Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Block 4 > Red cells > Flashcards

Red cells Flashcards

(81 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the 4 types of bodily fluids?

A

Intracellular
Interstitial
Blood
Lymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two main functions of blood?

A

Transportation

Regulation (Body temperature, pH, hydraulic and osmotic pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is composition proportion of blood?

A

Liquid component – 55% (Plasma)

Formed elements – 45% (Red blood cells [99%], White blood cells, Platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the early stages of Haematopoiesis?

A

Long Term Haematopoietic Stem Cell
Short Term Haematopoietic Stem Cell
Multipotent Progenitor

Differentiates into:
Common Myeloid Progenitor
Common Lymphoid Progenitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the process of Erythropoiesis in relation to hormones

A

Hypoxia (lower than normal oxygen levels) is detected in the kidneys

Kidneys cells release the hormone Erythropoietin (EPO) into the blood

Erythropoiesis is regulated by EPO binding to the erythropoietin receptor on progenitor cells

EPO-receptor is a kinase linked receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the stages of generation of the Erythrocyte

A 
Hemocytoblast
Proerythroblast
Early Erythroblast
Late Erythroblast
Normoblast
Reticulocyte
Erythrocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are erythrocytes transported and how are they removed?

A

Transported to the Bone Marrow via transferrin

Aged cells removed by macrophages of the spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What hormone regulates platelet production?

A

Thrombopoietin (TPO) produced by the liver and kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the stages of platelet formation?

A

Myeloid stem cell
Megakaryoblast
Megakaryocyte
Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

Pain, heat, redness, swelling and loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the roles of Leucocytes

A

Neutrophils – First line of defence – Phagocytic – Ingest and kill pathogens, debris and damaged cells, initiate inflammatory process

Eosinophil – Phagocytic – Protection against worm infection (Helminths)

Basophil – Involved in allergic reaction

Monocyte – Phagocytic and differentiate to become macrophages within tissue -Involved in antigen presentation

NK cell – Killing of virally infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are Helper T cells characterized by?

A

CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are Cytotoxic T cells characterized by?

A

CD8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mention and distinguish the different ABO blood groups?

A

Group O – No antigens present

Group A – A antigens

Group B – B antigens

Group AB – A & B antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are A and B antigens?

A

Carbohydrate structures

Present on red cell membrane glycoproteins and glycolipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is RHD expressed?

A

Individuals can be homozygous for RHD (2 copies) or hemizygous (1 copy) all express D antigen on RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is patient confidentiality?

A

The principle of not divulging information about patients to others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 5 reasons to respect confidentiality?

A

Central to establishing trust

Ensures information is not disclosed to the wrong people (May harm or embarrass patient)

Respects patient’s autonomy

A legal requirement

A professional obligation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is it classed as a breach in confidentiality?

A

If information is shared with other people without the consent of the patient in question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is it justified to breach confidentiality?

A

In the public interest

To prevent serious harm coming to another e.g. sexual contact of serious communicable diseases

Disclosures required by law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What about a patient’s own interest in relation to confidentiality?

A

A competent adult patient’s refusal to consent to sharing of information should be abided even if doing so puts the patient at risk of serious harm

Disclosure may be justified if gaining consent is not practicable

Confidentiality can / should be broken if in patient’s best interests and the patient lacks capacity or is a child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What must a doctor do when sharing confidential information?

A

Use anonymised or coded information if practicable

Get patient’s express consent if identifiable information is to be disclosed for purposes other than their care or local clinical audit

Keep disclosures to the minimum necessary

Keep up to date with, and observe, all relevant legal requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the sites of haematopoiesis during foetal life

A

Yolk sac from week 4 of development

Liver until shortly before birth

Spleen until cartilaginous bones vascularised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the sites of haematopoiesis during infant/adult life

A

Marrow of most bones in children

Mainly marrow of pelvis, sternum, vertebrae and cranial bones in adults (due to fat deposition in marrow of long bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the two main types of Marrow?
Yellow marrow – Fatty tissues Red marrow – Highly vascular at epiphysis of the bone (end part) – Site of haematopoiesis
26
What is the difference between Primary and Secondary lymphoid tissue?
Primary is where immune cells develop Secondary is where immune responses become initiated
27
Give two examples of Primary lymphoid tissues
``` Thymus (T lymphocytes) Bone marrow (B lymphocytes) ```
28
What are Bone marrows two functions?
Site for generation and maintenance of stem cells Functions as a primary lymphoid tissue for the development of B lymphocytes
29
Give three examples of Secondary lymphoid tissues
Lymph nodes Spleen Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT) [Protecting epithelial and mucosal barriers]
30
What are lymph capillaries?
Originate as “closed tubes” and penetrate and fenestrate in almost all tissues (except CNS, epidermis and cartilage) Capillary wall constructed of overlapping endothelial cells that respond to fluid pressure
31
What controls the movement of fluid in the lymph system?
Accumulation of fluid builds up pressure, causing pressure differentials The force of extracellular fluids gives a hydrostatic pressure to push fluid down the capillary network
32
Where do superficial lymphatics flow into?
Follow superficial veins – They drain the periphery Axillary (armpit) Inguinal (groin) Cervical (neck)
33
Where do deep lymphatics flow into?
Either side of the aorta (para-aortic) receive drainage from gastrointestinal tract and abdominal organs Anterior to the aorta (pre-aortic) drain celiac lymph nodes, superior mesenteric lymph nodes, and inferior mesenteric lymph nodes groups, arranged around the origins of the corresponding arteries.
34
Describe the deep lymphatic drainage
Lymph from three quarters of the body drains into the left brachiocephalic vein via the thoracic duct Lymph from the upper right quadrant enter to right brachiocephalic vein
35
Name the different lymph vessels
The inflow into the lymph node – Afferent lymph vessels The outflow from the lymph node – Efferent lymph vessels
36
What three features confirm lymphoid tissue?
Capsulation Vascularisation Compartmentalisation
37
Describe the anatomy of a lymph node
``` Artery/Vein Medullary sinus T-cell area Germinal centre Lymphoid follicle (mostly B cells) Marginal sinus ```
38
Between which ribs is the spleen located?
9th and 11th in the left hypochondrium
39
Due to the spleen being the largest lymphoid organ, what two functions does it have?
Directs immune responses to antigens in the blood Importance for clearance of effete (affected) red blood cells
40
What are the functions of stromal cells?
Cells of mesenchyme origin Scaffold that helps cells to move to the right place Form a structure within the lymph node
41
What are three benefits of innate defences?
Prevent pathogen establishment May limit pathogen multiplication Provides protection from early death during the expansion phase of the acquired immune response
42
Name four non-immunological barriers to infection
Skin Gut Lungs Eyes/nose
43
What are the three ways the compliment pathway?
Classical Pathway MB-Lectin Pathway Alternate Pathway
44
Describe the formation of the complement “membrane attack complex”
C5b binds C6 and C7 C5b67 complexes bind to membrane via C7 C8 binds to the complex and insets into the cell membrane C9 molecules bind to the complex and polymerize 1-16 molecules of C9 bind to form a pore in the membrane
45
Compare the recognition mechanisms of innate and adaptive immunity
``` Innate: Rapid response (hours) Fixed Limited number of specificities Constant during response ``` ``` Adaptive: Slow response (days to weeks) Variable Numerous highly selective specificities Improve during response ```
46
Why are phagocytes described as being fixed?
They have a variety of different receptors on their surface to recognise pathogens (Mannose, glucan, LPS (CD14), TLR-4, scavenger) They will remain constant before and after the infection
47
What does PAMP stand for?
Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns
48
Describe the four main principles of phagocytosis
Attachment by pattern recognition receptors Pseudopodia forming a phagosome Granule fusion and killing Release of microbial products
49
What potent antimicrobial mechanisms undergo during phagocytosis
Activation off NADPH oxidase occurs during the “Respiratory burst” Releases toxic oxygen radicals (superoxide and hydrogen peroxide)
50
What is Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?
A primary human immune-deficiency disease Phagocytes cannot undergo respiratory burst
51
How are neutrophils characterised histologically?
Multi-lobe nucleus (poly-morpho nuclear cell)
52
How else can activated neutrophils catch bacteria?
Neutrophil extracellular traps or NETs “Commit suicide” and extrude their DNA to catch microorganisms for other phagocytes engulf
53
Blood monocytes can give rise to which molecules?
Tissue macrophages
54
What is a dendritic cell’s speciality?
Can communicate with lymphocytes rather well
55
Summarise cell movement form blood to tissue
Cytokines produced by macrophages cause dilation of local small blood vessels Leukocytes move to periphery of blood vessel due to an increased expression of adhesion molecules Monocyte binds to adhesion molecules on vascular endothelium near sites of infection and gets chemokine signal The monocyte migrates into the surrounding tissue Monocyte differentiates into a macrophage and migrates to the site of infection
56
What are cytokines and chemokines described as?
The hormones of the immune system Mostly referred to as “interleukins”
57
What are key features of cytokine and chemokine regulation?
May be released in a polar fashion at “synapses” Recognised on target cells by specific receptors Receptor expression is highly regulated to control the targets and duration of the response
58
What is the production of blood cells called?
Haematopoiesis
59
What is the production of red blood cells called?
Erythropoiesis
60
When does anaemia occur?
Reduced number of red blood cells Decreased amount of haemoglobin
61
What are some symptoms of anaemia?
Weakness Tiredness Inability to exercise Shortness of breath
62
What are some signs of anaemia?
Pallor (especially conjunctive) Tachycardia Glossitis (swollen and painful tongue – reasonably specific for vitamin B12) Koilonchia (spoon nails – reasonably specific for iron deficiency) Dark urine (In haemolytic anaemia)
63
Describe the regulation of Erythropoiesis
Hypoxia is high = Increased HIF (Hypoxia-inducible factor) Increased HIF = Increased EPO production in the kidney Increased EPO = Increased erythrocyte production Increased erythrocytes = Decreased Hypoxia Decreased Hypoxia = Decreased HIF Decreased HIF = Decreased EPO
64
Where and how is EPO produced?
Juxta tubular interstitial cells of the renal cortex Oxygen levels sensed through oxygen-dependent prolyl hydroxylase
65
What are conditions called that affect specifically erythropoiesis?
Pure red cell aplasia (PRCA)
66
What are conditions called that affect production of other cell types in addition to RBCs
Pancytopenia
67
What does Idiopathic mean?
Where no clear cause can be identified
68
What is the difference between primary and secondary acquired PRCA?
Primary – Idiopathic Secondary – Acquired as a result to exposure to a pathogenic agent such as a drug or infection
69
How can changes in the bone marrow cause pancytopenia?
Haematopoietic stem cells (HSC) differentiate into progenitor cells and self-renew Failure of HSCs to self-renew will eventually lead to HSC exhaustion and pancytopenia
70
What is haemolytic anaemia?
Caused by premature destruction of functional erythrocytes
71
What is the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic erythrocyte destruction?
Extrinsic – Destroyed by external pathological processes such as drugs, toxins, auto-antibodies or infection Intrinsic – Problem with the erythrocyte itself, so it is destroyed. This can be due to damage, absence of certain enzymes or abnormal types of haemoglobin
72
What does AIHA stand for?
Auto-Immune Haemolytic Anaemia
73
What are Schistocytes?
Fragmented red blood cells
74
What is polychromasia?
Abnormally high number of immature red blood cells in the blood due to premature release from the bone marrow during blood formation.
75
What are Spherocytes?
RBCs that are sphere-shaped rather than bi-concave disk shapes. Spherocytes are found in all haemolytic anaemias to some degree.
76
What is Haemoglobinopathy?
Autosomal co-dominant genetic defects resulting in abnormal structure of one of the globin chains of the haemoglobin molecule Sickle cell anaemia is one of the most common haemoglobinopathies
77
What are the three essential micronutrients for erythropoiesis?
Iron Vitamins B12 and B6 Folic acid
78
What is Sideroblastic anaemia?
Not a lack of iron but its failure to be incorporated into haem in the erythrocyte precursor cells
79
Give three types of Microcytic anaemia
(Insufficient haemoglobin production) Iron-deficiency anaemia Lead poisoning Anaemia of chronic disease
80
Give three types of Normocytic anaemia
(Decreased erythropoiesis or decreased blood volume) Haemolytic anaemia Bone marrow disorders Acute blood loss Hypersplenism
81
Give three types of Macrocytic anaemia
(Insufficient cell production) Vitamin B12 deficiency Folic acid deficiency Liver disease

Block 4 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions