Recurrent Ground School Test Flashcards
(99 cards)
1
Q
The Emergency Lights Power Units provide electrical energy to power the internal Emergency
Lighting system for _______ minutes.
A
10 minutes
2
Q
The Main Cabin door slides must be disarmed inside prior to using outside door handle to open
the door in order to prevent slide deployment. TF?
A
False
3
Q
When pressing the Annunciators Test button, all striped bars and caption indications will
illuminate except -
A
EMERG/PARK BRAKE light
GPU Pushbutton light
Fire Test lights
(All of the Above)
4
Q
The Flight Crew will verify cockpit oxygen quantity via..
A
The MFD Status page
5
Q
Bleed air is provided to the Vertical and Horizontal Stabilizer for Anti-icing. TF
A
False
6
Q
The APU can provide bleed air for de-icing or anti-icing. TF
A
False
7
Q
What speed will the FD command during a One Engine Inoperative Go-Around when the GA
button is pressed?
A
VAC
8
Q
When cleared for a LOC approach the proper selection on the FGC is:
A
NAV
9
Q
At what temperature would you expect to see “BATT 1 (2) OVERTEMP” on the EICAS?
A
Greater than 70 degrees C
10
Q
A pilot should be out of max reverse by _____kts.
A
60kts
11
Q
Fire PROTECTION is provided for which systems:
A
Engines, APU, Cargo, Lav Trash bin
12
Q
The Flap system is _____ operated.
A
Electronically
13
Q
During a Go-Around, a pilot may select FMS Speeds no earlier than:
A
Flaps up
14
Q
When does the VTA appear?
A
1 minute prior to TOD
15
Q
The DC Electric Fuel pump………APU operations and engine starting….
A
When AC power is not available
16
Q
How many hydraulic systems does the E175 have?
A
Three systems
17
Q
Automatic ice detection is enabled above ____ft AGL or ____ minutes after takeoff, whichever
occurs first.
A
1700, 2
18
Q
The maximum Landing Gear Retraction Speed (Vior) for the E175 is:
A
250 knots
19
Q
How many Taxi Lights are available on the aircraft?
A
3
-Nose landing gear - (1)
-Side lights (1 per side in each wing root)
(Answer = Both A and B)
20
Q
A portable ELT is installed in the passenger cabin and located:
A
In the last left hand side overhead bin
21
Q
Windshear detection is activated between 10’ and 1500’ AGL during initial takeoff, go-around,
and final approach phases.
(T or F)
A
True
22
Q
The Takeoff Configuration System will alert crew if:
A
- The Parking Brake is applied
- The Pitch Trim is outside of the green band
- The Flaps are not in the takeoff position
23
Q
TCAS Aural Advisories are inhibited when the present position altitude is below:
A
400’ AGL during descent
600’ during climb
24
Q
Regarding the Low Airspeed Awareness Tape, which of the following is a true statement:
A
The stick shaker will activate upon entry into the red range
25
The Weather Radar SLAVE Mode allows one pilot to turn off the controller allowing the other
pilot to control both radar sweeps. (T-F)
True
26
When the EICAS FULL button is depressed, the EICAS de-clutter logic is inhibited. (T-F)
True
27
Under NORMAL conditions pushing the cockpit door EMERG ENTRY button in the cabin will
open the cockpit door after:
3 sets of Chimes with 9 seconds in-between
28
An unsuccessful DVDR test by a CVR AFT (FWD) FAIL Advisory message on the EICAS when
the TEST button on the DVDR unit is pressed. (T-F)
True
29
With the Passenger Oxygen Selector Knob set to the “Auto” position, the system will
automatically be activated when the cabin pressure altitude is above ____ ft.
14,000
30
The Dump button on the overhead panel will:
-Control the outflow valve to maintain cabin altitude of 12,400’
-Turns the Recirc fans off
-Turns Packs off
(All of the above)
31
The APU can provide electrical up to what altitude?
33,000’
32
After takeoff the Flight Director changes from Crosshair to Diamond when:
- Another vertical mode is selected
| - Autopilot is activated
33
How is the Backup Radio control accessed?
Via the Menu page on the FO’s MCDU
34
In the event of an Electrical Emergency without RAT deployment, how long will the batteries
provide power?
10 minutes
35
TPS shows N1 of 86.4%. The actual minimum N1 allowed is:
85.9%
36
To discharge the Cargo Fire Bottles on the ground when no EICAS cargo smoke message
present, you should:
Push the button twice for the high rate bottle, and once for the low rate bottle
37
A continuous command of the ______is limited to three seconds, even if the Trim Switch is
pressed longer than three seconds.
- Pitch trim
- Roll trim
- Yaw trim
38
Unless operations dictate otherwise, when using FMS speeds for Departure, which values will
be entered into the DEPARTURE SPEED page?
210kt, 4000’, 5.0 miles
39
To select VNAV on, you must select VNAV via the Guidance Panel and then ensure VNAV is Magenta in the FMA.
True
40
With the fuel overhead panel knobs in Auto, turning the Xfeed knob to low 1 will:
Open crossfeed valve and turn on Pump 2
41
What is the purpose of the PTU associated with the #1 and #2 Hydraulic Systems?
```
Provides assistance to retract or extend the Landing Gear following a failure of Engine
#2 or failure of the Engine #2 Hydraulic pump
```
42
Envoy Takeoff REF A/I procedures allow for which of the following settings?
-ENG
-ALL
(A & B)
43
In the case of normal Landing Gear extension failure:
- The Gear may be extended through an Electrical Override system
- The Gear may be extended through a Free-Fall system
(c. Both a and b)
44
Photo-luminescent Strips are installed along the passenger cabin floor provide a means of
identifying the emergency escape path in dense smoke conditions. (T-F)
True
45
First Flight of the Day Checks require the DVDR Control Panel to be tested including verification
that the following messages are NOT announced:
- CVR FWD FAIL
- CVR AFT FAIL
(c. Both a and b)
46
The Windshear Escape Guidance Mode is activated:
-Manually when a Windshear Warning or caution is detected and the TOGA switch is
pressed
-Automatically when a Windshear Warning condition is detected and Thrust Lever is set
to TO/GA position
-Automatically when a Windshear Warning condition is detected and the FD Mode is in
TO or GA
(All of the above)
47
“CAS MSG” on the PFD indicates that the CAS lists from the (2) Monitor Warning Function
computers do not match. (T-F)
True
48
48. Which statement(s) are true concerning TCAS displays?
-TCAS commands provide pitch guidance information to the Flight Crew to recommend or
prohibit a maneuver and prevent hazardous encounter with other aircraft
-The Vertical Speed Scale is used to Display TCAS Resolution Advisories
-The Red Range is the avoidance zone and the green range is the fly-to-zone
(d. All of the above)
49
How is the crew alerted when the aircraft approaches a stall?
Stick Shaker Activation
50
Weather Radar FSBY mode can be overridden on the ground via:
-Both pilots selecting FSBY OVRD Menu item on their respective weather controller
-One pilot selects the STAB OFF box 4 times within 3 seconds enabling the Weather
Mode
(c. Both a and b)
51
On the ERJ-175 Flight Status Page ………………….displayed:
-TAT
-SAT
-Gross Weight
(All of the above)
52
______ cabin doors provide access to the passenger cabin.
4
53
The DV Windows can be removed by the Crew. (T-F)
False
54
The crew Oxygen and Passenger Oxygen come from the same source. (T-F)
False
55
The Ground Cart Icon appears when: (Check answer!)
The High Pressure cart is connected
56
APU EGT can be determined from the:
EICAS
57
Autothrottles will automatically disengage:
-After Airplane touchdown
-Thrust Levers beyond TO/GA position
-Reverse thrust operation during a rejected takeoff
(All of the above)
58
The COMM/NAVS may be tuned via______?
-CCD(s) - CA’s tunes VHF1/NAV1 and FO’s tunes VHF2/NAV2
-CA’s MCDU
-FO’s MCDU
(All of the above)
59
With the loss of AC power to AC BUS 1 & AC BUS 2 in flight, the RAT should automatically
deploy within _____ seconds.
8 Seconds
60
After performing an engine dry motor procedure, you must wait how long before attempting an
engine start?
5 Minutes
61
Pulling the #1 fire handle:
Closes the associated Fuel, Hydraulic, and Bleed Air SOV
62
Flap Limitation Speeds are 1-___, 2-___, 3-___, 4/5-___, Full___.
230, 215, 200, 180, 165
63
Prior to takeoff, entering Vref, Vapp, Vac, and Vfs fro the departure weight is optional.
(T-F)
False
64
DES NOW will appear on the FMS:
When the aircraft is 50 NM or less from the TOD
65
The FUEL IMBALANCE EICAS message appears at __ lbs imbalance, and extinguishes at __lbs imbalance.
800, 100
66
Hydraulic Shutoff Valve 1 or 2 may be closed by the Engine Fire Handle or a guarded button on the Overhead Hydraulic Panel. (T-F)
True
67
The following areas use Bleed Air for Ice Protection:
-Engine Cowls
-Outboard Slats (3)
(Both A and B)
68
The ERJ-175 is not equipped with Wing Inspection Lights.
| T-F
False
69
The DVDR starts recording:
Flight data at first engine start; audio data automatically on power up
70
The EGPWS Database consists of all hard surface runways that are greater than 3500 feet in length. (T-F)
True
71
An EICAS provides the flight crew with a four-level alert messaging system categorized by type and color as:
Warning (Red), Caution (Amber), Advisory (Cyan) and Status (White)
72
The TCAS System must be tested:
Pilots are not required to test the TCAS
73
The Auto Flight Control System (AFCS) provides stall protection by limiting the angle of attack
(AOA) via the available control column authority (i.e. prevents the available pitch that the control column is capable of requesting). (T-F)
True
74
The SECT function reduces the angle of sweep from 60 degrees to 30 degrees and increases the sweep to 24 sweeps per minute. (T-F)
True
75
Where is the Least Risk Bomb (LRB) location on the E175?
The floor of Row 22 on the CA’s side
76
The Cabin Doors are automatically disarmed when the doors are opened from the outside. (T-F)
True
77
The Water Tank Capacity Indicator is located:
On the AFT Attendant Control Panel Only
78
The “OBSERVER OXY LO PRESS” EICAS Advisory message displayed when the O2 cylinder pressure drops below ____ or the ____ has failed. (Check answer!)
Minimum safety limits for 3 crew members, pressure sensor
79
On Envoy aircraft the water for the coffee maker is pressurized via:
Engine or APU Bleed Air
80
The APU can provide bleed air for engine starting up to what altitude?
21,000'
81
Initial TO Pitch Angle Logic will command what speed if the engine fails at V2?
V2 to V2 + 10
82
If the Captain selects the BKUP button out on his Audio Control Panel:
The Captain is directly connected to VHF 1
83
You will lose both Display Unit 1 & Display Unit 2 in an Electrical Emergency. (T-F) (CheckAnser!)
False
84
Whenever the ATTCS activates, which of the following occurs?
The green ATTCS indication on the EICAS turn to white
85
How many portable Fire Extinguishers are on the E-175?
5
86
The maximum altitude for flap extension is _____.
20,000 ft
87
There is only one Reversionary Control Panel that controls all of the Displays. (T-F)
False
88
The FMS Interfaces with:
- The Global Positioning System (GPS)
- The Internal Referencing System (IRS)
- The Multifunction Displays (MFD)
89
The FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL EICAS will be presented at:
660 lbs of fuel remaining in the associated tank
90
The dedicated accumulator associated for the Emergency/Parking Brake system will allow for
___ complete emergency actuations or at least ___ hours of parking brake actuation.
6 Complete Emergency Actuations,
24 Hours park brake actuation
91
Pilots can override the automatic function of the Anti-Ice System. (T-F)
True
92
The Landing Gear Doors are actuated mechanically. (T-F)
True
93
A steady blue Rainbow Light illuminates when the flight crew makes a call to the cockpit. (T-F)
False
94
The DVDR unit is capable of recording:
The last 120 min of audio and 25 hours of flight data
95
The Terrain Mapping selection cannot be turned on manually. (T-F)
False
96
The EICAS de-clutter function occurs
30 seconds after Landing Gear and FLAP/SLAT retraction
97
The TCAS System presents an Aural Warning for which of the following alerts?
Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories
98
When one of the AOA Limiting Sensors fail in flight, the Stall Protection System will still be
capable of AOA Limiting. (T-F)
False
99
What are the range selections for the Weather Radar?
10 - 300 miles
