350. Simplest and smallest.
38
What percentage of enzymes used in molecular biology do Type IIP RM enzymes account for?
>90%
39
What does the P in Type IIP RM enzymes stand for?
Palindromic. They recognise palindromic sequences 4-8bp in length.
40
What is an example Type IIP RM enzyme?
EcoRV
41
What sequence does EcoRV recognsie?
5'-GATATC-3'
42
When EcoRV binds DNA, to what degree does it bend it, and why?
50 degrees to bring the phosphate closer to the enzymes active site.
43
What type of ends does EcoRV produce?
blunt ends (cuts both strands directly opposite).
44
What does the S stand for in Type IIS RM enzymes?
'shifted' due to their cleavage site being shifted.
45
What type of sequences do type IIS RM enzymes recognise?
Asymmetric sequences but cleave outside the recognition site.
46
What is an example of a type IIS RM enzyme?
FokI
47
How far away from the binding site does FokI cleave?
9-13bp away
48
FokI is monomeric but...
forms transient homodimers on DNA to cleave both strands.
49
What type of ends does FokI produce?
sticky ends - helpful for ligation and cloning.
50
In FokI, what does the flexibility of the cut site depend on?
linker strength and helical geometry.
51
What type of restriction endonuclease is HindIII?
Type IIP RE
52
What ends does HindIII produce?
5' sticky ends
53
What palindromic sequence does HindIII recognise?
TCGA
54
What is the purpose of agarose gel electrophoresis?
visualise DNA and estimate DNA fragment size.
55
To what pole of the electric field does DNA migrate towards in agarose gel electrophoresis?
positive pole
56
What is considered a low % of agarose and how does it affect the gel?
0.5% - larger pores better for large DNA fragments.
57
Ethidium Bromide is used to visualise DNA on agarose gel, how?
Intercalates DNA, fluoresces under UV, is a mutagen.
58
What is considered a high % of agarose and how does it affect the gel?
2% - smaller pores better for smaller DNA fragments.
59
What are two ways of sizing DNA fragments on agarose gel?
DNA ladder (e.g. digested lambda DNA) as a reference, or can plot a calibration curve for precise sizing.
60
How does plasmid DNA run on gel electrophoresis?
Unpredictably due to supercoiling, usually faster.
61
How does a nicked/ open circle plasmid run on gel electrophoresis?
Slower due to relaxed conformation.
62
What mathematical equation links migration to molecular mass?
D = a - b (logM) D = distance moved M = molecular mass a and b = constants that depend on electrophoresis conditions.
63
SDS-PAGE. A low % acrylamide creates what size pores?
Large
64
SDS-PAGE. A high % acrylamide creates what size pores?
Small
65
In SDS-PAGE, what stain is used to visualise the proteins?
Coomassie Brilliant Blue
66
What enzyme is typically used in labs to ligate DNA fragments?
T4 DNA Ligase
67
How does T4 DNA ligase join two DNA fragments?
Uses ATP to add AMP to 5' phosphate and forms a phosphodiester bond with 3' hydroxyl.