Regulatory Mechanisms Flashcards

1
Q

What is the TBP?

A

TATA Binding Protein

binds to TATA sequence in the minor groove of DNA. Upon binding it causes a kink in DNA and the structural change helps for preinitiation complex to bind

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2
Q

What proteins are involved in the initiation of transcription? (5)

A

Transcription Factors (TFs) IID, IIB, IIF, IIE, and IIH

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3
Q

Explain the process of transcription initiation

A
  • TBP (TFIID) binds to TATA.
  • Two-second general TF (TFIIB and TFIIA) bind to TBP to form a TBP-TFIIB-TFIIA complex at the promoter.
  • TFIIA stabilises TBP DNA binding
  • TFIIB serves as bridge to pol II-TFIIF
  • TFIIF Stabilises interactions between pol and other factors (TBP) and helps attract TFIIE and TFIIH
  • TFIIE attracts and regulates TFIIH
  • TFIIH unwinds DNA, and phosphorylates Pol II tail. Phosphorylation is thought to release polymerase from its association with initiation and proceed along the template
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4
Q

Explain the process of transitioning from initiation into elongation

A
  • TFIIH - DNA helicase hydrolyses ATP and unwinds DNA surrounding start site
  • RNA pol II synthesises short lengths of RNA
  • Period of abortive initiation - refers to the repetitive synthesis and release of short nascent RNAs by RNA polymerase before complex leaves promoter.
  • Shifts to elongation when phosphate groups are added to the tail of RNA pol II - CTD (TFIIH phosphorylates Ser5 in the tail)
  • Disengages from GTFs
  • Acquires more proteins helping transcribe
  • Most of GTFs are released - available to initiate another round of transcription
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5
Q

What is a mediator complex?

A

They act as a ‘mediator’ between transcriptional activators and pol II. Binds pol II and its initiation factors and can enhance recruitment of pol II to activator bound DNA

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6
Q

How does DNA footprinting work?

A

Agents are used to degrade DNA in the presence of proteins, regions that are protected by proteins are not susceptible to chemical/enzymatic degradation
1. Synthesize or amplify your DNA of interest
2. Label it - radioactivity or fluorescence
3. Incubate with protein
4. Use agents to cleave it - DNAse or Hydroxyl radical
5. Visualize the resulting pattern alongside a sequencing ladder

Determine DNA regulatory sequence to which transcriptional activators/repressors bind by determine the missing length of DNA

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7
Q

How does Electrophoretic Mobility Shift Assay work?

A

Protein binding to a protein should change the mobility of the DNA on a gel.

If protein binds to the probe, there will be a shift in the location but there will still be some free probes
Radioactive probe is outnumbered by non-labeled competitor so the probe line is thick and there is still binding.
Mutate the DNA where we think it interacts and thus see a shift.
Antibody added to shift even farther (super shift). Validation of binding and location of binding

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8
Q

How does Chromatin Immunoprecipitation work?

A

Determine all regulatory sequences occupied by a given transcription regulator (under set of conditions/cell types). Can also be used to determine positions along genome bound by modified histones.

1. Cross link protein to DNA so that it will stay covalently attached
2. Lyse cell
3. Break DNA into small fragments (to ensure we all extract DNA that is bound)
4. Precipitate DNA using antibodies against protein.
5. Get rid of crosslink (reverse formaldehyde)and get rid of protein.
6. Amplify the precipitated DNA by PCR

DNA corresponding to those positions in the genome that were occupied by gene regulatory protein in the cells

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9
Q

How are 5’ methylated caps made?

A

Adding a 5’ cap to mRNA. After 20-40 nucleotides are synthesized, three sequential reactions occur:
1. The 5’ triphosphate of the primary transcript is cleaved
2. Guanosine residue is added via a 5’-5’ linkage
3. Cap guanosine is methylated
Added by enzyme guanyl transferase

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10
Q

What is the purpose of 5’ Caps?

A

They protect RNA from degradation (by 5’-3’ exonuclease) and promote pre-mRNA splicing. It is needed for export from the nucleus

Acts as quality control of mRNA because with caps mRNA cannot be translated (no recruitment of ribosomes)

can be phosphorylated and dephosphorylated to mediate recruitment

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11
Q

Explain polyadenylation and cleavage of mRNA

A

CTD tail recruits enzymes necessary for polyadenylation:
CPSF and CstF

RNA will be cut and the position of cut is defined by the polyA signal that’s encoded but the polyA tail is not encoded in the genome. It is added by polyA polymerase and then bound by polyA binding protein

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12
Q

Explain the process of splicing (2)

A

It is a two-step catalytic process involving the formation of intron lariat. Two transesterification reactions occur:

  • Adenine (A) residues’ 2’ OH attacks the phosphodiester bond at 5’ splice site. Cuts the RNA chain and forms 5’-to-2’ bonds (INTRON LARIAT)
  • Exposed 3’ - OH upstream of the exon attacks the phosphodiester bond at the 3’ splice site. Joins the two exons
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13
Q

How is the splice site recognised?

A

Through the partnership between proteisn using guide RNAs (ribonucleoprotein complex)

RNA guides are called U1, U2, U4, U5 and U6. These are called snRNPs (small nuclear ribonucleic proteins). Recognise 5’ splice site and branch site and help catalyse RNA cleavage and joining reactions

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14
Q

Explain how RNA guides recognise splice sites (6)

A
  1. U1 Recognises the 5’ splice site
  2. BBP and U2AF bind branch point on 3’ splice site
  3. U2 displaces BBP, binds to branch point, makes the “A” bulge
  4. U4, U5 and U6 join the complex and U6 displaces U1
  5. U4 is displaced, active site is formed and catalysis happens - catalysis refers to the first two transesterification reactions
  6. U5 brings 2 exons together, final reaction
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15
Q

What is alternative splicing?

A

process of selecting different splicing sites to form different combinations of exons.

Can be constitutive where gene locus normally produces multiple protein
Can be also used a regulatory mechanism

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16
Q

Give 2 examples of regulatory proteins used in alternative splicing

A
  • SR (serine and arginine-rich) proteins bind to exons and interact with splicing machinery to help coordinate splicing. Bind to exonic splicing enhancers
  • hnRNPs (heterogeneous ribonucleoproteins) binds to RNA but do not contact splicing machinery. They bind to motif called intronic/exonic splicing silencer
17
Q

How can mutations affect Alternative Splicing (3) ?

A
  • Normal splice site is altered to cause exon skipping
  • Normal splicing site is altered and another (cryptic) splice site is used.
  • Mutation causes a new splice site
18
Q

What are microRNAs

A

Stem-loop structures produced in a pol II transcripts (often in introns). Structure due to base pair complementarity.

Exclusively cytoplasmic acting molecules

19
Q

How do microRNA regulate mRNA?

A

MicroRNA is a guide that takes ARGO to mRNA through base complementarity. The interaction can impact by binding to other proteins and affect RNA degredation process and inhibit translation

20
Q

How are microRNA made? (3)

A
  1. microRNA is recognised by DROSHA and DGCR8 which will cut the stem-loop structure to a smaller 60-70 nt precursor
  2. Exported out of nucleus into cytoplasm
  3. Further processed by DICER1 to make 22 nt RNA of which one strand is kept in ARGO1-4

Complex referred to as RNA Induce Silencing Complex (RISC)

21
Q

What types of enzymes are involved in enzymatic processing of mRNA (2) ?

A
  • Exonucleases (degrades from ends)
  • Endonuclease (internal degredation)
22
Q

Which exonucleases work in a 5’ to 3’ direction for mRNA regulation?

A

In the nucleus,
Xrn2. Involved in termination of transcription and pre-mRNA degredation. Transcript must be uncapped for this process

In the cytoplasm,
Xrn1. Involved in mRNA degredation however the transcript must be uncapped

23
Q

In mRNA regulation, which exonucleases work in a 3’ to 5’ direction?

A

The exosome (nucleus AND cytoplasm)

Core exosome = 6 subunits, Rp6 and Rp44 active nucleases.
Uses different co-factors for different purposes

24
Q

What are the types of Nuclear RNA degredation (4) ?

A
  • Capping Error will undergo a 5’ to 3’ degradation by Xrn2
  • Introns need to be degraded. The intron lariat will first be debranched and opened up by Dbr1 then degrade from both ends
  • Termination: after cleavage of mRNAs from pol II, the remaining RNA getting transcribed will be degraded by Xrn2 (torpedo mechanism)
  • If mRNA is not package and exported properly, it is subjected to degradation in nucleus by both Xrn2 and exosome
25
Q

What are the types of Cytoplasmic RNA degredation?

A
  • Premature STOP codon (Non-sense Mediated Decay)
  • No STOP codon (NSD)
  • Stalled Ribosome (NGD)

Occurs after transcription unlike nuclear degredation

26
Q

How is a premature STOP codon fixed by Non-Sense Mediated Decay?

A

Normally, there are exon junction complexes (EJC) at sites where exons have been joined. As ribosome translates, it will kick EJC off and then stops at STOP codon

If at least one EJC is not displaced, Upf prtoeins will be recruited decapping and de-adenylating enzymes so that mRNA can be degraded by exosomes and Xrn1

27
Q

What is the relationship between 3’ UTR and mRNA stability?

A

3’ UTR is the regulatory motif that determines mRNA half-life.

Specific proteins and RNPs recognise binding sites in the 3’ UTR. Many of the binding events will affect deadenylation

polyA tail is responsible for stabilising mRNA

28
Q

What is ARE-mediated decay?

A

A mechanism leading to the rapid degredation of mRNA due to the presence of AU rich elements (AREs) in the 3’ UTR

AREs recognised by proteins such as TTP, which stimulate deadenylation, and HuR which inhibit stimulation of deadenylation

29
Q

Explain the experiment used to measure mRNA half-life

A

Use inhibitors to block transcription
- Actinomycin D: intercalates into DNA and blocks transcription and elongation
- Alpha-amanitin binds to subunit of RNA pol II

Measure the amount of mRNA at time points and find time points where mRNA amount has halved

Quantitate using either qPCR or Northern Blot