Regional Exam II Flashcards

(89 cards)

1
Q

Injection location

(spinal vs. epidural)

A

spinal - lumbar only

epidural - anywhere

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2
Q

duration of block

(spinal vs. epidural)

A

spinal - brief

epidural - longer

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3
Q

Which has a better quality of block, spinal or epidural?

A

spinal

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4
Q

sacral hiatus

A

unfused opening between S4 and S5

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5
Q

T7-T8 Landmark

A

lower limits of scapulae

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6
Q

C7 landmark

A

bony knob at base of neck

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7
Q

L2 Landmark

A

terminal point of 12th ribs

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8
Q

L4 Landmark

A

Iliac crest

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9
Q

S2 Landmark

A

posterior iliac spines

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10
Q

what connects the epidural space with the paravertebral space?

A

foraminae

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11
Q

Maximal depth of epidural space

A

6 mm at L2

(only 4-5 mm in the midthoracic area)

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12
Q

plica mediana dorsalis

A

connect dura mater to the ligamentum flavum

(may not even exist)

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13
Q

(5) complications to discuss with patient

A
  • nerve damage
  • bleeding
  • infection
  • headache
  • failed block
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14
Q

Which type of block would be performed in a perineal surgery?

A

spinal

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15
Q

One should probably not attempt a spinal above _____

A

L3 - L4 interspace

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16
Q

Which type of needles are more likely to cause PDPH?

A

beveled

(Quincke)

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17
Q

Two types of Pencil-point Spinal Needles

A

Whitacre and Sprotte

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18
Q

Which spinal approach is independent of patient flexion?

A

Taylor

  • star 1 cm medial and caudal to PSIS
  • advance cephalad at 55o with medial orientation
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19
Q

Which spinal approach is best suited for narrow interspaces or difficulty with flexion?

A

Paramedian

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20
Q

Level and duration of spinal are primarily determined by _____

A

baricity, contour of spinal canal, and patient position

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21
Q

Epinephrine in spinals

A

vasoconstricts, decreasing the spread, and has some alpha-2 analgesia

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22
Q

Tetracaine in spinals

A

major vasodilation

(vasopressors have a profound effect)

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23
Q

Bupivacaine in spinals

A

decreases spinal and dural blood flow

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24
Q

Dose of Lidocaine for spinals

A

60-75 mg

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25
Dose of Chloroprocaine for Spinals
40-60 mg
26
Dose of Bupivacaine for spinals
5 - 20mg
27
Which one is more profoundly affected by vasoconstrictors? Tetracaine or Bupivacaine
Tetracaine
28
Opiates in spinals
affect the dorsal horn usually 25 ug of Fentanyl
29
Dose of Tetracaine for spinals
5 - 20 mg
30
Sensory level for Hemorrhoidectomy
S2 - S5
31
Sensory level for Foot surgery
L2 - L3
32
Sensory level for lower Extremities
L1 - L3
33
Sensory level for Hip, TURP, or vaginal delivery
T10
34
Sensory level for Lower abdomen or Appendectomy
T6 - T7
35
Sensory level for upper abdomen or C-section
T4
36
Anything above ____ inhibits SNS to the GI tract
T5
37
First-line drug to treat hypotension in Spinals
Ephedrine
38
Blood Patch
15 - 20 mL injected at or below the site, as the blood will travel cephalad
39
Warning sign of hypotension and stroke during spinal
nausea
40
Hypotension in Spinals
occurs in 1/3 of patients initially due to decreased SVR
41
Most common epidural needle
Tuohy
42
Most common approach for lumbar epidural
midline
43
Two techniques to identify epidural space
loss of resistance or hanging drop
44
Test dose
3 cc of 1.5% lidocaine with 1:200,000 Epi
45
Caudal blocks
epidural injections placed through the sacrococcygeal ligament and sacral hiatus
46
Sacral Hiatus is absent in \_\_\_\_% of patients
10
47
Difference between Lumbar and Thoracic epidurals
Lumbar tends to flow cephalad due to negative intrathoracic pressure, whereas thoracic stays in place
48
What will cause spread of local in epidurals?
negative intrathoracic pressure
49
Intermediate duration LA
lidocaine
50
Which LA is not effected by Epinephrine?
Bupivacaine
51
Epinephrine in Epidurals
prolongs duration (especially if chloroprocaine or lidocaine) * may accentuate the fall in blood pressure
52
Sodium Bicarbonate with Epidurals
promotes more rapid onset
53
If epidural anesthesia has "partially failed, " consider \_\_\_\_
injecting small doses of chloroprocaine
54
Which LA has a higher risk of absorption or intravascular injection?
Bupivacaine
55
Major site of action for an epidural
nerve roots
56
Neuraxial blocks results in a sympathectomy ____ dermatomes above the sensory block
2 - 6
57
Bainbridge Reflex
stimulation of right atrial stretch receptors leads to vagal afferent stimulation of medulla and subsequent inhibition of parasympathetic activity (increase HR)
58
(3) mechanisms that effect heart rate
* bainbridge reflex * direct effect on the SA node elicited by atrial stretching * anesthesia of T1-4 cardioaccelerator fibers
59
Cardiovascular effects of Neuroaxial Anesthesia
arterial and venous dilation and decreased preload and HR
60
Which drug should be considered in parturients instead of Epi or ephedrine
phenylephrine
61
Risk of headache after accidental dural puncture with an epidural needle is \_\_\_\_
about 50%
62
(6) Risk Factors for PDPH
* beveled needle (quinke) * larger needle * female * pregnant * young * history of headaches
63
Order of block sensitivty
temperature \> SNS \> pain \> touch \> motor (first to last to go)
64
Anesthetic effects of central blocks
* decrease MAC * produce sedation * potentiate hypnotics
65
location of cardioaccelerators
T1-4
66
Epidural with epinephrine seems to cause _____ hypotension than without Epi
more
67
What are two major factors affecting block height?
baricity and patient position
68
Spinal blocks wear off in a ______ direction
cephalad to caudad (thus sacral lasts longer than thoracic)
69
Higher blocks usually wear off _____ than lower blocks
faster
70
\_\_\_\_\_ agonists can prolong a spinal block
adrenergic
71
Reduce anesthetic dose by _____ if working on upper dermatomes
30-50% | (rksk of cephalad spread is increased)
72
Caudal is more similar to an epidural or spinal?
epidural
73
Spinal is injected into the \_\_\_
subarachnoid space
74
subarachnoid space is a continuous space that contains \_\_\_\_\_
CSF, spinal cord, and conus medullaris
75
Where does the subarachnoid space end?
conus medullaris at the sacral hiatus
76
termination of spinal cord
usually at L1 | (L3 in pediatrics)
77
Dorsal (posterior) roots are responsible for \_\_\_\_
sensory blockade
78
Anterior (ventral) roots are responsible for \_\_\_\_\_
motor blockade
79
total CSF in adults
100 - 150 mL
80
CSF volume in subarachnoid space
25 - 35 mL
81
specific gravity of CSF
1.0003 - 1.0006
82
Supraclavicular Nerves
branches of the superficial cervical plexus (C3-C4) * provides cutaneous innervation at the shoulder
83
Suprascapular Nerves
C5 and C6 provides sensory innervation to posterior/superior shoulder and anterior axilla
84
Intercostobrachial Nerves
T2 * often used to treat tourniquet pain
85
Axillary Block
86
Infraclavicular Block
87
Interscalene Block
88
Supraclavicular Block
89