RECURRENT

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a flag carrier operation?
A. A Turbojet powered airplane.
B. More than 20 passenger seats
C. Operating to or from at least one point outside of the contiguous United States
D. Flying on a regular schedule

Answer 1

More than 20 passenger seats

Explanation:
In addition to the other characteristics listed, a flag carrier operates aircraft with more than 9 passenger seats.

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Part 135 commuter operation?

A. At least 5 round trip flights per week.
B. More than 10 passenger seats
C. On at least one route
D. Flying on a regular schedule.

Answer 2

More than 10 passenger seats

Explanation:
Part 135 commuter operations must be conducted in aircraft with no more than 9 passenger seats.

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Part 135 on-demand operation?

A. Departure times are determined by the customer.
B. Fewer than 10 passenger seats
C. Destinations are selected by the customer from acceptable airfields selected by the carrier.
D. The routes flown may or may not be repetitive

Answer 3

Fewer than 10 passenger seats

Explanation:
Part 135 on-demand operations providing common carriage may be conducted on aircraft with up to 30 passenger seats, while private for hire transportation may be flown on aircraft with up to 19 passenger seats.

Question 4

For pilots, the rules regarding Part 135 commuter and on-demand operations are the same so it doesn’t matter what type operation you are flying.

TRUE
FALSE

Answer 4

FALSE

Explanation:
The rules regarding commuter and on-demand operations have some very important differences.

Question 5

Eligible Part 135 on-demand operators are allowed to fly into and out of more airfields to serve their customers as long as a more experienced two-pilot crew is flying the aircraft

TRUE
FALSE

Answer 5

TRUE

Explanation:
Eligible on-demand operators may use shorter runways and commence instrument approaches at fields with no weather reporting facility if they have a properly qualified two-person crew.

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for Part 135 eligible on-demand operations?

A. Must have a qualified two pilot crew
B. Must provide the certificate-holding FAA office with a Destination Airport analysis
C. Must receive authorization from the airport manager
D. Must be authorized by the certificate-holding FAA office to conduct eligible on-demand operations in their Ops Specs.

Answer 6

Must receive authorization from the airport manager

Explanation:
No special permission from the airport manager is required to operate into a public airport as long as any general restrictions (weight or size) are complied with.

Question 7

In order to be able to use an airport for eligible on-demand operations the calculated landing distance to a full stop must be no more than ____% of the effective length of the runway for a destination airport and no more than ____% for an alternate airport.

A. 60%, 60%
B. 80%, 80%
C. 80%, 70%
D. 70%, 80%

Answer 7

80% / 80%

Explanation:
For eligible on-demand operators, the calculated landing distance at both the destination and alternate airport must be no more than 80% of the effective length of the runway. However, your stopping distance can exceed 80% of the effective length when you actually arrive and not violate the rule.

Question 8

To operate as PIC during day VFR the pilot must meet the minimum requirements of having either a commercial pilot’s certificate with an instrument rating or an ATP, and a minimum total time of____?

A. 300 hours
B. 500 hours
C. 1000 hours
D. 1200 hours

Answer 8

500 hours

EXPLANATION
For VFR operations the minimum total time for the PIC is 500 hours, including at least 100 hours of cross-country time (25 hours of which must have been at night).

Question 9

In order to act as PIC with only a commercial pilot’s certificate (no instrument rating) which of the following restrictions apply?

A. Commuter operations only.
B. Single-engine Turbine-powered operations only.
C. Single-engine reciprocating –engine-powered aircraft only.
D. Flights under contract to the U.S. Mail only.

Answer 9

Single-engine reciprocating –engine-powered aircraft only.

EXPLANATION
Pilots with a commercial certificate can serve as PIC only in single-engine reciprocating-powered aircraft. They cannot serve as PIC in commuter operations or on U.S. Mail contract flights totaling over $20,000 per year.

Question 10

To operate as PIC on IFR flights the pilot must have either a commercial pilot’s certificate with an instrument rating or an ATP certificate and a minimum total time of____?

A. 300 HOURS
B. 500 hours
C. 1000 hours
D. 1200 hours

Answer 10

1200 hours

EXPLANATION
For IFR operations the minimum total time for the PIC is 1200 hours, including at least 500 hours of cross- country time (100 hours of which must have been at night) and 75 hours of actual or simulated instrument time (with a minimum of 50 hours in actual flight – not a simulator).

Question 11

To qualify for “eligible on-demand” operations the pilot must have a minimum of _____ hours total time and the co-pilot must have a minimum of _____ hours of total time

A. 1000 and 500 hours
B. 2000 and 1000 hours
C. 1500 and 500 hours
D. 1200 and 600 hours

Answer 11

1500 and 500 hours

EXPLANATION
For “eligible on-demand” operations there must be a two-pilot crew. The PIC must have a minimum of 1,500 hours total time while the SIC must have at least 500 hours total time.

Question 12

For a pilot receiving a 1st class FAA medical before his or her 40th birthday, the certificate is valid as a 1st class medical until the end of the _____ month after the date of the examination.

A. 6th
B. 12th
C. 18th
D. 24th

Answer 12

12th

EXPLANATION
First class medicals for pilots under 40 are now good until the end of the 12th month after the examination.

Question 13

First or second class medicals may be used as a 2nd class medical for ______ months after the date of the examination.

A. 6
B. 12
C. 18
D. 24

Answer 13

12

EXPLANATION
Second class medicals are good until the last day of the 12th month after the examination. The pilot’s age does not matter.

Question 14

For which of the following operations is the pilot-in-command (PIC) NOT required to hold an Airline Transport Pilot’s (ATP) certificate?

A. PIC of a Turbojet Airplane
B. PIC of an airplane with 10 or more passenger seats
C. PIC of a multiengine aircraft in commuter operations
D. PIC of a single-engine, reciprocating-powered aircraft in VFR operations.

Answer 14

PIC of a single-engine, reciprocating-powered aircraft in VFR operations

EXPLANATION
An ATP is required for all operations listed except the single-engine, reciprocating-powered aircraft in VFR operations.

Question 15

Aircraft Type ratings are required for:

A. Aircraft with a max T.O. weight in excess of 12,500 lbs
B. Turbo-jet powered aircraft
C. Any other aircraft specified by the FAA
D. All of the Above

Answer 15

All of the Above

EXPLANATION
Type ratings are required for all of the situations listed

Question 16

You must have specific training and a high-altitude endorsement to fly as PIC in a pressurized aircraft certificated for flight above

A. FL 180
B. FL 200
C. FL 250
D. FL 280

Answer 16

FL 250

Explanation:
If the aircraft is a pressurized aircraft certificated for flight above FL 250, you must have special ground and flight training.

Question 17

Which of the following is NOT a defining element of a Category II ILS approach?

A. A precision approach
B. A decision height less than 200 feet above the touchdown zone elevation.
C. A decision height less than 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation.
D. Runway visual range (RVR) not less than 1,150 feet

Answer 17

A decision height less than 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation.

Question Explanation:
Cat II ILS approaches have decision heights less than 200 feet above the touchdown zone elevation (TDZE) but NO LOWER than 100 feet above the TDZE.

Question 18

If you are Cat II qualified in one aircraft for which you are type rated, you are qualified to fly Cat II approaches in all aircraft for which you are type rated.

TRUE 
FALSE

Answer 18

FALSE

Question Explanation:
You must qualify for, and maintain currency in, each type aircraft in which you wish to fly Cat II approaches.

Question 19

In addition to total time requirements to be a PIC, you must have a minimum number of hours experience in each make and model aircraft before acting as PIC for a commuter operation. The required time in make and model for multiengine, turbine-powered aircraft is:

A. 10 hours
B. 15 hours
C. 20 hours
D. 25 hours

Answer 19

20 HOURS

Question Explanation:
10 hours are required for single-engine aircraft, 15 hours are required for multiengine, reciprocating-powered aircraft, and 25 hours are required for turbojet-powered aircraft.

Question 20

The time required in make and model to be a PIC in commuter operations can be reduced by up to ____ if you perform a takeoff and landing for each hour of flight time reduction.

A. 10 %
B. 25 %
C. 50 %
D. 75 %

Answer 20

50%

Explanation:
Minimum time requirements for PIC in commuter operations in make and model aircraft can be reduced by no more than 50% if you fly a takeoff and landing for each hour of flight time reduction.

Question 21

You are hired to fly in the right seat of a reciprocating-engine multiengine airplane for a commuter operation and have been promised an upgrade to captain as soon as you are eligible.
You have just completed eight one-hour legs during passenger-carrying commuter operations. You now have eight hours towards your 15 hour requirement.
The PIC let you do the takeoff and landing for each of the eight legs. You now have the experience necessary to act as PIC on your next passenger-carrying commuter flight.

TRUE
FALSE

Answer 21

TRUE

Explanation:
The hours required for you to be a PIC are reduced by 50% to 7.5 hours and you now meet the time requirement for PIC in a reciprocating-engine multiengine aircraft.

Question 22

In order to perform duties as a Second in Command you must:

A. Have a commercial certificate with instrument rating for the category and class aircraft being flown.
B. Be instrument current if flying IFR
C. Have type-specific aircraft training if the aircraft is type certificated for more than one pilot
D. All of the Above

Answer 22

All of the Above

Explanation
All conditions listed must be met if applicable.

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT required to receive an SIC rating?

A. 20 hours in category and class
B. Three takeoffs and landings to a full stop as sole manipulator of the controls
C. Engine-out procedures and maneuvering with an engine out while executing the duties of PIC
D. Crew Resource management training

Answer 23

20 hours in category and class

Explanation:
There is no minimum time requirement for the category and class to serve as SIC.

Question 24

Pilots flying as second in command must have an SIC type rating

A. For ANY international Part 135 operations
B. When acting as SIC in an aircraft certificated for operations with a minimum crew of two or more pilots in the United States
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

Answer 24

For ANY international Part 135 operations

Explanation:
An SIC type rating is required for international operations where a second in command is required.

Question 25

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a waiver to need to fly with a second in command? A. The aircraft certification does not require two pilots. B. The aircraft has an approved and operable autopilot C. For commuter operations the PIC has at least 100 hours in make and model. D. The PIC has a logbook endorsement to fly single-pilot operations

Answer 25

The PIC has a logbook endorsement to fly single-pilot operations Explanation: The PIC must be trained and qualified as a PIC, but there is no requirement for a logbook endorsement.

Question 26

A second in command (SIC) is required for all commuter operations. TRUE FALSE

Answer 26

FALSE Explanation: There is an exception. An SIC is not required when the PIC has 100 hours PIC make and model, and the Ops Specs allow for use of an autopilot system in lieu of an SIC, and there are fewer than 10 passenger seats in the aircraft. An SIC is required anytime a two-pilot crew is mandated by the Ops Specs, the Aircraft Flight Manual, or if there are ten passenger seats or more.

Question 27

Which of the following is a required testing topic for initial Part 135 pilot qualification? A. Appropriate provisions of 14 CFR Parts 61, 91 & 135 B. Company procedures in the Ops Specs. C. Navigation and air traffic control procedures D. All of the above

Answer 27

All of the above

Question 28

Prior to flying revenue flights, pilots must pass a competency check in which the pilot demonstrates he or she is the obvious master of the aircraft and the successful completion of any maneuver is never in doubt. TRUE FALSE

Answer 28

TRUE Explanation: This is a Part 135 requirement

Question 29

After your initial pilot qualification you must complete recurrent testing every A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 18 months D. 24 months

Answer 29

12 months Explanation: Pilots must be re-tested at least every 12 calendar months after initial qualification.

Question 30

A competency check is required A. Every 6 months B. Annually C. Biannually D. Only Once

Answer 30

Annually

Question 31

An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required every ____ months and _______ (may / may not) satisfy the requirements of a competency check. A. 6, may B. 6, may not C. 12, may D. 12, may not

Answer 31

6, may Explanation: An IPC must be conducted every 6 months. It can qualify as the annual competency check

Question 32

A PIC’s first line check must be performed. A. Immediately after initial qualification as PIC B. Within 6 months of initial qualification as PIC C. Within 12 months of initial qualification as PIC D. No later than 18 months after initial qualification as PIC

Answer 32

Within 12 months of initial qualification as PIC Explanation: The first line check is performed within 12 calendar months after becoming a PIC.

Question 33

Upon initial hire with a Part 135 operator, a pilot must pass an oral or written exam and a competency check. For a pilot operating a multiengine airplane, the initial ‘flight check’ may be given in category and class. The flight check only needs to be in type if it involves a turbojet TRUE FALSE

Answer 33

FALSE Explanation: Turbojets AND multiengine aircraft require the competency check to be given in type.

Question 34

Prior to reporting for flight duty a pilot must determine that he or she A. Has eaten B. Has a valid work call from the dispatcher C. Has had the required rest within 24 hours. D. Has a qualified pilot or co-pilot

Answer 34

Has had the required rest within 24 hours. Explanation: One of the main goals of the crew rest and duty limitation portion of the regulation is to make sure pilots are not fatigued when flying. The first requirement is adequate rest. The second is not to exceed work limitations.

Question 35

Once at work, pilots must be alert not to exceed A. Daily flight time limitations B. Daily duty time limitations C. Cumulative hour limitations. D. All of the above

Answer 35

All of the above Explanation: Pilots must observe all the listed limitations and stop working prior to exceeding any of them.

Question 36

Crew rest requirements and crew duty limitations under Part 135 operations are the same for scheduled and non-scheduled operations. TRUE FALSE

Answer 36

FALSE Explanation: Both the crew rest and duty limitations vary depending on whether you are flying scheduled or non-scheduled operations.

Question 37

``` The responsibility to determine whether a pilot is fit to fly and can accept a flight assignment rests with the A. Dispatcher B. Chief Pilot C. Individual Pilot D. Director of Flight Operations ```

Answer 37

Individual Pilot Explanation: Under Part 135, BEFORE accepting a flight assignment each pilot is responsible for assuring they have the required rest and won’t exceed flight or duty limitations.

Question 38

Commercial flying time does NOT include which of the following: A. Part 91 repositioning flights for the company B. Part 91 Corporate flying. C. Part 91 flight for personal business. D. Flight Instruction

Answer 38

Part 91 flight for personal business. Explanation: Commercial flying time includes any flying for compensation or hire. It does not include Part 91 flying for personal activities.

Question 39

Local transportation from your home to work or from work to your home is considered to be A. Rest B. Duty C. Neither A nor B D. Flight

Answer 39

Rest Explanation: Local transportation to and from work is considered to be part of your rest period.

Question 40

Transportation, not local in nature (deadhead flights), provided by the certificate holder to or from work is considered to be A. Rest B. Duty C. Neither A nor B D. Flight

Answer 40

Neither A nor B Explanation: Transportation that is not local in nature, that is provided by the certificate holder, is neither rest nor duty time.

Question 41

In addition to limits on the length of a duty day, the regulations limit the number of commercial flying hours a pilot can accumulate over defined calendar periods (day, week, month, quarter, half and year) depending on the type of operations being flown. TRUE FALSE

Answer 41

TRUE Explanation: Pilots may not exceed commercial flight hours for different time periods. The limits vary depending on the type of operation being flown (scheduled or non-scheduled).

Question 42

In scheduled operations, the “reduced rest” rules allow pilots to fly with less than the normally required minimum rest (9, 10 or 11 hours) between two duty periods as long as the pilot receives a minimum rest period of ___ hours and is provided the opportunity for additional rest after the second duty period. This additional rest must begin no later than ____ hours after the start of the reduced rest period. A. 24, 6 B. 6, 24 C. 24, 8 D. 8, 24

Answer 42

8, 24 Explanation: In scheduled operations, in all cases pilots must have a minimum rest period of 8 hours between duty periods. When a reduced rest period is scheduled between two duty periods, the company must provide additional compensatory rest NO LATER than 24 hours after the start of the reduced rest period.

Question 43

You work for Fenix Air Charter that conducts unscheduled flights with a two-pilot crew. You reported for duty at 7am for a 14-hour duty period. During that 14-hour duty period you performed office functions and flew a cumulative 10 hours and 34 minutes (34 minutes over your allowed 10 hours of flying due to delays beyond your control). Your duty period ended at 9pm. You were then transported to a local hotel by your company and arrived at 9:45pm. What is the earliest time tomorrow that you can accept or be assigned a flight? A. 7:00 AM B. 8:00 AM C. 9:00 AM D. 9:45 AM

Answer 43

9:00 AM Explanation: If you overfly your maximum flight time by more than 30 minutes but less than 60 minutes, you are not allowed to be assigned or accept any flight assignment until you have received 12 consecutive hours of rest starting immediately after you are released from that duty period. Answer D is not correct because the time in transit to a local hotel counts as rest time.

Question 44

You are required to be tested for drugs if you participate in which of the following flight operations? A. Part 91, Part 121 and Part 135 B. Part 91, and Part 121 C. Part 91, and Part 135 D. Part 121 and Part 135

Answer 44

Part 121 and Part 135 Explanation: There is no FAA requirement for drug testing for Part 91 operations (corporate or private).

Question 45

You may not act as a required crew member if you have consumed alcohol within 8 hours of flying. You are also required to ban any other required crewmember from participation in a flight if you know they have consumed alcohol within 8 hours of the start of a flight. TRUE FALSE

Answer 45

TRUE Explanation: You cannot allow another crew member to endanger a flight if you know they have consumed alcohol within 8 hours of a flight.

Question 46

If you violate any of the prohibitions on the use of drugs or alcohol, Fenix Air Charter is required to notify the Federal Air Surgeon with in ____ days. A. 2 Calendar days B. 2 Working days C. 10 Calendar days D. 10 Working days

Answer 46

2 Working days Explanation: Your employer has 2 working days to notify the Federal Air Surgeon if they determine you violated any of the drug or alcohol related regulations.

Question 47

If you have a motor vehicle action involving alcohol or a refusal to test, you must report it to the FAA within ____ days. A. 10 B. 15 C. 30 D. 60

Answer 47

60 Explanation: Failure to report an alcohol related motor vehicle citation within 60 days can result in administrative action by the FAA. This includes the possible suspension or revocation of ANY certificate, rating or authorization held by the individual.

Question 48

In addition to your pilot certificate appropriate for the operations being conducted, and a valid medical certificate, you must have in your possession while flying ``` A. A social security card B. Proof of citizenship C. A government issued photo I.D. card D. None of the above 5. ```

Answer 48

A government issued photo I.D. card Explanation: You must have a government-issued photo identification card to be able to prove you are the individual named on your pilot and medical certificates.

Question 49

A temporary airmen’s certificate is valid for ___ days. A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120

Answer 49

120

Question 50

If you are operating internationally, you must have the ICAO English Proficiency endorsement on your pilot’s certificate. TRUE FALSE

Answer 50

TRUE Explanation: This is an ICAO requirement to which the FAA subscribes.

Question 51

Recent Flight Experience. You are required to log A. Aeronautical experience required for currency B. Training required for a certificate or rating. C. Aeronautical experience required for a certificate or rating. D. All of the above

Answer 51

All of the above Explanation: In addition to logging the above information you must also track your flying time to ensure you do not exceed your maximum allowable flying time in a given calendar period.

Question 52

You have done night operations for the last four months and have logged 90 night landings. Your last day landing was over 90 days ago. You are still current to carry passengers on a Part 135 daytime flight. TRUE FALSE

Answer 52

TRUE Explanation: As with Part 91, for Part 135 operations, if you are current for night landings you are also current for daytime operations.

Question 53

To fly as pilot-in-command (PIC) under instrument flight rules (IFR) in Part 135 operations, you must have completed an instrument proficiency check (IPC) within the previous ____ A. 6 months B. 12 months C. 24 months D. None of the above

Answer 53

6 months Explanation: Your semi-annual IPC must include a written or oral exam in addition to a flight check. The flight check may be conducted under simulated or actual conditions. If you are assigned to more than one type of aircraft then you rotate the aircraft in which you take your IPC.

Question 54

You work for an on-demand operator and are flying an eligible on-demand flight as a second-in-command (SIC). You have 50 hours in make, model and type (if appropriate). The PIC you are flying with is the PNF (pilot not flying) on this leg. The PIC is not a company check pilot. The ATIS for your arrival airport includes a warning for windshear but the weather is VFR. You can continue the approach and make the landing. TRUE FALSE

Answer 54

FALSE Explanation: With less than 100 hours in make, model and type (if appropriate) an SIC cannot land the aircraft with windshear reported in the vicinity of the airport during eligible on-demand operations unless the PIC is a company check pilot under 135.4. However, if the flight is a Part 91 repositioning flight, then the SIC can make the landing.

Question 55

All aircraft in Part 135 operations must be weighed every 36 months. TRUE FALSE

Answer 55

FASLE Explanation: While all aircraft must have empty weight and balance information, only multiengine aircraft operated under Part 135 are required to be weighed every 36 months. Single-engine aircraft must have their empty weight and CG determined whenever there is a configuration change, but it can be done by computation.

Question 56

For a given aircraft weight, as the airport elevation increases the stopping distance from V1 A. Decreases B. Increases C. Remains the same D. None of the above

Answer 56

Increases Explanation: For any aircraft configuration, as the airport elevation increases the stopping distance from V1 will also increase. This is due, in part, to the higher true airspeed for the indicated airspeed

Question 57

Aircraft with fewer than ___ passenger seats must use actual passenger and baggage weights. A. 5 B. 10 C. 14 D. 19

Answer 57

5 Explanation: Advisory Circular AC120-27E, Aircraft Weight and Balance Control, stipulates that aircraft with fewer than 5 passenger seats must use actual passenger and baggage weights when calculating weight and balance for a flight. This is because variations from the standard weights have a much bigger impact in a small aircraft than in a large one.

Question 58

When using standard average weights, the weight allowance for a personal item or carry-on bag is A. 8 lbs. B. 10 lbs. C. 15 lbs. D. 16 lbs.

Answer 58

16 Explanation: Standard passenger and baggage weights are defined in Advisory Circular AC 120-27E, Aircraft Weight and Balance Control.

Question 59

When using standard average weights, the minimum value for a checked bag must be A. 20 lbs. B. 30 lbs. C. 40 lbs. D. 50 lbs.

Answer 59

30 Explanation: The average weight for a standard sized bag should be at least 30 pounds, according to Advisory Circular AC 120-27E, Aircraft Weight and Balance Control.

Question 60

The use of segmented weights in small aircraft penalizes the operator with higher average weights due to the small sample size and the need for 90% confidence. TRUE FALSE

Answer 60

TRUE Explanation: When using segmented weights in small aircraft, average passenger weight has to be increased to ensure a 90% confidence factor that the estimated weight is equal to or greater than the actual weight.

Question 61

The PIC for all aircraft participating in revenue operations must fill out a flight manifest form. TRUE FALSE

Answer 61

FALSE Explanation: A flight manifest form is only required when operating multiengine aircraft.

Question 62

The flight manifest form must be kept on file for a minimum of ___ days after completing a flight. A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60

Answer 62

30 Explanation: The flight manifest form must be kept on file at the company home office for a minimum of 30 days after the completion of a flight.

Question 63

Company employees that are not part of the crew are considered to be passengers and must be provided a full passenger briefing prior to takeoff. TRUE FALSE

Answer 63

FALSE Explanation: According to 135.85, company employees are not considered to be revenue passengers and are not required to be given the same passenger briefing as paying passengers.

Question 64

If a passenger does not comply with a crewmember’s instructions, it is a federal offense. TRUE FALSE

Answer 64

TRUE Explanation: Passengers may not interfere with crew members, and failure to follow instructions from a crew member is a federal offense. 135.127

Question 65

Which of the following Part 135 operation(s) is/are exempt from exit seating requirements? A. Commuter operations having 9 or less passenger seats B. On-demand operations having 19 or less passenger seats C. Both A and B D. None of the above

Answer 65

Both A and B Explanation: Exit seating rules apply to all operations under Part 135 EXCEPT for commuter operations with 9 or less passenger seats and on-demand operations with 19 or less passenger seats. 135.129

Question 66

Crewmembers trained in the use of on-board oxygen systems may also connect or disconnect fittings and components on medical oxygen equipment as well. TRUE FALSE

Answer 66

FALSE Explanation: You must be specifically trained in the use of medical oxygen equipment to connect or disconnect fittings on that equipment. 135.91

Question 67

Pilots and crewmembers may carry firearms on-board an aircraft if it is authorized by the certificate holder. TRUE FALSE

Answer 67

TRUE Explanation: The certificate holder may authorize individuals to carry deadly weapons on-board the aircraft. 135.119

Question 68

Passengers are not allowed to board an aircraft, and cannot be served alcohol on-board, if they appear to be intoxicated. TRUE FALSE

Answer 68

TRUE Explanation: Passengers that appear to be intoxicated are not allowed to board an aircraft and, if they are already on board, may not be served additional alcoholic drinks. 135.121

Question 69

For cargo operations, cargo can obstruct any emergency or regular exit and views to the seatbelt and no-smoking signs as long as one exit is available. TRUE FALSE

Answer 69

TRUE Explanation: For cargo operations, only one exit needs to be available. 135.87

Question 70

Since Fenix Air Charter is permitted to carry Hazardous Materials (HAZMAT), you are required to complete HAZMAT training: A. Never B. On initial hire only C. On initial hire and every 12 months thereafter D. On initial hire and every 24 months thereafter

Answer 70

On initial hire and every 24 months thereafter Explanation: Pilots flying for a will-carry certificate holder must complete HAZMAT training on initial hire and every 24 months thereafter. 135.333 You need to be able to identify potential hazardous materials, and know the rules for reporting damaged packages that contain suspected HAZMAT.

Question 71

When operating under Part 135, which aircraft are required to have an approved Minimum Equipment List (MEL)? A. Turbine powered aircraft only. B. Piston powered aircraft C. Any aircraft flying with inoperative equipment D. None of the above

Answer 71

Any aircraft flying with inoperative equipment Explanation: Any aircraft operating under Part 135 with inoperative equipment are required to have an approved MEL.

Question 72

32. The MEL A. Is specific to an aircraft serial number B. Must be carried on board the aircraft C. Must be included in the air Ops Specs D. All of the above

Answer 72

All of the above

Question 73

Passenger convenience items that do not affect airworthiness or safety of flight do not need to be maintained or tracked if they are not functioning. TRUE FALSE

Answer 73

FALSE Explanation: Passenger convenience items may be listed in a separate Nonessential Equipment and Furnishings (NEF) list, but they must be maintained and tracked when they are not operational.

Question 74

Special Flight Permits (ferry permits) must be obtained from the FAA offices in Oklahoma City. TRUE FALSE

Answer 74

FALSE Explanation: Ferry permits are issued by your local Flight Standards District Office (FSDO).

Question 75

Which of the following is NOT a reason you need to get or use a ferry permit? A. Reposition an aircraft to a place where repairs can be made B. Operate in excess of certified max gross weight for long range flights C. Conduct temporary revenue operations not listed in your Ops Specs D. Conduct test or delivery flights.

Answer 75

Conduct temporary revenue operations not listed in your Ops Specs Explanation: A ferry permit is not used to conduct revenue operations not listed in your Ops Spec. Only required crewmembers are allowed on a ferry flight.

Question 76

TCAS is required for turbine-powered aircraft having A. 9 or more passenger seats B. 10-30 passenger seats C. More than 30 passenger seats D. None of the above

Answer 76

10-30 passenger seats Explanation: Turbine-powered aircraft with 10 – 30 passenger seats must have an operable TCAS. 135.180

Question 77

Class A TAWS is required for A. All aircraft with 10 or more passenger seats B. Turbine aircraft with 10 or more passenger seats C. All aircraft with 9 or more passenger seats D. Turbine aircraft with 9 or more passenger seats

Answer 77

Turbine aircraft with 10 or more passenger seats Explanation: Turbine aircraft with 10 or more passenger seats must have a Class A TAWS. Class A TAWS systems must include an approved terrain situational awareness display. 135.154

Question 78

There is no requirements for a TAWS system in Part 135 operations for aircraft with less than 10 passenger seats. TRUE FALSE

Answer 78

FALSE Explanation: Turbine aircraft with 6 – 9 passenger seats must have a Class B TAWS. While no terrain situational awareness display is required for a Class B TAWS system, many Class B units will have a display. 135.154

Question 79

For small aircraft (under 12,500 pounds MTOW) with a passenger seat configuration of 10 or more seats you are required to have A. Approved thunderstorm detection equipment B. Approved airborne weather radar equipment C. Either A or B D. Both A and B

Answer 79

Either A or B Explanation: You are required to have either thunderstorm detection equipment (such as a Stormscope) or airborne weather radar for small airplanes with 10 or more passenger seats. You MAY have both. Large airplanes must have weather radar. 135.173 and 135.175

Question 80

Weather radar equipment (as opposed to thunderstorm detection equipment) is required for which of the following operations? A. Large, transport category aircraft in passenger-carrying operations B. Commuter operations in Hawaii or Alaska C. Training, test or ferry flights D. All of the above

Answer 80

Large, transport category aircraft in passenger-carrying operations Explanation: Commuter operations in Alaska and Hawaii as well as training, test or ferry flights are exempt from having weather radar even if they are using large, transport category aircraft.

Question 81

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for installed aircraft oxygen systems? A. A means for the pilot (s) to determine the quantity available in each source. B. A mixing regulator to supply the proper portion of oxygen for the existing cabin altitude. C. The ability for pilot (s) to determine that oxygen is being delivered D. The ability for pilots to use the undiluted oxygen, at their discretion above FL250.

Answer 81

A mixing regulator to supply the proper portion of oxygen for the existing cabin altitude. Explanation: A mixing regulator is not a requirement.

Question 82

In an unpressurized aircraft on a Part 135 flight, pilots must use oxygen at all times when flying above A. 8000 msl at night B. 10,000 msl C. 12,000 msl D. 14,000 msl

Answer 82

12,000 msl Explanation: There is no FAA distinction for oxygen use between flying at night and during the day. Pilots must use oxygen between 10,000 and 12,000 feet MSL for that portion of a flight greater than 30 minutes at those altitudes, and continuously when flying above 12,000 MSL. (The mandatory altitude for oxygen use for pilots on Part 91 flights is 14,000 feet.)

Question 83

In pressurized aircraft, pilots must have quick-donning oxygen masks available, or one pilot must be wearing an oxygen mask for flights above A. 20,000 – 30,000’ msl B. 20,000 – 35,000’ msl C. 25,000 – 30,000’ msl D. 25,000 – 35,000’ msl

Answer 83

25,000 - 35,000' msl Explanation: For flights in pressurized aircraft at altitudes above 25,000 feet through 35,000 feet MSL, pilots must have a quick-donning mask available OR one pilot must be wearing a secured and sealed mask capable of supplying oxygen automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds 12,000 feet MSL. The other pilot must have a readily available mask connected to an oxygen supply.

Question 84

In pressurized aircraft flying above 35,000 feet MSL both pilots must wear oxygen masks at all times TRUE FALSE

Answer 84

FALSE Explanation: For flights above 35,000 feet MSL, at least one pilot must wear an oxygen mask at all times. It must be capable of supplying oxygen immediately in the event of a depressurization

Question 85

35. Passengers in unpressurized aircraft must be provided oxygen at all times for flights above A. 10,000’ MSL B. 12,000’ MSL C. 14,000’ MSL D. 15,000’ MSL

Answer 85

15,000’ MSL Explanation: Each occupant in an unpressurized aircraft must be provided oxygen at all times for flight above 15,000 feet MSL.

Question 86

When operating above 25,000 feet MSL in a pressurized aircraft, passengers are required to have ____ minutes of oxygen available to them. A. 5 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30

Answer 86

10 Explanation: In this situation passengers are to be provided with at least 10 minutes supply of oxygen to allow time for an emergency descent in the event of a loss of pressurization.

Question 87

If a pressurized aircraft operates at altitudes where the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet A. There are no additional requirements B. You must offer passengers oxygen C. You must meet the same requirements as an unpressurized aircraft, plus other altitude-specific requirements D. Both B and C

Answer 87

You must meet the same requirements as an unpressurized aircraft, plus other altitude-specific requirements Explanation: For flights in pressurized aircraft where the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet, you must meet the same requirements as an unpressurized aircraft. Plus there are requirements for oxygen availability for flights above 10,000 feet MSL up to 15,000 feet MSL and additional requirements for flights above 15,000 feet MSL.

Question 88

For Part 135 operations fire extinguishers must be located A. On the flight deck for use by the crew B. In the passenger compartment in aircraft with 10-30 passenger seats C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

Answer 88

Both A and B Explanation: All Part 135 flights must have one hand-held fire extinguisher on the flight deck for the flight crew. An aircraft with 10-30 passenger seats must also have a hand-held fire extinguisher available in the passenger compartment.

Question 89

Your emergency training must include individual instruction on all EXCEPT which of the following: A. Fire extinguisher inspection and schedule B. Location of fire extinguishers in your aircraft C. Types of fire extinguishers available D. Classes of fires your extinguishers may be used on.

Answer 89

Fire extinguisher inspection and schedule Explanation: You are not required to know the inspection and testing schedule for fire extinguishers on your aircraft, but you do need individual instruction on the other information listed.

Question 90

Which of the following is NOT required for night VFR pilotage operations carrying passengers? A. A rate of turn and slip-skid indicator B. A pitch and bank indicator C. An FAA approved RNAV GPS D. Two way radio capable of communicating with ATC

Answer 90

An FAA approved RNAV GPS Explanation: 14 CFR 135.161 requires “Navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown”, but it does not have to be an RNAV/GPS.

Question 91

Which of the following is required for VFR night operations carrying passengers? A. An anti-collision light system B. Instrument lights so the pilot can see all the switches and gauges C. The same instruments required for VFR over the top operations. D. All of the above

Answer 91

All of the above Explanation: 14 CFR 135.159 requires all of the above equipment. It also requires that you carry a flashlight with at least two size “D” cells or equivalent.

Question 92

In addition to the items required for VFR operations in the previous two questions, large (over 12,500 pounds) multi-engine airplanes must have one-engine-inoperative climb performance data onboard. TRUE FALSE

Answer 92

TRUE Explanation: Large multi-engine aircraft must have engine-out performance data available to the pilots in flight.

Question 93

Which of the following is required for all aircraft carrying passengers under IFR? A. All equipment required for day and night VFR operations B. Free air temperature gauge C. Heated pitot tube for each airspeed indicator D. All of the above

Answer 93

All of the above Explanation: All of this equipment is required for aircraft carrying passengers under IFR. The aircraft must also have a: - Vertical speed indicator - Power failure warning device or vacuum indicator - Alternative source of static pressure for the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator - Two independent sources of electrical energy for the required equipment The aircraft is not required to be equipped with a de-icing system, but if it is not it may not fly in known icing conditions.

Question 94

In addition to the equipment required for all aircraft carrying passengers under IFR, single-engine aircraft operating IFR must have a second power source capable of supplying 150% of the electrical load for all required instruments and equipment necessary for safe operation for one hour. TRUE FALSE

Answer 94

TRUE Explanation: Single-engine aircraft must have a second power source capable of supplying 150% of the required electrical load for 1 hour.

Question 95

Multi-engine aircraft must meet which of the following requirements? A. At least two generators or alternators on separate engines B. Half the available generators’ total output must supply power required for all required instruments and equipment needed for safe emergency operation. C. For helicopters, both generators may be mounted on the main rotor drive. D. All of the above

Answer 95

ALL OF THE ABOVE

Question 96

``` For fixed-wing aircraft, extended overwater operations is defined as being more than ___ miles from the nearest shoreline. A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 - * D. 100 ```

Answer 96

50 Explanation: 14 CFR 1.1 defines extended overwater operations for fixed-wing aircraft as a horizontal distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline.

Question 97

``` For extended overwater and desolate area operations, in addition to normal IFR communications requirements the airplane (with some exceptions) must be equipped with ___ long-range communications system(s), ___ of which must be capable of two-way voice communications. A. 1,1 B. 2,1 C. 2,2 D. 3,1 ```

Answer 97

2,1 Question Explanation: Usually the long-range two-way voice communications system is HF radio. In some cases the FAA may allow the use of a single long-range communications system, depending on the route being flown.

Question 98

Use of a single, independent navigation system (for example, GPS) is permissible for IFR navigation if A. There are no passengers onboard B. There is another type of system capable of IFR navigation (for example VOR/ILS) C. The weather is better than 500’ and Vis 3 mi. D. This is not permitted.

Answer 98

There is another type of system capable of IFR navigation (for example VOR/ILS) Question Explanation: Use of a single IFR navigation system of a particular type is permitted as long as there is a second type of IFR navigation system that, at any point along the route, allows the aircraft to proceed safely, using the secondary system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach. The aircraft must have sufficient fuel for this potential diversion.

Question 99

When using VOR equipment to meet IFR navigation requirements, the aircraft must also be equipped with: A. One DME Receiver B. Two DME Receivers C. One DME Receiver or suitable RNAV system D. One DME Receiver and one ADF receiver

Answer 99

One DME Receiver or suitable RNAV system Question Explanation: When using VOR equipment to meet IFR navigation requirements, the aircraft must have either one DME receiver OR one suitable RNAV system (such as GPS).

Question 100

For extended overwater operations, in addition to normal IFR navigation systems requirements, the airplane (with some exceptions) must be equipped with ___ long-range navigation system(s) suitable for the route to be flown to the degree of accuracy specified by air traffic service. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Answer 100

2 Question Explanation: In some cases the FAA may allow the use of a single long-range navigation system, depending on the route being flown.

Question 101

45. Required navigation equipment for IFR also includes: A. One marker beacon receiver with visual and aural indications B. One ILS receiver C. Neither A nor B, if the aircraft is certificated for GPS WAAS approaches D. Both A and B

Answer 101

Both A and B Question Explanation: For IFR operations, the FAA requires that the aircraft have one marker beacon receiver with visual and aural indications and one ILS receiver. This applies even if the aircraft is certificated for GPS WAAS approaches.

Question 102

46. For aircraft used in Part 135 extended overwater operations each occupant must be provided a life preserver and the life raft(s) must be able to hold ___ percent of the occupants. A. 25 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100

Answer 102

100 Explanation: The life preserver must have an approved survivor locator light and the life raft(s) must be able to hold all of the occupants.

Question 103

At least one life raft must have A. A locator beacon B. A GPS C. A survivor locator light D. All of the above

Answer 103

A locator beacon Explanation: At least one life raft must have an emergency locator beacon. ALL life rafts must have a survivor locator light (and must also have an approved pyrotechnic signaling device and a survival kit appropriate to the route). There is no requirement for any of the life rafts to have a GPS.

Question 104

Aircraft with more than 19 passenger seats in Part 135 operations are required to have A. An approved first aid kit for injuries likely to occur. B. A crash axe accessible to the crew C. Signs indicating when smoking is not allowed and seatbelts are to be worn D. All of the above

Answer 104

All of the above Explanation: Aircraft with more than 19 passenger seats must have all the items listed, and they must be inspected regularly (as specified in the company’s Operations Specifications).

Question 105

A change in temperature and a change in wind are always associated with the passage of a frontal system TRUE FALSE

Answer 105

TRUE Explanation: The passage of a frontal system brings with it a change in pressure affecting the winds and a change in temperature

Question 106

In the northern hemisphere, cold fronts usually move in a(n)______ direction at 20 to 35 mph A. Northerly B. Southerly C. Easterly D. Westerly

Answer 106

Easterly Explanation: Cold fronts are usually oriented in a Northeastern-Southwestern line in the northern hemisphere and move in an easterly direction.

Question 107

Warm fronts characteristically have A. Good visibility B. Poor visibility C. Cooler air behind the front D. None of the above

Answer 107

Poor visibility Explanation: Warm fronts are generally associated with low ceilings, poor visibility and rain.

Question 108

Stationary fronts usually display characteristics of A. Warm fronts B. Cold fronts C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

Answer 108

Both A and B Explanation: Stationary fronts have weather conditions that are a mixture of cold and warm front characteristics.

Question 109

Occluded fronts occur when A. A front dissipates B. A slow-moving warm front catches a fast-moving cold front C. A fast-moving cold front catches a slow-moving warm front D. None of the above

Answer 109

A fast-moving cold front catches a slow-moving warm front Explanation: Occluded fronts occur when a fast-moving cold front overtakes a slow-moving warm front.

Question 110

For aircraft with icing protection, icing conditions are easily handled and do not pose a serious problem TRUE FALSE

Answer 110

FALSE Explanation: Icing conditions pose severe hazards to all aircraft during ground and flight operations.

Question 111

Induction icing A. Limits Thrust B. Increases fuel consumption C. Can damage compressor sections D. All of the above

Answer 111

All of the above Explanation: Induction icing limits thrust, increases fuel consumption and can damage compressor sections

Question 112

Structural icing can reduce lift by ___% and increase drag by ____% A. 40, 30 B. 30, 40 C. 25, 35 D. 35, 25

Answer 112

30, 40 Explanation: Structural icing can reduce lift by 30% and increase drag by 40%.

Question 113

53. Which type(s) of fog require(s) a wind in order to form? A. Radiation B. Advection C. Upslope D. Both B and C

Answer 113

Both B and C Explanation: Both advection fog and upslope fog require a wind in order to form. Advection fog forms when warm, moist air moves over a colder surface. Upslope fog forms when moist, stable air is pushed up rising terrain (such as on the east side of the Rockies). On the other hand, radiation fog forms on clear, still nights with little or no wind.

Question 114

Airports with low visibility taxi plans are required to have additional taxi guidance and lighting such as A. Taxiway edge and centerline lights B. Runway guard lights C. Stop bar lights D. All of the above

Answer 114

All of the above Explanation: Airports having takeoff or landing operations in less than 1,200 feet runway visual range (RVR) visibility are required to have low visibility taxi plans. More information can be found in AC 120-57

Question 115

Which of the following is NOT required for a thunderstorm to form? A. Sufficient water vapor (humidity) B. An unstable lapse rate C. Dust or particles in the air D. An initial upward boot. (lifting action)

Answer 115

Dust or particles in the air Explanation: Dust and particulates in the air are not a requirement for a thunderstorm to form, although they will frequently be present.

Question 116

When planning flights you should attempt to A. Avoid thunderstorms if possible B. Fly under thunderstorms C. Fly over thunderstorms D. Penetrate the thunderstorms 2/3 of the way up from the base of clouds.

Answer 116

Avoid thunderstorms if possible Explanation: The best plan is to avoid thunderstorms. Flying under the storm can be dangerous due to severe turbulence and low-level wind shear. Flying over the storm can be impossible due to its rapid growth rate and high top. There is no good altitude to penetrate a thunderstorm.

Question 117

The advantage of onboard weather radar is that it provides ___ information about _____. However, it usually does not display _____ A. Complete cloud cover, hail B. Real-time, cloud cover, turbulence C. Real-time, precipitation, turbulence D. Complete, precipitation, hail

Answer 117

Real-time, precipitation, turbulence Explanation: Onboard weather radar provides real-time information about precipitation. Hail is a form of precipitation, and will show on weather radar. Weather radar does not show cloud cover. Most weather radars do not display turbulence, although some of the newer radars may.

Question 118

NEXRAD weather information and images can be up to ___ minute(s) old and should only be used in flight for_____________ A. 1, strategic planning purposes B. 25, strategic planning purposes C. 1, navigation between weather cells D. 25, navigation between weather cells

Answer 118

25, strategic planning purposes Explanation: NEXRAD information cockpit displays can be as much as 5 minutes old, but the information used to generate the display can be 15 to 20 minutes old. Any depicted “clear” path near a storm could be gone when you attempt to use it.

Question 119

If you find yourself accidentally penetrating a thunderstorm you should A. Set power for recommended power penetration speed B. Hand fly or disengage the ALT and AIRSPEED hold molds C. Accept variations in ALT and smoothly maintain constant attitude D. All of the above

Answer 119

All of the above Explanation: Thunderstorm penetration requires all the actions listed to not overstress the aircraft or lose control. Use any information you have available to fly a path that results in minimum time in the storm, by flying perpendicular to the storm line or straight through the cell. Once you have penetrated a storm, do not try to turn around – you could overstress the aircraft or lose control.

Question 120

Wind shear is dangerous for all aircraft but of greater concern to ___ and ____ aircraft A. Large, turbojet B. Larger, turboprop C. Smaller, piston D. Smaller, turbojet

Answer 120

Large, turbojet Explanation: Because of their heavier mass, larger aircraft need more time and power to compensate for speed changes caused by turbulence. Turbojet aircraft have less responsive thrust than turboprop or piston-powered aircraft when trying to adjust speed.

Question 121

In the winter, the jet stream tends to be: A. Stronger, lower, and nearer the equator B. Weaker, lower and nearer the poles C. Stronger, higher, and nearer the equator D. Weaker, higher, and nearer the poles

Answer 121

Stronger, lower, and nearer the equator Explanation: In the winter the jet stream intensifies, lowers and shifts towards the equator.

Question 122

The U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart provides forecast information on jet streams, turbulence and thunderstorm activity for flights between A. 18,000 and 60,000’ B. 20,000 and 60,000’ C. 24,000 and 60,000’ D. 25,000 and 60,000’

Answer 122

24,000 and 60,000’ Explanation: You need to consult the high-level prognostic chart for flights between 24,000 and 60,000 feet.

Question 123

Which of the following is NOT considered in the FARs to be a severe weather condition? A. Low altitude windshear B. Operating near thunderstorms C. Turbulent air D. Temp/dewpoint spread of less than 2º celcius

Answer 123

Temp/dewpoint spread of less than 2º celcius Explanation: A temperature/dewpoint spread of less than 2°C is an indication of potential foggy conditions and/or precipitation, but it is not considered to be a severe weather condition.

Question 124

Air Traffic Control (ATC) will provide weather information from their radar displays A. Anytime you ask B. Whenever they see heavy or extreme precipitation on their screens C. On a workload basis after ensuring required traffic separation D. None of the above 4. When you are working to avoid weather and receive a “When able” clearance, you need to confirm with the controller if they are referring to weather or navigational capabilities. TRUE FALSE Explanation: If the controller clears you “Direct XXX when able,” you need to know if they mean when you are clear of conflicting weather or as soon as possible based on your navigational capability. If you have been given clearance by the controller to deviate for weather, the normal assumption on receipt of this clearance would be that you should go direct to XXX when you are comfortable that you are clear of the weather.

Answer 124

On a workload basis after ensuring required traffic separation Explanation: ATC is a service agency. They will provide any assistance they can after making sure required traffic separation, which is their primary job, is maintained.

Question 125

ATC relies primarily on NEXRAD images to provide weather information and that data can be up to 5 minutes old. TRUE FALSE

Answer 125

TRUE Explanation: ATC’s primary source of radar weather information is NEXRAD, although some controllers may be able to select a raw data display as a secondary mode.

Question 126

When using ATC for weather avoidance assistance you need to A. Remind the new controller when changing frequencies B. Let controllers know when your conditions change (IMC to VMC) C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

Answer 126

Both A and B Explanation: If you are using ATC to assist you in weather avoidance it is wise to let new controllers know that, in case the previous controller didn’t pass the information along. You also need to let controllers know when your flight conditions change for the better or worse.

Question 127

You can never deviate from an IFR clearance, so it’s important to give ATC as much advanced warning when requesting deviations for weather. TRUE FALSE

Answer 127

FALSE Explanation: The earlier you can coordinate a weather deviation the better for both you and ATC. However, if you find yourself in an extreme situation you may exercise your emergency authority as PIC, do what is necessary to keep the aircraft safe, and inform ATC of your actions.

Question 128

The best escape maneuver for severe weather is an early escape maneuver. TRUE FALSE

Answer 128

TRUE Explanation: It’s always better to initiate an escape maneuver for bad weather before you encounter the weather, but do something as soon as you recognize a need.

Question 129

Which of the following is NOT a good escape maneuver for icing conditions? A. Climb B. Descend C. Change course D. Wait and see if things improve

Answer 129

Wait and see if things improve Explanation: Doing nothing but continuing at your current altitude is the least likely way to resolve a problem with icing conditions.

Question 130

Mountain waves are a low altitude problem and should have no effect on your ability to maintain altitude if you are above FL180. TRUE FALSE

Answer 130

FALSE Explanation: Mountain waves can affect your ability to maintain altitude well above FL180.

Question 131

When flying at lower altitudes in mountainous regions with known down drafts in the area you should A. Be aware of the direction of wind B. Avoid the lee (downwind) side of the ridgelines C. Leave yourself turning room to get away from the ridgeline D. All of the above

Answer 131

All of the above Explanation: Typical downdrafts are 1,000 to 1,400 feet per minute but can be much higher. You should avoid the lee side of ridgelines if possible. If you need to cross a ridge, approach the ridgeline at a 45° angle to give yourself turning room.

Question 132

Microbursts are usually associated with: A. Frontal Areas B. Thunderstorms C. Both A and B D. Neither A and B

Answer 132

Both A and B Explanation: Microbursts will most often be encountered during frontal passage or near thunderstorms.

Question 133

Once a microburst develops it will last for an extended period of time over a wide area. TRUE FALSE

Answer 133

FALSE Explanation: Microbursts are short-lived, lasting 2 to 5 minutes, and very localized in nature with a diameter of about 2 miles.

Question 134

If you encounter a microburst you should: A. Ride it out as there will be a cushion at the bottom B. Maintain power and attitude C. Immediately initiate full power and increase angle of attack to best climb D. None of the above

Answer 134

Immediately initiate full power and increase angle of attack to best climb Explanation: Microbursts encountered at low altitude require immediate, aggressive action to prevent being forced into the ground by the downdraft. You should also leave the flaps and gear in whatever configuration they were in when you encountered the microburst.

Question 135

If for any reason you are unable to maintain your assigned altitude, or are unsure of your ability to do so, you should A. Notify ATC and request assistance B. Watch for conflicting traffic and use TCAS if available C. Turn on all exterior lights to alert any nearby aircraft that can see you D. All of the above

Answer 135

All of the above

Question 136

PIREPS are particularly important regarding A. Turbulence, icing, convective activity, and low-level wind shear B. Actual conditions that only pilots in the air can observe C. Neither A nor B D. Both A and B

Answer 136

Both A and B Explanation: PIREPS can help both pilots and controllers avoid undesirable conditions

Question 137

Aircraft operating under Part 135 must be able to take off within the weight limits of the Aircraft Flight Manual and not exceed any weight restrictions dictated by temperature and available runway length. TRUE FALSE

Answer 137

TRUE Explanation: All operations under Part 135 must not exceed any weight limitations based on aircraft, airfield or temperature limits.

Question 138

V1 airspeed is A. Critical engine failure speed or decision speed B. The speed at which you must rotate for takeoff to get the takeoff performance defined in the charts C. Takeoff safety speed or best single-engine angle of climb speed D. Acceleration check speed from the takeoff chart

Answer 138

Critical engine failure speed or decision speed Explanation: V1 is critical engine failure speed or decision speed. This is the speed at which you can either abort in the remaining runway or take off single-engine in the available runway remaining

Question 139

V2 airspeed is A. Critical engine failure speed or decision speed B. The speed at which you must rotate for takeoff to get the takeoff performance defined in the charts C. Takeoff safety speed or best single-engine angle of climb speed D. Acceleration check speed from the takeoff chart

Answer 139

Takeoff safety speed or best single-engine angle of climb speed Explanation: V2 is the takeoff safety speed. It is essentially the best single-engine angle of climb speed in takeoff configuration with the gear up. It should be attained at 35 feet at the end of the required runway distance, and held until clearing obstacles or at least 400 feet AGL.

Question 140

VR airspeed is A. Critical engine failure speed or decision speed B. The speed at which you must rotate for takeoff to get the takeoff performance defined in the charts C. Takeoff safety speed or best single-engine angle of climb speed D. Acceleration check speed from the takeoff chart

Answer 140

The speed at which you must rotate for takeoff to get the takeoff performance defined in the charts Explanation: VR is the speed at which you start your rotation to takeoff attitude, in order to obtain the takeoff performance predicted by the takeoff performance charts.

Question 141

A runway is A. The clear area leading up to the designated landing area B. A prepared surface not designated for landing or takeoff able to support an aircraft during an aborted takeoff C. A prepared surface designated for aircraft to takeoff and land D. A prepared surface for aircraft to perform engine run-ups

Answer 141

A prepared surface designated for aircraft to takeoff and land

Question 142

A stopway is A. A. The clear area leading up to the designated landing area B. A prepared surface not designated for landing or takeoff able to support an aircraft during an aborted takeoff C. A prepared surface designated for aircraft to takeoff and land D. A prepared surface for aircraft to perform engine run-ups

Answer 142

A prepared surface not designated for landing or takeoff able to support an aircraft during an aborted takeoff Explanation: A stopway extends beyond the end of a runway and is capable of supporting an aborting aircraft without damage to the aircraft.

Question 143

You may not exceed the limitations listed in the: A. Airplane Flight Manual B. Type Certificate Data Sheet C. Ops Specs D. All of the above

Answer 143

All of the above Explanation: You must comply with the most restrictive of the listed documents for your maximum weight. Explanation: You must comply with the most restrictive of the listed documents for your maximum weight.

Question 144

You cannot takeoff at a gross weight that will cause you to arrive at your destination or alternate airport at a weight that exceeds your maximum landing weight. TRUE FALSE

Answer 144

TRUE Explanation: When you arrive at your destination or alternate you must be able to land at less than your maximum landing weight.

Question 145

Turbojet aircraft must take off at a weight such that they are able to land at the destination or alternate airport under their maximum allowable gross weight for the forecast conditions, and with a calculated landing distance no greater than ___ percent of the most favorable runway, considering winds. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

Answer 145

60 Explanation: The calculated landing distance for turbojet aircraft must be less than 60% of the available runway. However, you may use all of the runway to stop the aircraft.

Question 146

Turboprop aircraft must takeoff at a weight such that they are able to land at the destination or alternate airport under their maximum allowable gross weight for the forecast conditions, and with a calculated landing distance no greater than ___ percent of the most favorable runway, considering winds. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

Answer 146

70 Explanation: The calculated landing distance for turboprop aircraft must be less than 70% of the available runway. However, you may use all of the runway to stop the aircraft.

Question 147

An eligible on-demand operator must take off at a weight such that they are able to land at the destination or alternate airport under their maximum allowable gross weight for the forecast conditions, and with a calculated landing distance no greater than ___ percent of the most favorable runway, considering winds. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

Answer 147

80 Explanation: The calculated landing distance for eligible on-demand operators authorized to do so in the Ops Spec must be less than 80% of the available runway. However, you may use all of the runway to stop the aircraft.

Question 148

The maximum calculated landing distance for an alternate airport is the same as for a destination airport. TRUE FALSE

Answer 148

FALSE Explanation: The same stopping distances apply for the alternate as for the destination for turbojet and eligible on-demand operations (60% and 80% respectively). Turboprop aircraft must meet the 60% requirement at the destination but are allowed 70% at the alternate (135.385).

Question 149

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a critical phase of flight? A. Ground Taxi B. Takeoff and Landing C. Arrival and Departure ops below 10,000’ MSL D. Cruising flight ops above or below 10,000’ MSL

Answer 149

Cruising flight operations above or below 10,000’ MSL Explanation Cruising flight is not considered to be a critical phase of flight. All ground operations, including taxi, takeoff and landing, are considered to be critical phases of flight, as well as non-cruising operations below 10,000 feet MSL.

Question 150

Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity during critical phases of flight? A. Conversation not related to the safety of flight B. Radio calls for galley supplies C. Verifying checklist items D. Radio calls for passenger convenience

Answer 150

Verifying checklist items Explanation: During critical phases of flight, only duties required for safe operation of the aircraft should be performed. Checklists should be run and verified in accordance with your Ops Specs. All the other listed activities are prohibited during critical phases of flight.

Question 151

In addition to never going supersonic, you are not allowed to exceed ____ knots indicated airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL unless specifically authorized. A. 150 B. 200 C. 250 D. 300

Answer 151

250 Explanation Unless your flight manual requires speeds above 250 KIAS, you must be at or below 250 KIAS when you are below 10,000 MSL.

Question 152

Unless otherwise authorized, you cannot go faster than ___knots indicated airspeed when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within ___ nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C or D airspace. A. 200, 5 B. 250, 3 C. 200, 4 D. 250, 4

Answer 152

200, 4 Explanation: Unless authorized by ATC or required by your flight manual you need to be at or below 200 KIAS when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport in Class C or D airspace.

Question 153

Formation flight is authorized except when A. Operating dissimilar aircraft B. On departure and approach C. Carrying passengers for hire D. In class B airspace

Answer 153

Carrying passengers for hire Explanation: Formation flight is permissible when arranged in advance with the PICs of all aircraft involved, EXCEPT when carrying passengers for hire.

Question 154

When you are in visual meteorological conditions (VMC) on an IFR flight plan, ATC is responsible for all traffic separation. TRUE FALSE

Answer 154

FALSE Explanation: Regardless of the type of flight plan you are on, all pilots in visual meteorological conditions (VMC) are responsible for seeing and avoiding other aircraft.

Question 155

As a Part 135 flight on a VFR or IFR flight plan you have right-of-way over non-commercial aircraft in the traffic pattern. TRUE FALSE

Answer 155

FALSE Explanation: The same right-of-way rules apply to Part 135 operations as all others. If there is a tower, they may work to sequence you smoothly, but that is a courtesy and not a requirement.

Question 156

When operating below 18,000 feet MSL your altimeter should be set to that of a reporting station within ___ nautical miles of your position. A. 50 B. 75 C. 100 D. 150

Answer 156

100 Explanation: If no altimeter setting is available for takeoff, you should set the field elevation in the altimeter. Once airborne you should obtain an altimeter setting from ATC or FSS for a reporting station within 100 miles of your position. You should then update your altimeter setting with ATC or FSS as you fly your route.

Question 157

Which of the following is NOT a reason to deviate from an ATC clearance without prior approval or amendment? A. An emergency condition exists. B. A TCAS traffic advisory C. A TCAS resolution advisory D. None of the above

Answer 157

A TCAS traffic advisory Explanation: A TCAS traffic advisory (TA) is an indication that a conflict is possible and you should exercise increased vigilance,but it is not a reason to deviate from course or altitude. A TCAS resolution advisory (RA) means a conflict exists, and you should follow the climb or descent directions the TCAS gives you in order to avoid the conflicting traffic.

Question 158

The minimum altitude during the day, except for takeoff and landing, for large (over 12,500 pounds MTOW) or turbine-powered multi-engine airplanes is ____ feet AGL, and they must enter the traffic pattern at controlled airfields no lower than ____ feet above the airport elevation A. 1500 & 1000 B. 1000 & 1500 C. 2000 & 1500 D. 1500 & 2000

Answer 158

1000 & 1500 Explanation: For large and turbine-powered multi-engine airplanes, the minimum altitude (except for takeoff and landing) is 1,000 AGL, and they must enter the pattern at controlled airfields no lower than 1,500 feet above field elevation.

Question 159

For small and non-turbojet airplanes, except for takeoff and landing, the minimum altitude for VFR flight during the day is ____ feet AGL or more than ____ feet horizontally from any obstacle. A. 300, 300 B. 300, 500 C. 500, 300 D. 500, 500

Answer 159

500, 500 Explanation: The absolute minimum is 500 feet AGL and 500 feet horizontally from any obstacle. The other restrictions for populated areas also apply.

Question 160

For small, non-turbojet airplanes, except for takeoff and landing, the minimum altitude for VFR flight at night in non-mountainous terrain is ____ feet AGL above the highest obstacle within ___ miles of your course. A. 1000 and 5 B. 2000 and 5 C. 1000 and 4 D. 2000 and 4

Answer 160

1000 and 5 Explanation: At night in non-mountainous terrain you need to be 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 miles of your course.

Question 161

For small, non-turbojet airplanes, except for takeoff and landing, the minimum altitude for VFR flight at night in mountainous terrain is ____ feet AGL above the highest obstacle within ___ miles of your course. A. 1000 and 5 B. 2000 and 5 C. 1000 and 4 D. 2000 and 4

Answer 161

2000 and 5 Explanation: At night in mountainous terrain you need to be 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 miles of your course.

Question 162

Except for takeoff and landing, in Part 135 operations carrying passengers you must fly at an altitude over water that allows you to reach land in the event of an engine failure. TRUE FALSE

Answer 162

TRUE Explanation: When carrying passengers, you must be able to make it to land in the event of an engine failure.

Question 163

For multi-engine airplanes carrying passengers in Part 135 operations, you must be able to climb at a minimum of ___ feet per minute at 1,000 feet AGL after the critical engine fails. A. 50 B. 75 C. 100 D. 200

Answer 163

50 Explanation: When carrying passengers overwater in a multi-engine airplane you must be able to climb at 50 feet per minute at 1000 feet AGL after losing the critical engine.

Question 164

Multi-engine aircraft operating under IFR in Part 135 service when carrying passengers must be able to climb at ____ feet per minute with the critical engine inoperative when flying at the MEA of the route or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher A. 50 B. 75 C. 100 D. 150

Answer 164

50 Explanation: For the safety of paying passengers you must operate at a weight that allows a 50 feet per minute climb at the MEA or 5,000 feet MSL with the critical engine inoperative.

Question 165

Minimum visibility for takeoff for single and twin-engine airplanes operating IFR under Part 135 is: A. 1 NM or 6,000 RVR B. 1 SM or 6,000 RVR C. 1 NM or 5,000 RVR D. 1 SM or 5,000 RVR

Answer 165

1 SM or 5,000 RVR Explanation: To take off on a Part 135 flight in a single or twin-engine airplane, you must have at least 1 statue mile visibility or 5,000 feet RVR.

Question 166

Minimum visibility for takeoff for airplanes with more than two engines operating IFR under Part 135 is A. ½ NM or 2,500 RVR B. ½ NM or 2,400 RVR C. ½ SM or 2,400 RVR D. ½ NM or 2,400 RVR

Answer 166

½ SM or 2,400 RVR Explanation: Airplanes with more than two engines must have at least ½ statue mile visibility or 2,400 feet RVR to take off IFR on a Part 135 leg.

Question 167

It is possible to take off from an airport where the current weather is below landing minimums but meets minimum takeoff requirements. TRUE FALSE

Answer 167

TRUE Explanation: In order to take off from an airport that is below landing minimums but is above takeoff minimums, you must have a takeoff alternate airport within 1 hour normal flying time that has weather suitable for landing.

Question 168

In order to commence an instrument approach on a Part 135 flight the weather must be at or above A. Published minimums B. Your authorized minimums C. Either A or B, whichever is higher D. Neither A nor B

Answer 168

Either A or B, whichever is higher Explanation: The weather must be reported at or above published minimums and your authorized minimums, whichever is higher, in order to commence an approach on a Part 135 flight.

Question 169

For eligible on-demand operations on a Part 135 flight you may continue an instrument approach and land when the weather is reported to be below minimums if you are already past the Final Approach Fix (FAF), or you are on a non-precision approach with no FAF and established inbound after the procedure turn, AND A. This is not permitted B. Upon reaching the MDA or DA/DH you determine the actual weather is at or above the required minimums C. You can descend to the threshold at a regular rate of descent D. Both B and C

Answer 169

Both B and C Explanation: For eligible on-demand operations, if you are past the FAF, or you are established inbound after the procedure turn on a non-precision approach with no FAF, and the weather is subsequently reported to be below minimums, you can continue the approach and land if, when you arrive at minimums, you determine the weather is better than reported (the weather is at or above the required minimums and you can identify the runway environment) and you can complete the landing using a normal rate of descent to the touchdown zone.

Question 170

Your destination airport has a field elevation of 200 feet MSL. The ATIS says sky is overcast at 300 feet. If you are shooting a Cat I ILS approach with a DA of 400 feet are you legal to start the approach, and will you break out of the clouds before you reach the published minimums? (Assume the ceiling report is accurate) A. No, the overcast layer at 300 feet is 100 feet below the DA of 400 feet. B. No, clouds and the DA are both given in MSL C. Yes, ceilings are reported in AGL and the DA is given in MSL D. You cannot attempt the approach because the reported weather is below the ILS minimums

Answer 170

Yes, ceilings are reported in AGL and the DA is given in MSL Explanation: Ceilings and clouds are reported in AGL while the DA is given in MSL. You would break out of the clouds at 300 feet AGL, which is 500 feet MSL, and have 100 feet until you reach the DA of 400 feet MSL.

Question 171

Which of the following conditions is NOT required of your destination airport in order to begin an IFR or over-the-top operation on a Part 135 flight? A. Weather forecast at or above your authorized minimums B. Weather forecast valid for your arrival time C. Belief that an intermittent condition above minimums may exist. D. Both A and B

Answer 171

Belief that an intermittent condition above minimums may exist. Explanation: The suspicion that an intermittent condition above minimums may exist is not a valid reason to expect adequate weather. Both A and B must exist.

Question 172

In order NOT to have to declare an alternate airport for Part 135 operations, the weather forecast for your destination must A. Be valid for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA B. Show a ceiling of 2,000 feet, or 1,500 above the lowest published minimum or the circling minimum when circling is authorized (whichever is higher) C. Show a visibility of 3 miles, or 2 miles above the lowest applicable visibility minimums (whichever is greater) D. All of the above

Answer 172

All of the above Explanation: All the stated conditions must exist for a Part 135 flight not to have to declare an alternate. This is more restrictive than the 1,2,3 rule for Part 91 flights.

Question 173

Part 135 IFR flights may be conducted in uncontrolled airspace provided that you have FAA approval in your Ops Specs and you demonstrate a proven capability to hold a planned track within ___ degrees or ___ miles without visual reference to the ground. A. 3, 3 B. 4, 4 C. 5, 5 D. 6, 6

Answer 173

5, 5 Explanation: You must be able to hold a track within 5 degrees or 5 miles without reference to the ground.

Question 174

Part 135 IFR flights to airports with no instrument approach procedures are permitted if specifically authorized in your company’s Ops Spec. TRUE FALSE

Answer 174

TRUE Explanation: You may fly IFR to an airport with no instrument approach as long as it is authorized in your Ops Spec and you can descend to VMC at or above the Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA) or Minimum Vectoring Altitude (MVA).

Question 175

A pilot in command of a turbine aircraft with less than 100 hours in type must increase his/her minimums by ___ feet and ___ mile over the published minimums or the minimums in the Ops Spec. A. 50, ¼ B. 100, ½ C. 100, 1 D. 200, 1

Answer 175

100, ½ Explanation: A PIC of a turbine aircraft with less than 100 hours in type must increase their minimums by 100 feet and ½ mile above published or Ops Spec minimums, but not to exceed the minimums of that airport when used as an alternate.

Question 176

For Part 135 flights, a second in command is required A. At all times B. When states in the AFM C. When operating an aircraft with 10 or more seats D. Both B and C

Answer 176

Both B and C Explanation: You are required to have a second in command when the AFM says so, or when operating an aircraft with 10 or more passenger seats.

Question 177

The requirement for a second in command when operating IFR on Part 135 flights can be waived if A. The pilot in command in commuter operations has at least 100 hours in make and model B. The aircraft is equipped with an autopilot that meets specific performance requirements C. The operation is authorized in the company Ops Specs D. All of the above

Answer 177

All of the above Explanation: All of the conditions listed have to be met in order to operate IFR with passengers without a second in command. This assumes there is no specific requirement to have two pilots.

Question 178

Which of the following is NOT a good operating practice when landing at a non-towered airport? A. In a two-pilot crew have one pilot monitor CTAF while the other is still talking to approach or center. B. As soon as you get to the CTAF ask all traffic in the pattern to “please advise” C. Expect traffic in the VFR pattern and be prepared to join the pattern if necessary D. Announce your position, altitude and intentions on CTAF

Answer 178

As soon as you get to the CTAF ask all traffic in the pattern to “please advise” Explanation: All pilots are expected to monitor CTAF and announce their position and intentions. Asking “Traffic in the area, please advise” is not a recognized or recommended procedure in the AIM – in fact, it is specifically disapproved in the AIM.

Question 179

Which of the following is NOT a recommended radio call on CTAF at a non-towered airport? A. If possible make a call 10 miles out and monitor CTAF for other traffic. B. Report your position on each leg of the traffic pattern C. Report taking or leaving the runway D. Make a call when starting engines

Answer 179

Make a call when starting engines Explanation: It is not necessary to make a call when you start your engines. However, in addition to the calls listed, you should also announce when you begin taxiing for takeoff.

Question 180

When making calls on CTAF or UNICOM you should start and end each transmission with the name of the airport you are using. TRUE FALSE

Answer 180

TRUE Explanation: Since it’s possible for more than one airport in an area to have the same CTAF or UNICOM frequency, you should preface and end each transmission with the name of the airport you are using.

Question 181

Some high density traffic airports require advance IFR reservations for non-scheduled operations. Which of the following airports currently DOES NOT require a reservation? A. John F. Kennedy (JFK) B. Los Angeles (LAX) C. Laguardia (LGA) D. Newark (EWR)

Answer 181

Los Angeles (LAX) Explanation: You do not currently need an advance reservation for non-scheduled IFR flights into LAX.

Question 182

When you depart an airport VFR with the intention of picking up an IFR clearance, you are responsible for terrain clearance until you are above which altitude? A. MEA – Minimum Enroute Altitude B. MVA – Minimum Vectoring Altitude C. OROCA – Off-Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude D. Any of the above depending on which is applicable for your situation

Answer 182

Any of the above depending on which is applicable for your situation Explanation: Until you are above one of the minimum terrain clearance altitudes listed above, you are responsible for terrain clearance – even if you have accepted your IFR clearance.

Question 183

If your company does not have an FAA authorized call sign for your flights, you can still identify yourself as a commercial carrier by A. Entering “Commercial” in the Remarks section of your flight plan B. Prefacing your aircraft call sign with the word “Charter” C. Prefacing your aircraft call sign with the phonetic letter “Tango” D. Prefacing your aircraft call sign with the word “Taxi”

Answer 183

Prefacing your aircraft call sign with the phonetic letter “Tango” Explanation: Use of the phonetic letter “Tango” identifies you to ATC as a commercial operator. Information in the remarks section of your flight plan is not provided to ATC controllers.

Question 184

Air ambulance flights may preface their aircraft call sign with the word “MEDEVAC” to receive expeditious handling from ATC. TRUE FALSE

Answer 184

TRUE Explanation: Using MEDEVAC with your call sign when operating as an air ambulance lets ATC know you are requesting expeditious handling, but should only be used for those flight segments requiring expeditious handling. Special Operations

Question 185

Certain flight operations require special pilot and aircraft approval and authorization in addition to the required pilot’s license and normal airworthiness certificate for the aircraft. Which of the following does NOT require special training and authorization? A. RVSM – Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums B. RNP – Required Navigation Performance on designated routes C. P-RNAV – Precision Area Navigation in Europe D. Standard GPS terminal procedures (other than SAAAR) in the United States

Answer 185

Standard GPS terminal procedures (other than SAAAR) in the United States Explanation: Pilots need to be trained and aircraft need to be properly equipped to fly a GPS approach, but no special FAA authorization is required for the pilot.

Question 186

RVSM (Reduced Vertical Separation Minimums) in the United States apply to aircraft operating between A. FL180 and FL600 B. FL250 and FL410 C. FL290 and FL410 D. FL290 and FL600

Answer 186

FL290 and FL410 Explanation: Aircraft operating between FL290 and FL410 inclusive must have special authorization to cruise in that altitude block. Additionally, you need special clearance to climb through that block to operate above FL410.

Question 187

North Atlantic High Level Airspace (NAT HLA) authorization from the FAA is required for operations A. Between the United States and Europe in the North Atlantic B. In international airspace in the Pacific C. In international airspace in the Caribbean D. None of the above

Answer 187

Between the United States and Europe in the North Atlantic Explanation: NAT HLA authorization is required for operations in the North Atlantic between FL285 and FL420. RNP authorization is required for many routes in other international airspace.

Question 188

Special authorization is required for Part 135 flights that operate at a range of more than ____ minutes from a suitable alternate airfield with one engine inoperative. A. 90 B. 120 C. 180 D. 240

Answer 188

180 Explanation: You and your aircraft must be authorized for Extended-range Operations (ETOPS) if your route takes you more than 180 minutes from a suitable alternate in still air with one engine inoperative.

Question 189

Navigation using short-range, ground-based radio navigation stations is called A. Class I navigation B. Class II navigation C. Area navigation D. Instrument Flight Rules navigation

Answer 189

Class I navigation Explanation: Short-range, ground-based radio navigation stations provide Class I Navigation capabilities for aircraft.

Question 190

Which of the following is NOT considered a short-range radio navigation aid for Class I navigation? A. Non-directional beacons (NDBs) B. Very-High Frequency Omni Ranges (VORs) C. Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) D. LORAN radio chains

Answer 190

LORAN radio chains Explanation: LORAN is a long-range navigation aid and not considered to be Class I navigation.

Question 191

Navigation NOT dependent on short-range, ground-based radio navigation stations is called A. Class I navigation B. Class II navigation C. Area navigation D. Instrument Flight Rules navigation

Answer 191

Class II navigation Explanation: Long-range navigation aids provide Class II navigation capabilities.

Question 192

Which of the following can qualify as a Class II long-range navigation aid? A. Approved Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) B. On-board inertial navigation systems (INS) or inertial measuring units (IMU) C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

Answer 192

Both A and B Explanation: Both GPS and INS systems may be approved as Class II navigation aids.

Question 193

When using GPS for IFR flights you must: A. Check NOTAMS to verify satellite availability before flight B. Check for predicted accuracy (RAIM) before flight C. Monitor satellite availability and accuracy in flight D. All of the above

Answer 193

All of the above Explanation: Satellite availability NOTAMs are available through the Coast Guard website as well as flight service stations (FSS). Manufacturers provide RAIM predictor software and the units monitor RAIM in flight.

Question 194

In order to use GPS for IFR approach procedures, in addition to verifying satellite availability and accuracy, you must confirm that you have a current GPS database loaded in your system. TRUE FALSE

Answer 194

TRUE Explanation: Without a current GPS database you are not allowed to fly IFR approaches relying on your GPS system. Among other reasons, this is because waypoints may be added, removed, or relocated, and approach procedures may be changed.

Question 195

When using a WAAS-certified GPS for an instrument approach, which of the following do you NOT have to do? A. Check NOTAMS to verify satellite availability before flight B. Check for predicted accuracy (RAIM) before flight C. Monitor satellite availability and accuracy in flight D. Perform a RAIM check prior to starting the approach

Answer 195

Perform a RAIM check prior to starting the approach Explanation: A WAAS GPS constantly monitors system accuracy to higher standards. This eliminates the need for an in-flight RAIM check prior to starting an approach.

Question 196

If you experience erratic course movements and/or full off-flag indications warning of a faulty NAVAID you should A. Reset the NAVAID frequency B. Accept the deviations and continue C. Provide a report to tower or ATC D. Go visual if in VMC

Answer 196

Provide a report to tower or ATC Explanation: You should provide a report to tower or ATC. This will provide the quickest result in resolving the situation for you and others.

Question 197

An approved RNAV/GPS system may be used as a substitute for Class I navigation aids like a VOR or ADF, including DME. TRUE FALSE

Answer 197

TRUE Explanation: In order to use RNAV/GPS in lieu of a VOR or DME, the equipment must be approved by the FAA for such use.

Question 198

In addition to having properly authorized equipment in the airplane, in order to use the approved RNAV/GPS system in lieu of VOR or DME you must A. Complete an FAA approved training course B. Have specific approval for the operation in your Ops Specs C. Tune and identify the satellite network D. Select Class I navigation mode on your RNAV/GPS unit

Answer 198

Have specific approval for the operation in your Ops Specs Explanation: In order to use RNAV/GPS in lieu of VOR or DME you must have authorization in your Ops Specs. Instrument Approach Procedures

Question 199

The purpose of an instrument approach procedure is to allow an aircraft to transition from the en-route environment to a point where a safe landing can be made. TRUE FALSE

Answer 199

TRUE Explanation: Instrument approaches provide a safe, procedural transition requiring little or no controller involvement from the en-route airways to a point from which a safe landing can be made.

Question 200

Which of the following is NOT a precision approach? A. ILS (Instrument Landing System) B. LDA (Localizer Type Direction Aid) with glide slope C. PAR (Precision Approach Radar) D. LOC (Localizer)

Answer 200

LOC (Localizer) Explanation: Precision approaches provide both lateral and vertical guidance to a missed approach point. An LOC (localizer) approach, by definition, does not have a glide slope.

Question 201

An instrument landing system (ILS) provides A. Lateral guidance for a prescribed approach course B. Vertical guidance for a prescribed glide path C. Ranging information using DME or marker beacons D. All of the above

Answer 201

All of the above

Question 202

Basic Cat I ILS minimums are a decision height of ____ feet AGL with a minimum visibility of ____ feet RVR. A. 100: 1,200 B. 200: 2400 C. 0: 0 D. None of the above

Answer 202

200: 2400 Explanation: Cat I ILS basic minimums are 200 feet AGL and 2,400 RVR, but with touchdown zone and runway centerline lighting the RVR can be as low as 1,800 feet.

Question 203

Basic Cat II ILS minimums are a decision height of ____ feet AGL with a minimum visibility of ____ feet RVR. A. 100: 1,200 B. 200: 2,400 C. 0: 0 D. None of the above

Answer 203

100: 1,200 Explanation: Cat II ILS basic minimums are 100 feet AGL and 1,200 RVR. Cat II ILS approaches require special authorization and equipment. You must have specific approval in your Ops Specs to conduct Cat II ILS operations.

Question 204

ILS critical area hold-short markings on taxiways leading to runways served by an ILS are in effect when an aircraft is inbound on the ILS approach and the ceiling is below_____ and/or the visibility is less than _____. A. 500, 3 B. 500, 2 C. 800, 3 D. 800, 2

Answer 204

800, 2 Explanation: Aircraft need clearance to enter the ILS critical area when the ILS is in use and the weather is below 800 and 2.

Question 205

Final approach segments and the missed approach point of a non-precision approach are identified using A. DME B. Marker Beacons C. Cross Radials D. All of the above

Answer 205

All of the above Explanation: Any of the above aids can be used to identify a final approach course segment.

Question 206

Which of the following is/are a non-precision approach? A. LOC B. VOR C. NDB D. All of the above

Answer 206

All of the above Explanation: All the approaches listed are non-precision approaches since there is no glide path information provided.

Question 207

The Visual Descent Point (VDP) is A. The point where you visually acquire the runway and start your final descent B. The point on the approach that coincides with the normal visual glide path C. Not identified on the approach plate D. None of the above

Answer 207

The point on the approach that coincides with the normal visual glide path Explanation: The Visual Descent Point is the point on the approach where you can descend from the MDA on a normal descent to the runway touchdown point (IF you have the runway in sight). It is identified on many approaches.

Question 208

If the Missed Approach Point (MAP) is located inside the VDP, normal descent to the runway on a straight-in approach may be impossible if the runway environment is not acquired until the MAP. TRUE FALSE

Answer 208

TRUE Explanation: Since the VDP indicates where the normal glide path vertically intersects the final approach course, if you don’t acquire the runway visually until inside the VDP you will not be able to make a normal descent to the runway from that position.

Question 209

Decision Altitude and Decision Height define the same elevation above the runway touchdown elevation. Decision Altitude is expressed in feet ____ and Decision Height is expressed in feet ____. A. MSL, AGL B. With standard altimeter setting, with local altimeter setting C. AGL , MSL D. With local altimeter setting, with standard altimeter setting

Answer 209

MSL, AGL Explanation: Decision Altitude is the height above the touchdown zone elevation read on the altimeter as feet above sea level (MSL) while Decision Height is the actual elevation above the touchdown zone elevation expressed in feet.

Question 210

On a non-precision approach, only circling minimums will be published when: A. The approach course is more than 30o off runway centerline B. You would not be able to make it down from the missed approach point to the runway at a normal rate of descent C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

Answer 210

Both A and B Explanation: Either A or B will result in the approach having only circling minimums published. However, this does not mean you must circle. If you see the runway in time to make a normal descent for landing, you may continue straight-in for landing. A normal descent is defined by the FAA as a gradient of no more than 400 feet per NM from the FAF to the Threshold Crossing Height (TCH).

Question 211

On a circling approach, your protected area during the circle depends on your approach category. The correct protected circling radii for the approach categories below are: A. Category A, 1.3 NM; Category B, 1.5 NM; Category C, 1.7 NM; Category D, 2.3 NM B. Category A, 2 NM; Category B, 2.5 NM; Category C, 3 NM; Category D, 3.5 NM C. Category A, 3 NM; Category B, 4 NM; Category C, 5 NM; Category D, 6 NM D. None of the above

Answer 211

Category A, 1.3 NM; Category B, 1.5 NM; Category C, 1.7 NM; Category D, 2.3 NM Explanation: The protected circling radii are surprisingly small. Category A (speed 0 to 90 kts) = 1.3 NM; Category B (speed 91 to 120 kts) = 1.5 NM; Category C (speed 121 to 140 knots) = 1.7 NM; Category D (speed 141 to 165 kts) = 2.3 NM.

Question 212

A visual approach is an IFR clearance that is flown in visual reference to the airport or the aircraft ahead of you that requires a minimum ceiling and visibility of: A. Clear of clouds and 1 mile B. 1000’ and 1 mile C. 1,000’, 2 miles D. 1,000’, 3 miles

Answer 212

1,000’, 3 miles Explanation: You must have at least a 1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility to be cleared for a visual approach.

Question 213

``` A contact approach must be requested by the pilot (it cannot be assigned by ATC) and requires what minimum weather? A. Clear of clouds and 1 mile B. 1,000’, 1 mile C. 1,000’, 2 miles D. 1,000’, 3 miles ```

Answer 213

Clear of clouds and 1 mile Explanation: In order to request a contact approach you must have at least 1 statute mile visibility and be able to remain clear of clouds while flying the approach.

Question 214

If you initiate a missed approach prior to the missed approach point you should: A. Immediately follow the missed approach instructions B. Continue to fly the procedure track to the missed approach point and then follow the missed approach procedures C. Turn toward your alternate D. Immediately descend to the MDA or DH just in case you can break out.

Answer 214

Continue to fly the procedure track to the missed approach point and then follow the missed approach procedures Explanation: In order to get the obstacle clearance safety margin designed into the missed approach procedure, you must begin the procedure at the missed approach point. If you determine you need to go missed approach prior to the missed approach point, you should continue the approach course to the missed approach point while staying above any altitude restrictions including the MDA or DH. You should advise ATC of your missed approach and expect to fly the procedure until ATC is able to assist you.

Question 215

When receiving ATC clearances, which of the following is the pilot NOT responsible for? A. Requesting desired routing B. Acknowledging receipt and understanding of assigned routing (ATC clearance) C. Assign the routing D. Requesting deviations from assigned routing when necessary

Answer 215

Assign the routing Explanation: ATC will determine your assigned routing or clearance. You can either accept it or request a deviation or alternate routing, but you must fly the assigned routing until re-cleared or an emergency situation exists.

Question 216

Air traffic controllers are NOT responsible for which of the following regarding ATC clearances? A. Issuing appropriate clearances B. Ensuring pilots comply with clearances C. Assigning altitudes that provide separation at or above minimum IFR altitudes D. Ensuring pilots correctly read back any clearance that is issued

Answer 216

Ensuring pilots comply with clearances Explanation: The pilot is responsible for following a clearance once it has been received and acknowledged. The controller is responsible for the other items listed.

Question 217

Standard, precise and clear radio communications from a pilot to a controller A. Alleviate congestion on the frequency B. Enhance safety and utility C. Tell controllers you are a competent pilot that allows them the ability to safely issue special requests. D. All of the above

Answer 217

All of the above Explanation: Good radio discipline in the cockpit helps everybody.

Question 218

Which of the following does NOT require a read-back, only an acknowledgement? A. Altitude assignment B. Taxi route assignment C. Hold-short clearance D. Heading assignment

Answer 218

Taxi route assignment Explanation: Ground controllers are now required to issue specific taxi routing, but the pilot is not required to read back the route.

Question 219

The two approved terms to get priority handling from ATC are: A. “MAYDAY” and “PAN-PAN” B. “MAYDAY” and “Precautionary” C. “PAN-PAN” and “Precautionary” D. None of the above

Answer 219

“MAYDAY” and “PAN-PAN” Explanation: The international alert words for priority in radio and ATC service are “MAYDAY” for grave danger and “PAN-PAN” for uncertainty or alert. The word “Precautionary” has no official definition in ATC communication procedures.

Question 220

When you determine you have a need for priority routing or radio communications you should A. Declare an emergency, “MAYDAY”, or “PAN-PAN” as appropriate B. State the nature of your difficulty C. State your intentions and the assistance desired D. All of the above

Answer 220

All of the above Explanation: When you request priority handling using MAYDAY or PAN-PAN you will save time if you also state the information listed. ATC is required to get that information and other data as soon as possible after receiving a request for priority handling.

Question 221

You should use the emergency frequency 121.5 A. Anytime you have an emergency B. Only for extreme situations C. When you have an emergency and are not currently on a frequency where you can get assistance D. None of the above

Answer 221

Anytime you have an emergency Explanation: If you are already on a frequency where you can get assistance you should stay on that frequency instead of using 121.5. However, if you need help and are not on an ATC or FSS frequency, 121.5 is the proper frequency for any situation requiring assistance.

Question 222

You should use the emergency transponder code of 7700 only when you don’t have an assigned ATC transponder code and are not talking to ATC but you need to have a clear flight path. TRUE FALSE

Answer 222

TRUE Explanation: If you already have a transponder code and are talking to ATC, they already have much more information about you than if you leave that code and squawk 7700. However, if you are not under ATC control and need to have traffic moved away from you, you should use 7700. You should also tune 121.5 in order to be able to respond to facilities that will try to contact you when they see your 7700 squawk.

Question 223

You can indicate to ATC that you have a hijack or air piracy situation by: A. Squawking 7600 B. Squawking 7500 C. Telling ATC “Transponder Seven-Five-Zero-Zero” on the radio D. Both B and C

Answer 223

Both B and C Explanation: Squawking 7500 on your transponder or saying “Transponder Seven-Five-Zero-Zero” on the radio to ATC will alert them to a hijacking situation.

Question 224

If you haven’t heard anything on your assigned frequency for awhile you should A. Check your frequency and comm panel configuration B. Check your radio volume C. Check that you do not have a stuck microphone D. All of the above

Answer 224

All of the above Explanation: In addition to the steps listed you can ask ATC for a comm check.

Question 225

If you have a complete communications failure (all radios) and you are in VMC you should A. Maintain VMC B. Land as soon as practical at a suitable airport C. Squawk 7700 D. Both A and B

Answer 225

Both A and B Explanation: With a total communications failure in VMC you should try to maintain VMC and land at a suitable airport. It is not an emergency so you should not squawk 7700 unless you have other problems.

Question 226

The proper transponder code for lost communications is: A. 7500 B. 7600 C. 7700 D. 9999

Answer 226

7600 Explanation: The correct transponder code to tell ATC you have no radios is 7600.

Question 227

If you lose communications in IMC the order of priority for the route you should fly is: A. Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed B. Filed, Assigned, Expected, Vectors C. Vectors, Expected, Assigned, Filed D. None of the above

Answer 227

Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed Explanation: The memory aid is AVEF for Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed.

Question 228

If you lose communications in IMC the correct minimum altitude you should fly is the highest of A. Minimum IFR altitude, Expected altitude, Assigned altitude B. Assigned altitude, Expected altitude, Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude C. Expected altitude, Minimum Reception Altitude, Assigned altitude D. None of the above

Answer 228

Minimum IFR altitude, Expected altitude, Assigned altitude Explanation: The memory aid is MEA for Minimum IFR altitude, Expected altitude, Assigned altitude. The Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude and the Minimum Reception Altitude are not considerations for the proper altitude after lost communications in IMC.

Question 229

If you lose communications while holding at a clearance limit that is also the start of an instrument approach, you should leave the fix A. As close as possible to your Expect Further Clearance (EFC) time, if you have one B. As close as possible to your ETA, if you don’t have an EFC time C. So as to arrive at the final approach fix at your ETA D. Either A or B

Answer 229

Either A or B Explanation: When holding at an approach fix, you should depart holding as close as possible to your EFC time, if you have one, or as close as possible to your filed ETA if you don’t have an EFC time.

Question 230

If you lose communications while holding at a clearance limit that is NOT the start of an instrument approach, you should depart the clearance limit A. As close as possible to your Expect Further Clearance (EFC) time, if you have one B. As close as possible to your filed ETA, if you don’t have an EFC time C. Immediately if you don’t have an EFC time, proceed to a fix from which an approach begins, and start the approach as close as possible to your ETA D. Either A or C

Answer 230

Either A or C Explanation: If you have an EFC time, the rule is the same whether or not your clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins: leave the clearance limit as close as possible to your EFC time. However, if you don’t have an EFC time, then upon arrival at your clearance limit proceed to a fix from which an approach begins, and start the approach as close as possible to your ETA.

Question 231

In order for a commercial operator to maintain operational control, Part 135 flights may only be authorized by individuals designated by the air carrier certificate holder as stated in their Ops Specs. Which individual(s) would NOT be allowed to authorize a flight? A. Director of Operations B. Chief Pilot C. Travel agencies authorized to sell blocks of seats or charter the aircraft D. All of the above may authorize a flight

Answer 231

Travel agencies authorized to sell blocks of seats or charter the aircraft Explanation: Only qualified individuals directly involved in the operation of the aircraft may authorize a Part 135 flight. Internal or third-party booking agents may not exercise operational control over flight activities.

Question 232

Which of the following is NOT considered to be included in operational control? A. Initiating a flight B. Conducting a flight C. Terminating a flight D. Advertising the availability of a flight

Answer 232

Advertising the availability of a flight Explanation: Promoting a flight is not part of the operational control of the flight. Operational control involves allowing a flight to start, continue or terminate.

Question 233

The Ops Manual will NOT include which of the following? A. General information such as flight locating and route qualification procedures B. Marketing Strategies C. Maintenance procedures at home station and for the PIC at transient locations D. Operational procedures for flight planning, refueling and passenger briefings

Answer 233

Marketing Strategies Explanation: The Ops Manual deals with all the activities necessary to authorize and conduct a flight. It does not address marketing issues for the company.

Question 234

Ops Manuals are kept in Dispatch and the company headquarters for reference but need not be carried on individual aircraft. TRUE FALSE

Answer 234

FALSE Explanation: A copy of the Ops Manual should be within reach of the pilot(s) when seated at their duty station(s).

Question 235

Ramp checks are conducted by A. FAA Aviation Safety Inspectors B. Airport Operations Personnel C. Law enforcement Agencies D. All of the above

Answer 235

FAA Aviation Safety Inspectors Explanation: Ramp checks are only conducted by FAA aviation safety inspectors. Other agencies are authorized to ask for your credentials, but they cannot conduct a ramp check in accordance with 135.73

Question 236

You may decline a ramp check if it will alter your schedule and cause you to be late for an assignment. TRUE FALSE Explanation:

Answer 236

FALSE 135.73 authorizes the Administrator to conduct ramp checks at any time or place, and you are required to comply.

Question 237

If an FAA inspector elects to accompany you on a flight, you may deny the inspector access to the cockpit if it will compromise safety of flight. TRUE FALSE

Answer 237

TRUE Explanation: This is a true statement. However, you probably need something to support your decision other than you just didn’t want the inspector in the cockpit.

Question 238

During a ramp check, if you have all the required personal, aircraft and company information readily available in an organized system, you will be off to a good start. TRUE FALSE

Answer 238

TRUE Explanation: A binder with all the required information will demonstrate a sense of order and professionalism that the inspector will appreciate, and make your initial encounter much less stressful.

Question 239

What is/are the advantage(s) of a two pilot crew? A. Questioning each other in risky situations B. Enhanced briefings C. Standardized callouts to improve situational awareness D. All of the Above

Answer 239

All of the Above Explanation: The advantages include a second pilot who will question a pilot-in-command when they are heading into a risky situation. The second pilot also improves the ability to catch errors, by decreasing pilot workload and providing a second viewpoint. The second pilot also aids in briefings; provides standardized callouts; and gives assistance in handling emergencies.

Question 240

``` Which of the following is NOT a CRM skill? A. Communications B. Workload and automation management C. Instrument Scan D. Fatigue and stress management ```

Answer 240

Instrument Scan Explanation: The core CRM skills are teamwork, communications, workload and automation management, situational awareness, aeronautical decision making, and fatigue and stress management.

Question 241

Which of the following is a benefit that pilots get from CRM? A. Fewer checkrides B. Safer and more fun work environment C. Shorter layovers D. Reduced time away from home

Answer 241

Safer and more fun work environment Explanation: Primary benefits of CRM to the pilot are a safer work environment, more fun when working well as a crew, the rewards of being competent and successful in a challenging profession, and development of important professional skills.

Question 242

Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) are designed to: A. Provide a safe, efficient outcome by making the best way to operate routine. B. Eliminate the need for a second pilot C. Provide optional ways of operating in the cockpit D. None of the above

Answer 242

Provide a safe, efficient outcome by making the best way to operate routine. Explanation: SOPs define the best way to do everything that provides the safest, and most efficient, result and makes that best way to operate routine.

Question 243

SOPs provide preplanned decisions for situations that: A. Rarely happen B. Are similar on all airplanes C. Are best done by a single pilot D. Happen too fast to “make up” a procedure

Answer 243

Happen too fast to “make up” a procedure Explanation: An example of such a preplanned decision is an engine failure on takeoff. It happens too fast to “make it up”. The best procedure has been created by test pilots and engineers, and memory items allow doing the right thing in minimum time.

Question 244

Standardized callouts: A. Help maintain awareness of position, altitude and aircraft status B. Contribute to a relaxed crew environment C. Are unnecessary standardization D. Interfere with effective crew communications

Answer 244

Help maintain awareness of position, altitude and aircraft status Explanation: Verbal callouts of inflight events (such as when leaving one altitude for another) are included in SOPs to enhance situational awareness.

Question 245

In the dynamic flight environment, even the best SOPs: A. Interfere with the creativity of the crew B. Can’t anticipate every situation C. Are considered optional for a proficient crew D. Cause crews to make errors.

Answer 245

Can’t anticipate every situation Explanation: Even the best SOPs can’t anticipate every situation because aircraft equipment can fail in unusual ways, weather can change unexpectedly, ATC can give you odd clearances, and crew errors can be subtle and detected late.

Question 246

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a well-functioning crew? A. More time for situational awareness B. Improved error trapping C. Reduced individual workload D. Increased opportunity for casual conversation during flight

Answer 246

Increased opportunity for casual conversation during flight Explanation: Two or more pilots working together to combine their unique experience can reduce individual workload, trap errors, allow more time for situational awareness and risk management, and become more than the sum of their parts.

Question 247

Which is true regarding the pilot-in-command skilled in CRM? A. Has final authority for the flight B. Must actively solicit input from the rest of the crew C. Applies a philosophy of “Authority with Participation” D. All of the above

Answer 247

All of the above Explanation: The pilot-in-command has final authority over the flight, and must actively solicit input from the crew without relinquishing authority. This is described as “Authority with Participation”.

Question 248

A pilot who is NOT the pilot-in-command should never assume the role of leader. TRUE FALSE

Answer 248

FALSE Explanation: It is common for crew members other than the pilot-in-command to take a leadership role in some situations because someone other than the pilot-in-command may have the clearest view of the situation, and the pilot-in-command’s workload can be relieved if the second-in-command assumes short-term leadership. It is important this be done without challenging the authority of the pilot-in-command.

Question 249

A crew that has a shared plan is able to: A. Work effectively without time-consuming communications B. Minimize use of the SOPs C. Maintain high situational awareness D. None of the above

Answer 249

Maintain high situational awareness Explanation: The shared plan lays the foundation for good situational awareness and becomes the basis for recognizing change as the flight progresses.

Question 250

The pilot monitoring should: A. Offer information B. Avoid distracting the pilot flying C. Wait for the pilot flying to recognize errors D. Only speak when the pilot flying is making a mistake

Answer 250

Offer information Explanation: The pilot monitoring should be very careful to ensure challenges don’t represent a threat to the pilot-in-command’s authority. The pilot monitoring needs to offer information, not an opinion.

Question 251

When conflict arises in the cockpit, the crew should focus on: A. Not questioning the pilot-in-command’s authority B. Making sure everyone gets along C. Correcting difficult personalities D. What is right, not who is right

Answer 251

What is right, not who is right Explanation: It is important to deal with differences in perception or approach as the flight progresses. This includes maintaining the focus on WHAT is right, not WHO is right.

Question 252

Post-flight critiques should: A. Include all members of the crew B. Follow even routine flights C. Cover what went well AND what could be improved D. All of the Above

Answer 252

All of the Above Explanation: Post-flight critiques should be performed by leaders and supporters and follow even routine flights. They should review aspects that were handled well and those that could have been handled differently.

Question 253

Feedback is an optional part of the communications process. TRUE FALSE

Answer 253

FALSE Explanation: Feedback is a key trait of all effective communications. It allows the sender and receiver to identify and correct misunderstandings.

Question 254

When sending a message, it is important to: A. Consider the receiver’s experience and point of view B. Wait until the sender and receiver are alone C. Use informal or slang terminology D. None of the above

Answer 254

Consider the receiver’s experience and point of view Explanation: When the sender directs the message to the receiver, he/she should use correct terminology, consider the receiver’s experience and point of view, and be brief and accurate.

Question 255

An example of a barrier to effective communications is: A. Noise or static B. Not being able to see one another C. Different knowledge or experience of the sender and receiver D. All of the above

Answer 255

All of the above Explanation: There can be barriers to communications between the sender and receiver that block or degrade the message. These can include a difference in the frame of reference, noise or static or anything that makes it physically difficult to hear, and not being able to see one another (e.g., intercom or radio).

Question 256

When communicating with people who contribute to a safe flight: A. Consider their contribution to a safe flight B. Be aware of that person’s concerns C. Both A and B D. Neither A and B

Answer 256

Both A and B Explanation: For each group that you communicate with, you should consider their vocabulary, technical expertise, responsibilities, concerns, contribution to a safe flight, and barriers to communication.

Question 257

Which of the following is NOT an audience you can expect to communicate with to conduct a safe flight? A. Maintenance Technician B. ATC C. Passengers D. Airport Construction Crew

Answer 257

Airport Construction Crew Explanation: The crew communicates with many different people during a safe flight. These include cockpit crew, ramp crew, dispatch, maintenance, ATC, gate agents, cabin crew, and passengers.

Question 258

Inquiry is a method of communicating that: A. Enhances your own understanding of a situation or gently suggests an alternative course of action B. Uses internet searches to gather information C. Should be avoided to prevent misunderstandings D. Is only used on the ground

Answer 258

Enhances your own understanding of a situation or gently suggests an alternative course of action Explanation: Inquiry is a communication intended to gather information. Use it to enhance your own understanding of a situation, gather information needed in the performance of your duties, or gently suggest a course of action.

Question 259

When you have important information that another member of the crew should know and wish to suggest a course of action: A. Use written notes whenever time permits B. Use advocacy to raise the crew’s awareness C. Include it in the post flight debriefing D. Keep it to yourself to help you look smart

Answer 259

Use advocacy to raise the crew’s awareness Explanation: Advocacy is used by a member of the crew who has important new information about the flight to share, and wants to suggest a course of action.

Question 260

The Assertiveness Statement should: A. Be used whenever you wish to make sure you are understood B. Only be used by the pilot-in-command C. Only be used by the pilot monitoring D. Should be used when the message is important and urgent

Answer 260

Should be used when the message is important and urgent Explanation: The Assertiveness Statement is used when the message is both important and urgent.

Question 261

One part of effectively managing time in the cockpit is: A. Assignment of critical tasks to a crew member who is not overloaded B. For the pilot-in-command to accomplish all tasks C. To set aside high priority tasks until later in the flight D. To place high priority on making radio calls

Answer 261

Assignment of critical tasks to a crew member who is not overloaded Explanation: The key parts of workload management are identification of tasks needing attention, selection of the most critical tasks, assignment of critical tasks to a crew member who is not overloaded, and setting aside lower priority tasks for later.

Question 262

When you recognize that you are getting overloaded: A. Work harder so you can get everything done B. Avoid being distracted by the overall progress of the flight C. Ask another member of the crew to take over one or more tasks D. None of the Above

Answer 262

Ask another member of the crew to take over one or more tasks Explanation: Good crews work together to balance their workload. They should recognize when a member of the team is over-loaded, distribute tasks evenly, and support one another.

Question 263

When changes in the flight situation require a modification in the plan: A. Brief the revised plan to the whole crew B. Avoid discussion to save time and conflict C. Look for ways to avoid changing the original plan D. All of the Above

Answer 263

Brief the revised plan to the whole crew Explanation: When you think you have spotted the need for a change to the plan, confirm the need with the rest of the crew, decide on a revised plan, and brief and execute the revised plan.

Question 264

Which of the following is not a source of distractions? A. Casual conversation with other crew members B. Flying the airplane C. Completing paperwork in the cockpit D. Talking to passengers

Answer 264

Flying the airplane Explanation: There are countless activities that may seem important at the time, but do not contribute to the safe completion of the flight. Flying the airplane is the crew’s primary task and can’t be a distraction.

Question 265

Keeping a sterile cockpit: A. Eliminates non-operational duties during critical parts of the flight B. Prevents the crew from obtaining flight critical information C. Is required by the FARs for 135, 121, and 91k operators D. Both A and C

Answer 265

Both A and C Explanation: The sterile cockpit is a powerful tool that reduces the number of distractions in the cockpit. It eliminates non-operational activities during critical parts of the flight, is required by regulation for Parts 135, 121 and 91k, and is included in many SOPs.

Question 266

When a distraction interrupts cockpit routine, the crew should create visual and/or aural reminders of interrupted tasks. TRUE FALSE

Answer 266

TRUE Explanation: In spite of a crew’s best efforts, distractions will occur. When a distraction interrupts cockpit routine, crews should create visual and/or aural reminders of interrupted tasks to be able to return to and complete the task.

Question 267

Modern avionics systems: A. Can have a major impact on crew workload B. Can be operated at different levels based on the flight conditions C. Neither A nor B is correct D. Both A and B are correct

Answer 267

Both A and B are correct Explanation: Managing modern avionics systems is closely related to workload management. They allow the crew to employ different levels of automation in the accomplishment of flight tasks.

Question 268

An example of an automation system creating extra workload is: A. Monitoring autopilot performance during cruise B. Trying to reprogram the FMS for a last-minute approach change C. Using the autopilot when workload in the cockpit is high D. None of the Above

Answer 268

Trying to reprogram the FMS for a last-minute approach change Explanation: Trying to continue using the same level of automation regardless of circumstances can sometimes create more workload than it eliminates. Consider when to reprogram and when to just hand fly.

Question 269

Which of the following is true about managing automation? A. Always use it at the highest level because it reduces workload B. Automated systems can always fly better than a human pilot C. Abandon it when it is getting in the way D. Modern systems are so reliable they do not need to be monitored

Answer 269

Abandon it when it is getting in the way Explanation: Automated systems are extremely useful, but they are only as good as the human programming them. You should establish automation duties and responsibilities, and frequently review and verify automation status. When automation gets between you and the airplane, abandon it.

Question 270

Which of the following skills support high situational awareness? A. Perceiving the status of the many factors affecting the flight B. Understanding the combined effect those factors may have C. Projecting their impact on the flight’s progress D. All of the Above

Answer 270

All of the Above Explanation: To get and maintain a high level of situational awareness, the crew must be proficient in all three of these skills.

Question 271

As you look at each piece of the big picture: A. Focus on those which could result in flight delays B. Be aware of interactions between the pieces C. Avoid trying to project the future status of the flight D. Only consider the most important pieces

Answer 271

Be aware of interactions between the pieces Explanation: Good situational awareness is like a jigsaw puzzle. You need all the pieces to see what the picture is. Look for interactions between pieces that affect the overall picture.

Question 272

The PAVE mental checklist allows the crew to: A. Organize necessary risk management information B. Narrow their focus to just a few facts C. Avoid factors not directly related to the aircraft D. All of the Above

Answer 272

Organize necessary risk management information ``` Explanation: Answer explanation: Using the PAVE mental checklist during preflight planning can help get all the necessary information organized. This includes information about: • Pilots • Aircraft • enVironment • External pressures ```

Question 273

The CHORRD tool is used to: A. Guide the before-takeoff briefing B. Plan the Top-of-Descent point C. Calculate departure runway requirements D. None of the Above

Answer 273

Guide the before-takeoff briefing ``` Explanation: CHORRD is a useful tool to promote situational awareness before takeoff and to guide the before-takeoff briefing. • Conditions • Hazards • Operational changes • Return method • Runway required and available • Departure heading/course and altitude ```

Question 274

The CARE tool supports crew situational awareness while airborne. TRUE FALSE

Answer 274

TRUE ``` Explanation: CARE is a tool to help promote situational awareness while airborne. It includes consideration of: • Consequences • Alternatives • Reality • External pressures When You Lose SA ```

Question 275

If a crew’s situational awareness is reduced or lost, they may: A. Have difficulty tracking the localizer during an ILS approach B. Make decisions based on incomplete or inaccurate information C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

Answer 275

Make decisions based on incomplete or inaccurate information Explanation: If situational awareness is reduced or lost the crew may be making decisions based on incomplete or inaccurate information.

Question 276

Deteriorating situational awareness can be caused by: A. Not actively scanning for changes B. Poor communications C. Not following SOPs D. All of the Above

Answer 276

All of the Above Explanation: Deteriorating situational awareness can be caused by not actively scanning for changes, ambiguity, confusion, not following SOPs, limitations, minimums, FARs, etc., and failure to communicate fully and effectively.

Question 277

If you lose situational awareness, you should consciously rebuild the big picture. TRUE FALSE

Answer 277

TRUE Explanation: Through conscious effort, the crew can rebuild the big picture, returning to a state of high situational awareness. Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT) Awareness

Question 278

Controlled flight into terrain is: A. One of the least important causes of accidents B. Often the result of loss of situational awareness C. Involves loss of aircraft control D. Seldom a factor when the flight is on approach

Answer 278

Often the result of loss of situational awareness Explanation: The leading cause of accidents in professionally flown aircraft is Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT). Such accidents involve a fully functioning aircraft with the crew in full control, but they were not where they thought they were. The aircraft is most often on final approach, and the crew has lost Situational Awareness.

Question 279

Which of the following is NOT a common risk factor in CFIT accidents? A. Poor Weather B. Approaches during day VMC C. Incorrect altimeter setting D. Monitoring failures

Answer 279

Approaches during day VMC Explanation: Flights at night have a higher risk of being involved in CFIT accidents due to the reduced visibility and lack of ground reference

Question 280

Among the strategies that are effective for avoiding CFIT are: A. Proper use of navigation systems B. Maintaining altitude awareness through use of the altitude alerter C. Prompt response to TAWS/GPWS/EGPWS alerts D. All of the Above

Answer 280

All of the Above Explanation: The following are effective strategies for preventing CFIT accidents: • Good preflight planning • Maintaining good crew situational awareness • Proper navigation system use • Awareness of Minimum Safe Altitudes (MSA) • Maintaining altitude awareness • Being certain of your position and the surrounding terrain before descending • Prompt response to TAWS/GPWS/EGPWS alerts

Question 281

To determine the level of risk associated with a hazard, the crew considers: A. How likely a particular hazard is B. The severity of the hazard C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

Answer 281

Both A and B Explanation: How likely a particular hazard is to occur and the severity (consequences) of a hazard lets you evaluate the level of risk.

Question 282

Which of the following provide methods to manage risk? A. The PAVE tool B. The CHORRD tool C. The CARE tool D. All of the Above

Answer 282

All of the Above Explanation: The tools discussed in this course help you identify hazards so they can be evaluated and controlled. These include the PAVE tool to help identify and assess risk during preflight planning, CHORRD to identify risks associated with takeoff and departure, and CARE to constantly assess a changing situation as the flight progresses.

Question 283

Which of the following is NOT an approach to reducing or eliminating risk? A. Avoid B. Ignore C. Share D. Retain

Answer 283

Ignore Explanation: Your evaluation of possible hazards is the basis for the decisions you and the crew will make during the flight. To effectively deal with risk, the crew should avoid, reduce, share, or retain the risk as appropriate to the level of risk. Ignoring issues is seldom a good policy, particularly in an aircraft.

Question 284

Effective decision making is only necessary during preflight planning. TRUE FALSE

Answer 284

FALSE Explanation: Effective decision making is a continuous process that begins on the ground before each flight, and extends until after the last landing of the day.

Question 285

If there is very little time to respond: A. Consult with members of the crew for ideas on how to proceed B. React from your “gut” to save time C. Wait to respond until you have more time D. Use “preplanned” decisions from the AFM or SOP

Answer 285

Use “preplanned” decisions from the AFM or SOP Explanation: If time to respond is very limited use “preplanned” decisions such as emergency procedures from the Aircraft Flight Manual, or SOPs. These decisions were worked out when plenty of time was available.

Question 286

The decision should: A. Be agreed on by the entire crew B. Not require a change to the original plan for the flight C. Be made by the pilot-in-command and briefed to the crew D. Not be changed even if conditions change Detecting and Recovering from Errors

Answer 286

Be made by the pilot-in-command and briefed to the crew Explanation: Once the decision is made, the pilot-in-command must brief the rest of the crew so they can support and implement it. After acting on the decision, the crew resumes monitoring and repeats the decision cycle as often as necessary.

Question 287

Errors are often categorized as: A. Low, medium, high, and extreme B. Slips, lapses, mistakes, and violations C. Isolated, common, frequent, and continuous D. None of the Above

Answer 287

Slips, lapses, mistakes, and violations Explanation: Errors in aviation are often grouped into one of four different categories. These are slips, lapses, mistakes, and violations.

Question 288

A lapse is an action that: A. Is done but not as intended B. Should be done but is not (an omission) C. Is done believing it is correct, but in fact is wrong D. Is a deliberate violation of procedures or regulations

Answer 288

Should be done but is not (an omission) Explanation: Lapses are actions that are not done (omissions), such as failing to do something due to lapse of memory or attention.

Question 289

The pilot monitoring intends to load the approach for runway 4L in the FMS flight plan but instead loads runway 4R. This is an example of a: A. Slip B. Lapse C. Mistake D. Violation

Answer 289

Slip Explanation: Slips are actions that are done, but not as intended or planned. Slips are typically easy to spot and are usually not particularly dangerous.

Question 290

Which of the following is a violation? A. Continuing descent below minimums during an approach without the required visual cues B. Not maintaining a sterile cockpit when required C. Neither A nor B D. Both A and B

Answer 290

Both A and B Explanation: Violations are a willful failure to adhere to procedures or regulations. Examples include continuing descent below minimums during an approach without the required visual cues, and not maintaining a sterile cockpit when it is required.

Question 291

A mistake is an action which is: A. Believed to be correct but isn’t B. Difficult to recognize C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B

Answer 291

Both A and B Explanation: Mistakes are brought about by a faulty plan or intention. This can include doing something you believe to be correct when it is, in fact, wrong. Mistakes are even more dangerous than lapses because the crew intends their action and is slow recognizing problems.

Question 292

To detect threats and errors, the crew should monitor: A. Pilot B. Aircraft C. Environment D. All of the Above

Answer 292

Explanation: There are many possible sources of threats and errors that can be detected while monitoring. These include the pilots, aircraft, environment, and operational pressures.

Question 293

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of fatigue? A. Ability to focus in spite of distractions B. Slowed reaction time C. Low situational awareness D. Poor judgment and decision making

Answer 293

Ability to focus in spite of distractions ``` Explanation: Answer explanation: Watch for these symptoms of fatigue in yourself and other crew members: • Slowed reaction time • Low situational awareness • Performance degradation • Poor judgment and decision making • Poor communication skills ```

Question 294

Pilot fatigue can be caused by: A. Long periods without sleep B. Disturbed sleep C. Cumulative sleep loss D. All of the Above

Answer 294

All of the Above Explanation: The causes of pilot fatigue are disturbed sleep, long periods without sleep, and cumulative sleep loss.

Question 295

The only remedy for fatigue is: A. Willing yourself to “stay sharp” B. Eat less than normal to avoid that full feeling C. Sleep D. Lots of coffee or other caffeinated drinks

Answer 295

Sleep Explanation: The only remedy for fatigue is sleep. No amount of will-power (or caffeine) will overcome the effects of fatigue. Be aware of the gradual and cumulative reduction of performance from fatigue.

Question 296

Stress is a necessary part of a pilot’s life. TRUE FALSE

Answer 296

TRUE Explanation: Stress is a necessary part of a pilot's life. In moderation, it is a key factor in achieving peak performance. Not enough stress causes boredom and complacency, but too much stress detracts from the ability to reason and function.

Question 297

High levels of stress can be recognized by signs of: A. Reduced perception B. Improved reaction times C. Eroded judgment D. Both A and C

Answer 297

Both A and C Explanation: A stressed-out pilot may show signs of eroded judgment, lower performance levels, and reduced perception.

Question 298

Too little stress results in: A. Fixation B. Boredom and complacency C. Exhaustion D. Panic in an emergency

Answer 298

Boredom and complacency ``` Explanation: At moderate levels, stress improves our performance. Too little stress results in • Complacency • Boredom • Frustration • Fatigue Too much stress leads to • Fixation • Exhaustion • Panic ```

Question 299

Which of the following is NOT a part of CRM during preflight planning? A. Introduce yourself B. Use the PAVE tool C. Check the aircraft for problems D. Get everyone’s input

Answer 299

Check the aircraft for problems Explanation: Before going to the aircraft, the crew gathers for the preflight briefing. You should introduce yourself, carefully review all aspects of the flight using the PAVE checklist, and make sure everyone speaks up about any concerns during the flight.

Question 300

Once in the air, good situational awareness helps the crew recognize unplanned changes. The crew should: A. Wait until later to make a decision B. Gather information using all available resources C. Stick to your well-thought-out plan D. None of the Above

Answer 300

Gather information using all available resources Explanation: After the crew assesses the changed situation they gather information using all available resources.

Question 301

After making the decision to change the flight, the pilot-in-command: A. Briefs the crew on the decision B. Asks the crew to resume monitoring for changes to the new plan C. Assigns duties to the various crew members D. All of the Above

Answer 301

All of the Above Explanation: Considering all the factors, the pilot-in-command decides that they will land at a suitable airport en route for fuel. He briefs the flight crew on this decision, assigns tasks to implement the decision, and the crew resumes monitoring against the new plan. They will repeat the decision cycle as necessary for the duration of the flight.

Question 302

The best way to keep CRM skills sharp is to use them. TRUE FALSE

Answer 302

TRUE Explanation: Crew Resource Management is a vital piloting skill, just like knowing your aircraft and being able to fly it professionally. The best way to keep CRM skills sharp is to use them on EVERY flight.

Question 303

CRM skills can be improved by: A. Critiquing performance after each flight B. Reading about CRM in aviation publications C. Participating in annual CRM refresher training D. All of the Above

Answer 303

All of the Above Explanation: There are many ways to grow your CRM skills. These include reading about and discussing CRM with other pilots, reviewing CRM performance after each flight, and participating in CRM refresher training every year.