Regulatory Flashcards

(43 cards)

1
Q

National quality measures for anesthesia

A

Abx received within one hour prior to surgical incision

Peri-op temperature management

Pts on BBs who received their BB during the peri-op period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Important charting items that are looked at for national quality standards

A
Anesthesia start/end time and date
Surgical incision time
Abx name, dose, route, time, allergies
BB current med, last dose, peri-op admin if needed
Reasons for not giving BB peri-op
Temp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Med errors injure…

A

1.3 million people annually and cause at least 1 death per day in the US

Can occur during prescribing, repackaging, dispensing, administering, monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Common meds errors invlovle

A

poor communication
Similar med names, abbreviations, poor instructions, poor handwriting
Poor procedures/techniques
Pt misuse door to poorly understood instructions
Job stress, lack of training, similar/confusing labelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Institute for safe medication practices

A
Lists high risk meds
List dangerous abbreviations
Can search recent med safety info
Report med errors and ADRs
Link to FDA's medwatch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AANA needle safety

A

Never use same needle/syringe for more than one pt
Never reuse any needle for any reason
Never refill a syringe, even for the same pt
Never reuse infusion sets
Never reuse a syringe/needle to draw from a multi-dose vial
Never reenter a single use medication vial/amp/solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AANA statement on propofol

A

Should be kept in a secure environment and kept track of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

FDA approval process

A
Pre-clinical
IRB
Clinical
OTC
Generic
Post-approval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Major FDA legislation

A

1906 Pure food and drugs act- requires truthful labeling of all drugs

1912 Amendment prohibits fraudulent advertising

1938 Food, drug, cosmetic act- requires proof of safety and purity

1951 Durham-Humphrey Amendment- gives FDA authority to determine which meds can be sold without a prescription

1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendment- requires proof of efficacy, puts forth guidelines for ADR reporting, testing, and advertising

1983 Orphan drug act

1984 Drug price competition and patent restoration act- shorter approval time for generics, extends patents caused by FDA delay

1992 Expedited drug approval act- special drugs can be approved faster, but need more postmarketing studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The CDER assures safe and effective drugs for the US and is in charge of what three major areas

A

New drug development process

IND review process

NDA review process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ethics in drug development

A

Balance of risk and benefit for the subject. 4 major principles-

Trial must minimize risks
Provisions must be made for care of the subjects
Must terminate trial when risks become incompatible with goals
Adverse events must be reported immediately to ethics/safety committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Informed consent

A

Pt must be aware of B/R/A- if terminal they must realize this will not benefit them, but likely future patients

Well informed of the entire process before making a voluntary choice to participate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

IRB

A

Located within hospitals and research centers- Mandated by the FDA. Review ethical/legal issues related to research.

Ensure subjects are fully informed and protected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

IRB composition

A

5 experts and lay people with varying backgrounds

Must be able to evaluate proposals with law, institutional regulations/commitments, professional standards, and community attitudes in mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Specific IRB criteria

A
Minimizes risks to human subjects
Risks are reasonable relative to possible benefits and scientific gain
Equitable selection of subjects
Informed consent
Safeguards vulnerable populations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Preclinical

A

Show drug is reasonable and safe in small scale studies

In vitro, animal studies
Previous clinical testing results
Proposed protocol

Info is submitted in form of IND- 30 day review of chemistry, pharm/toxicology, medical potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Preclinical goals

A
Establish potential efficacy and safety
Determine biological actions
Chemical properties
Kinetics
Synthesis/purification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Preclinical research

A

Animals- used as little as possible. Two or more species. Used for kinetics, safety testing

Short term testing- 2 weeks to 3 months

Long term- Several weeks to years, can continue after human testing for long term AE searches

19
Q

Clinical studies can proceed when

A

IND is active following FDA review

IRB approves the study protocol

20
Q

Phase I

A

20-100 subjects, several months, purpose is SAFETY

21
Q

Phase II

A

Several hundred subjects, severals months to 2 years, purpose is EFFECTIVENESS AND SHORT TERM SAFETY

22
Q

Phase III

A

Several hundred to thousands, 1-4 years, SAFETY, DOSAGE, EFFECTIVENESS

23
Q

NDA

A

Formal proposal for the FDA to approve a new drug. Includes- non clinical, clinical, drug, and manufacturing information from all previously completed studies

Must provide enough info to answer- Is it safe/effective with benefits that outweigh risks

Is the labeling appropriate

Is the manufacturing adequate

24
Q

Compassionate use protocols

A

Drugs must show preliminary efficacy

Pt must be likely to die or suffer rapid progression within several months or die prematurely without treatment

Must be no comparable approved therapy to treat the disease at that stage

25
Generic drug review
Abbreviated NDA must- Contain same active ingredient as original drug Be identical in strength, dosage form, and ROA Have the same indications Be bioequivalent Meet same batch requirements Meet the same manufacturing requirements
26
OTC review
6 out of 10 meds are OTC | >80 classes of OTC drugs, >100,000 products
27
Phase IV (post approval)
More information about SE and safety when used in the general population Long term risk/benefit analysis Efficacy in the general population FDA may require these studies
28
How does CDER monitor safety and efficacy
Pharmacovigilance and Epidemiology division MEDWatch Pharmacoepidemiology Contracts/Coop agreements
29
MEDWatch
Started in 1993, 4 goals: Make it easier the report serious events Make it clear what type of ADEs are being reported to the FDA Widely disseminate information about FDA action regarding ADEs Increase provider awareness of drug/device-induced disease
30
Inpatient Rx
Patient ID Date and time the Rx is written Allergy Status
31
Rx writing
``` Full med name (generic prefered) Dose must be written Frequency (PRN must specify as well) Duration when indicated (Abx) Include reason for all PRN orders ``` Include special parameters for titration, monitoring, or administration If weight based, must include pt weight AND the calculated dose based on that weight Round to nearest dosing increment Sign with full name, title, and pager # For verbal/telephone, receiver must read back the order
32
For outpatient Rx
Have name, office address, and phone # Pts name, address, date Directions for pt/pharmacist Name of drug and quantity Refills if needed
33
Outpatient controlled Rx
Must include DEA # and CIII-V- only 5 refills or 6 months, whichever comes first C-II- no refills, hard copy only, signature required State Laws vary widely in addition to these requirements
34
DEA Class I
High abuse potential No currently accepted medical use in the US Lack accepted safety for use Heroin, marijuana
35
Class II
High abuse potential Currently accepted medical use in the US or accepted with severe restrictions Abuse may lead to severe dependence Morphine, fentanyl, mathadone
36
Class III
Less abuse potential than I and II Accepted medical use in the US Low/moderate dependence potential Buprenorphine, Lortab, Tylenol 3, Dronabinol, Testosterone
37
Class IV
Low abuse potential Accepted medical use Limited dependence potential
38
Class V
Low abuse potential Accepted medical use Limited dependence potential Codeine/Promethazine syrup, pregabalin
39
Pregnancy A
Well controlled human studies showing no increased risk of fetal abnormalities in any trimester Folic acid, B6, levothyroxine
40
Pregnancy B
Animal studies showing no harm, but no human studies OR Human studies say its ok, animal studies suggest some risk APAP, prednisone, insulin, ibuprofen (before 3rd trimester), amoxicillin
41
Pregnancy C
Animal studies have shown adverse effect and no human studies OR No animal studies and no adequate human studies Many antidepressants, carbamazepine, cipro, fluconazole
42
Pregnancy D
Human studies have shown risk, however potential benefits may still outweigh risks ETOH, lithium, phenytoin, valproic acid, tetracyclines, ACEI, most chemo
43
Pregnancy X
Animal or human studies have demonstrated increased risk of fetal problems No use in pregnant women Isotretinoin, thalidomide, misoprostil