Regional Final Flashcards

(84 cards)

1
Q

Indications for Intercostal Block

A
  • thoracic or upper abdominal surgery
  • rib fractures
  • breast surgery
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2
Q

Overview of Intercostal nerve blocks

A
  • need to perform blockade of two dermatomes above incision and two levels below
  • does not block visceral pain
  • does not provide adequate coverage for intraoperative anesthesia
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3
Q

Landmarks for Intercostal block

A

angle of rib

(6-8 cm lateral to the spinous process)

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4
Q

Risks of Intercostal block

A
  • Pneumothorax
  • local anesthetic toxicity
  • hematoma
  • nerve damage
  • epidural anesthesia
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5
Q

Technique for Paravertebral

A

2.5 cm lateral to midline

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6
Q

longest lumbar transverse process

A

L3

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7
Q

Trigeminal Nerve

[overview]

A

5th CN providing sensory innervation to face

  • preganglionic fibers exit brainstem and synapse with trigemincal (gasserian) ganglion
  • post-ganglionic fibers exit to form:
    • V1 - opthalmic
    • V2 - maxillary
    • V3 - Mandibular
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8
Q

most common trigeminal nerves to have pain

A

V2 (maxillary) and V3 (mandibular)

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9
Q

–carbamezapine

A

treats seizures and nerve pain

(especially trigeminal neuralgia)

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10
Q

Complications of Trigeminal Nerve Block

A
  • intravascular injection (carotid)
  • persistent paresthesias
  • total spinal
  • profound facial numbness
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11
Q

indications for Supraorbital block

A

lower forehead or upper eyelid

(blepheroplasty)

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12
Q

amount of local anesthetic in Supraorbital block

A

2 - 3 mL

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13
Q

injection of LA inside the cone of the eye provides anesthesia and akinesia of ___ and ____

A

globe and extraocular muscles

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14
Q

Oculocardiac Reflex

[afferent]

A

trigeminal

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15
Q

oculocardiac reflex

[efferent]

A

vagus nerve

increase in parasympathetic tone

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16
Q

steps in oculocardiac reflex

A

pressure on eyeball

ciliary nerves and ciliary ganglion

gasserian ganglion

trigeminal sensory nucleus in 4th ventricle

vagus nerve

increase parasympathetic tone and bradycardia

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17
Q

highest incidence of oculocardiac reflex

A

children

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18
Q

Treatment of oculocardiac reflex

A

removal of stimulus

anti-cholinergics

check depth of anesthesia

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19
Q

sensory anterior 2/3 of tongue

A

trigeminal

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20
Q

sensory above vocal cords

A

internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

(vagus)

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21
Q

sensory posterior 1/3 of tongue

A

glossopharyngeal

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22
Q

sensory below vocal cords

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

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23
Q

The recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates all muscles of the pharynx except _____

A

cricothyroid muscle

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24
Q

innervation of cricothyroid muscle

A

external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

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25
Transtracheal block indication
blunts gag reflex
26
nerves involved in gag reflex
afferent (CN IX) and efferent (CN X)
27
nerves in lumbar plexus
T-12 to L-4
28
nerves in femoral branch
L2 - L4
29
1= Femoral Artery 2= Femoral Nerve 3= Femoral Vein 4= Anterior Superior Iliac Spine 5= Inguinal Ligament 6=Sartorius
30
31
}In the PACU your patient complains of knee pain after a Total Knee Arthroplasty. A continuous femoral nerve block has already been placed. What do you do?
adductor canal block
32
Boundaries of Adductor canal block
sartorius vastus medialis adductur longus and magnus
33
Advantage of adductor canal block over femoral
sensory block only no motor fibers involved; good for athletes that need to recover quickly
34
Adductor canal block
35
Indications for Saphenous nerve block
saphenous vein harvesting or supplementation for medial foot/ankle surgery in combination with sciatic nerve block
36
saphenous nerve block
37
nerves in sciatic branch
L4 - S3
38
largest nerve in the body
sciatic
39
landmarks for sciatic nerve block
ischial tuberosity and greater trochanter
40
sciatic nerve block needle insertion
4cm distal to midpoint between ischial tuberosity and greater trochanter
41
branches of sciatic nerve
tibial and common peroneal
42
which nerve causes dorsiflexion?
common peroneal
43
which nerve causes plantarflexion?
tibial nerve
44
boundaries of popiiteal fossa
bicep femoris semi-tendenosis and semi-membranosus
45
Popliteal block if two nerves are seen (common peroneal and tibial) move caudally
46
Which is most appropriate combination of nerve blocks for knee arthroscopy with a tourniquet:
transgluteal sciatic nerve block and lumbar plexus block
47
(5) nerves in ankle block
* deep peroneal * posterior tibial * saphenous * superficial peroneal * sural
48
1. Saphenous 2. Deep Peroneal 3. Superficial Peroneal 4. Medial plantar Branch of Tibial 5. Lateral Plantar branch of tibial 6. Tibial 7. Sural
49
TAP
transversus abdominis plane
50
"triangle" in TAP block
latissimus dorsi external oblique iliac crest
51
indications for T.A.P.
large bowel resection appendectomy or cholecystectomy C-section renal transplant
52
TAP ultrasound
53
indications for fascia iliaca block
anterior thigh and knee surgery
54
55
TEG
Thromboelastogram
56
R parameter on TEG
clotting time | (reaction time)
57
reasons for elongated R parameter
slow enzymatic reaction factor deficiency or dysfunction residual heparin
58
The R value represents which of the following phases of hemostasis?
Activation of coagulation pathways and initial fibrin formation
59
alpha parameter
kinetics of clot formation
60
Which TEG parameters will best demonstrate the need for coagulation factors?
R
61
Maximum amplitude in TEG
represents clot strength
62
what do you give for a low MA?
platelets
63
pain assessment in children
oucher
64
dose of oral acetaminophen
10 - 15 mg/kg
65
dose of oral ibuprofen
5 - 10 mg/kg
66
dose of naproxen
5 mg/kg
67
IV dose of fentanyl
0.5 - 1 mg/kg
68
IV dose of morphine
0.1 mg/kg
69
EMLA
lidocaine and prilocaine cream * may cause methemoglobinemia in children \< 3 months of age
70
most commonly used anesthetic especially in children
bupivacaine
71
cardiotoxicity is ____ common than neurotoxicity in children
more
72
signs of cardiotoxicity
increased HR and NP increased amplitude of T-waves on EKG
73
infants spinal cords end at \_\_\_\_
L3
74
neuropraxia
blunt injury to nerve * myelin damage * conduction slowing
75
axonotmesis
loss of axonal continuity * endoneuriu intact * no conduction
76
neurotmesis
complete interruption of the entire nerve * loss of axonal and endoneurial continuity
77
delay between neuraxial block and heparin
1 hour remove epidural 2 hours after last heparin dose
78
Lovenox
low-molecular weight heparin * activates anti-thrombin accelerating interaction with factor Xa and thrombin
79
difference between Type I and II CRPS
type II has a defined nerve injury
80
TENS
transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
81
which nerve is spared in a 3-1 block?
obturator
82
nerves in obturator block
L2 - L4
83
Myasthenia Gravis {overview}
resistant to Sux * may be on pyridostigmine therapy * destroy ACh receptors at neuromuscular junctions
84
Multiple Sclerosis [overview]
demyelinating disease of the CNS * do **_NOT_** perform spinal/epidural