Reinforcement Flashcards
(257 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is the antigen
determinant?
a. Epitope
b. Hapten
c. Paratope
d. Fab
A
A
2
Q
CYFRA 21-1 is a maker for ___ cancer.
a. Colorectal
b. Prostate
c. Lung
d. Bladder
A
C
3
Q
Which hepatitis marker is present during active infection and indicates that patient is highly infectious?
a. Anti-HBcIgM
b. HBeAg
c. Anti-HBe
d. HBcAg
A
B
4
Q
Which virus does NOT cause transfusion-
transmitted hepatitis?
a. HGV
b. CMV
c. NANBHV
d. HAV
A
D
5
Q
Which organism is NOT generally screened before blood donation but is removed by component preparation?
a. Plasmodium
b. CMV
c. Treponema
d. HTLV
A
C
6
Q
Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA) are
primarily seen in:
a. Chronic active hepatitis
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
A
A
7
Q
Which hepatitis marker is present during active infection and indicates that patient is highly infectious?
a. Anti-HBcIgM
b. HBeAg
c. Anti-HBe
d. HBcAg
A
B
8
Q
Which the virus does NOT cause transfusion-transmitted hepatitis?
A. HGV
B. CMV
C. NANBHV
D. HAV
A
D
9
Q
Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA) are
primarily seen in:
a. Chronic active hepatitis
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
A
A
10
Q
Prozone phenomenon:
b. Optimal amounts of antigen and antibody is present
c. True negative where no antibody is detected
d. False positive due to excessive reagent antigen
A
A
11
Q
Major advantage of gel technology: a. Shorter TAT
b. Shorter incubation
c. Standardization
d. MT’s work lessened
A
C
12
Q
A patient is being transfused with a blood
product. Eight minutes later, the patient started experiencing chills. What should be done?
a. Stop the transfusion and remove the IV line b. Call the attention of the physician in charge
C. Stop the transfusion but keep the IV line with saline
D. Continue with the transfusion
A
C
13
Q
Which of the following constitutes the
membrane attack complex of the complement
system?
a. C1qrs
b. C4b2a
c. C5b678
d. C3bBb3b
A
C
14
Q
Which of the following constitutes the membrane attack complex of the complement system?
a. C1qrs
b. C4b2a
c. C5b678
d. C3bBb3b
A
C
15
Q
Who received a Nobel Prize because of discovering phagocytosis?
A. Kholer and Milstein
B. Susumo tonegawa
C. Edelman and porter
D. Ellie metchnikoff
A
D
16
Q
What is the most common bacterial contaminant in blood products?
a. S. liquefaciens
b. S. epidermidis
c. Y. enterocolitica
d. B. cereus
A
C
17
Q
The first recorded blood transfusion in history is between this head of state and three donor.
a. Pope John Paul I
b. Pope Peter XV
c. Pope Pius VII
d. Pope Innocent XVI
A
C
18
Q
This is known as the marker Hepatitis B infectivity.
a. HBsAg
b. HBeAg
c. HBcAg
d. None of the above
A
B
19
Q
Antibody determinant
a. Paratope
b. Epitope
c. Hepatope
d. Kininogen
A
A
20
Q
Which of the following is the most common immunodeficiency?
a. Severe combined immunodeficiency
b. Selective IgA deficiency
c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
d. Common variable immunodeficiency
A
B
21
Q
The presence of HLA B27 is highly associated
with what disease?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Arthritic spondylitis
c. Grave’s disease
d. SLE
A
B
22
Q
CD8
a. Helper cell
b. Cytotoxic cell
c. Null cell
d. Natural killer cell
A
B
23
Q
Major advantage of gel technology:
A. Decreased sample volume
B. Improved productivity
C. Enhanced sensitivity
D. Standardization
A
C
24
Q
Agglutination reaction: “Several large clumps with clear background”
a. 4+
b. 3+
c. 2+
d. 1+
A
B
25
A donor was deferred by the physician due to the presence of bluish purple areas under the skin of the donor. This is typical of:
a. Syphilis
b. Herpes simplex
c. Candidiasis
d. Kaposi’s sarcoma
D
26
Year of discovery of the T cell receptor gene:
a. 1964
b. 1974
c. 1984
d. 1994
C
27
Percentage of B cells present in the circulation
a. 2-5%
b. 5-10%
c. 10-15%
d. 75-85%
C
28
C3b
a. Anaphylatoxin
b. Opsonin
c. Chemotaxin
d. Cytokine
B
29
What is the most common complement component deficiency?
a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. C4
B
30
Which of the following is the most common congenital immonudeficiency?
a. Severe combined immonudeficiency
b. Selective IgA deficiency
c. X-linkedagammaglobulinemia
d. Common variable immunodeficiency
B
31
Which disease might be indicated by
antibodies to smooth muscle?
a. Chronic active hepatitis
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
d. Myasthenia gravis
A
32
The most common fungal infection for AIDS patients is caused by:
a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Blastomycesdermatitidis
d. Cryptosporidium parvum
B
33
This dengue antigen has been detected in the serum of dengue virus infected patients as early as 1-day post onset of symptoms (DPO), and up to 18 DPO.
a. NS1
b. C
c. E
d. prM
A
34
These are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that associated with tumors, but that are absent in normal adult tissue:
a. Oncogenes c. Sarcoma
b. Oncofetal antigens d. Tumor specific Ag
B
35
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a/an ___ assay.
a. Chemical
b. Molecular
c. Enzymatic
d. Biologic
B
36
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
(RFLP) is a/an ___ assay. a. Chemical
b. Molecular
c. Enzymatic
d. Biologic
B
37
Hives and itching are under what type of
hypersensitivity?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. TypeIII
d. Type IV
A
38
Gamma counter uses these substances as labels:
a. Isotopes
b. Fluorochromes
c. Enzymes
d. Immune complexes
A
39
Treponemapallidum immobilization (TPI) test: 10% treponemes are immobilized. Interpret the result.
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Doubtful
d. Indeterminate
B
40
When reading for a slide agglutination for
Salmonella, macroscopic agglutination is
graded as 25%. Interpret. a. Non-reactive
b. Negative
c. Positive
d. 1+
D
41
Other name for “HCV RNA”:
a. Viral clade
b. Surface antigen
c. Viralload
d. Core antigen
C
42
Not included as a Hepatitis B serologic marker:
a. HBcAg
b. HBeAg
c. Anti-HBeAg
d. Anti-HBcAg
A
43
Autoimmune diseases are mostly associated with which class of HLA?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
B
44
Which of the following activates both T and B
cells?
a. Pokeweed mitogen
b. Lipopolysaccharide
c. ConcanavalinA
d. Phytohemagglutinin
A
45
It is used as the receptor for the sheep red blood cells (sRBC) for e-rosette assay:
a. CD2
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD12
A
46
Chemokines are produced from:
a. many types of cells
b. T cells
c. B cells
d. None of the above
A
47
Cytokines are released by:
a. T& B cells
b. macrophages, T cells, B cells
c. T cells & macrophages
d.NKcells
B
48
Large granular lymphocytes
a. NK cells
c. T cells
b. B cells
d. All of the above
A
49
Confirmatory test for Qualitative VDRL
A. FTA –ABS
B.Quantitative VDRL
C.Nucleic acid test (NAT)
D. Treponemal Culture
B
50
RPR positive blood bag, what to do next?
A. Do confirmatory test
B.Discard blood bag
C.Repeat the test
D. Further refrigerate blood bag
B
51
POC test except?
A. EIA
B.Immunochromatography
C.Sandwich method
D. NAT
D
52
Phagocytosis was discovered by
A. Jules Bordet
B.Rosalyn Yallow
C.ElieMitchinokoff
D. BarreSinoussi
C
53
Uses antibody as its carrier and agglutination is observed if antigen is present
A. Direct agglutination
B.Coagglutination
C.Passive
D. Reverse passive
D
54
Infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae gives a high titer of:
A. Anti- I
B.Anti- i
C.Anti-P
D. Anti-PPIPk
A
55
What is the screening test for HIV?
A. RIA
B.EIA
C.Either
D. Neither
C
56
HIV positive if:
A. 1 ELISA/ 2 Western Blot (positive)
B.2 ELISA/ 2 Western Blot (positive)
C.2 ELISA/ 1 Western Blot (positive)
D. 1 ELISA/ 2 Western Blot (positive)
C
57
What was the test developed by the Venereal Disease Research Laboratory?
A. RPR
B.VDRL
C.FTA ABS
D. All of the above
B
58
Found in SLE:
a. HLA-DR
b. HLA-DR2
c. HLA-DR3
d. HLA-DR4
B
59
How long is the normal transfusion takes place? A. 6 hrs
B. 4 hrs
C. 3 hrs
D. 5 hrs
B
60
Which of the ff Noble prize winners focused on the research concerning production of
monoclonal Abs?
A. Jules Bordet
B. SusumoTonegawa
C. George Kohler and Cesar Milstein
D. Paul Ehrlich
C
61
Nephelometry is used to measure?
A. Amino acids
B. Antigens
C. Antibodies
D. Ag-Ab complexes
C
62
Name given to system using bacteria as the inert particles to which Ab is attached
A. flocculation
B. Particle immunoassay
C. IFA
D. coagglutination
D
63
MalaQuick Standby Malaria Test detects:
A. Parasitic LDH
B. Histidine Rich protein 2
C. Schuffner dot antigens
D. P. vivax and P. ovale only
B
64
CEA is a tumor marker associated with:
A. Breast adenocarcinoma
B. Colorectal cancer
C. Medullary thyroid cancer
D. Urinary bladder cancer
B
65
Anti-microsomal antibodies are found in:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. SLE
C. thyroiditis
D. Pernicious anemia
C
66
Serological identity, as shown by smooth curve line, is seen on what precipitation reaction?
A. RID
B. Ouchterlony Double Diffusion
C. Laurell technique
D. Immunoelectrophoresis
B
67
Which of the ff bands, when present in at least two bands, confirm positive for HIV?
A. p24
B.gp41
C.gp120/160
D. All of the above
D
68
HLA-B27 is seen on what condition?
A. SLE
B. RA
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Sjogren’s syndrome
C
69
A titer of 80 in RF latex test means?
A. positive
B. weakly positive
C. negative
D. cannot be determined
A
70
Blood group Lutheran is derived from
A. Lutheran minister
B. 1 family with lutheran antigen
C. 1 donor named luteran
D. Martin Luther
C
71
Function of IL-8
A. Stimulate blood cells
B. Prevents apoptosis
C. Inflammation
D. Anti-inflammation
C
72
Temperature of BB refrigerator
A. 2-4’F
B. 1-2’F
C. 1-6’C
D. 1-10’C
C
73
Replaces minor crossmatch
A. DAT
B. Immediate spin
C. Antibody screen
D. Serum typing
C
74
Genetic differences in the antibody
A. ElieMetchinikoff
B. Susumu Tonegawa
C. Karl Landsteiner
D. Paul Ehrlich
B
75
Helper T cells
A. CD4+
B. CD8+
C. CD3+
D. CD2+
A
76
C2 deficiency
A. Neisseria syndrome
B. Autoimmune disorder
C. HANE
D. None of the above
B
77
What is an allogeneic blood?
A. Blood from children
B. Blood from relative
C. Blood from an individual used for transfusion for another individual
D. None
C
78
What is the blood type of a patient w/ acquired B phenomenon?
A. Group A
B. Group B
C. Group C
D. Group D
A
79
Most common cause of severe immediate HTR A. Rh
B. ABO
C. Kidd
D. Lewis
B
80
Rh phenotype of Asian
A. DCe
B. DcE
C. DCE
D. dce
A
81
What are neocytes?
A. RBCs from a newborn
B. RBCs from cord blood
C. RBCs that are released from BM to the circulation
D. RBCs from fetus
C
82
Autoantibody in primary biliary cirrhosis
A. anti-microsomal
B. Anti-mitochondria
C. Anti-smooth muscle
D. Anti-parietal
B
83
Which immunoglobulin is typically found in
external secretions such as saliva and tears?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM
A
84
Which of the following substances gain antigenicity only when coupled to a protein carrier?
a. Agglutinins
b. Agglutinogens
c. Haptens
d. Opsonins
C
85
Which of the following is the visible result of an antigen-antibody reaction between a soluble antigen and its specific antibody?
a. Sensitization
b. Precipitation
c. Agglutination
d. Complement fixation
B
86
Which of the following antibodies result from
exposure to antigenic material from another species?
a. Heteroantibodies
b. Alloantibodies
c. Isoantibodies
d. More than one of the above
A
87
Which of the following is true about immunoglobulins?
a. Produced by T lymphocytes
b. Produced by B lymphocytes thru plasma
cells
c. Purified (cloned) from a multiple cell
d. Derived from the thymus and influenced
by thymic hormones
B
88
Which of the following is used to confirm a
positive screening result in testing a patient for HIV antibody?
a. ELISA
b. Immunofluorescent assay
c. Western blot
d. Northern blot
C
89
Which of the following immunoglobulins can cross the placenta and therefore provides passive immunity to the infant for the first few months of life?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgM
C
90
Which of the following immunoglobulins is found in the greatest amounts in the serum but is the smallest in size?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgM
C
91
When the antigen-antibody complex occurs, agglutination takes place only if the antigen:
a. Is a particle such as a bacterium or blood cell
b. Is soluble
c. Both of the above
d. Neither of the above
A
92
The rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis cannot be associated with which immunoglobulin?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d.All of the above
D
93
The most specific assays for human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) use antibody reagents against which subunit of hCG?
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. Chorionic
B
94
The heterophil antibody produced in infectious mononucleosis is of which immunoglobulin class?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgM
D
95
Which of the following is not a characteristic of heterophil antibodies produced in infectious mononucleosis?
a. Absorbed by guinea pig kidney cells
b.Not absorbed by guinea pig kidney cells
c. Absorbed by beef red cells
d.React with horse, ox, and sheep red cells
A
96
Which of the following does not characterize T- lymphocyte function?
a. Produce and secrete immunoglobulins
b.Develop killer cells that produce cytokines
c. Suppress the immune response
d.Develop helper cells
A
97
The primary requirement for a substance to be an antigen in a particular individual is that it must:
a. Have a large molecular weight b.Be composed of protein and
polysaccharide
c. Be different from “self”
d.Have several different combining sites
C
98
In certain disease states, what is the process in which antibodies are made to self- antigens?
a. Autoimmune disease
b. Infection
c. Inflammatory response
d. Phagocytosis
A
99
T lymphocytes that poses the Cd8 surface marker mediate which of the following T-cell functions?
A. Delayed type hypersensitivity
B. Regulatory
C. Cytotoxic
D. Helper
C
100
Delayed hypersensitivity may be induced by:
A. Contact sensitivity to inorganic chemicals
B. Transfusion reaction
C. Anaphylactic reaction
D. Bacterial septicemia
A
101
The most rapid immediate hypersensitivity reaction is associated with:
a. transfusion
b. anaphylaxis
c. contact dermatitis
d. serum sickness
B
102
C3b and Fc receptors are present on:
a. B lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. B lymphocytes and monocytes
d. neither B lymphocytes and
monocytes
C
103
Which of the following mediators is released
during T-cell activation?
a. immnunoglobulins
b. thymosin
c. serotonin
d. cytokines
D
104
A patient with a B cell deficiency will most likely exhibit.
A. Decreased phagocytosis
B. Increased bacterial infections
C. Decreased complement levels
D. Increased complement levels
B
105
Tumor markers found in the circulation are
most frequently measured by:
a. immunoassays
b. thin-layer chromatography
c. high-pressure liquid chromatography
d. colorimetry
A
106
T lymphocytes are incapable of functioning
a. cytotoxic cells
b. helper cells
c. phagocytic cells
d. regulatory cells
C
107
Nonspecific killing of tumor cells is thru:
a. cytotoxic T cells
b. helper T cells
c. natural killer cells
d. antibody and complements
C
108
Which test is used to evaluate the cellular immune system in a patient?
b. determination of isohemagglutinintiter
c. immunoelectrophoresis of serum
d. measurement of anti-HBsAg after immunozation
A
109
Which of the following is used to detect allergen specific IgE?
a. RIST
b. IEP
c. RAST
d. CRP
C
110
Hereditary deficiency of late complement components (C5, C6, C7 and C8) can be associated with which of the following conditions?
a. pneumococcal septicemia
b. small bowel obstruction
c. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. A systemic gonococcal infection if exposed
D
111
Potent chemotactic activity is associated with which of the following components of the complement system:
a. C1q
b. C5a
c. C3b
d. IgG
B
112
Which of the following is the most common humoral immune deficiency disease?
a. Brutonagammaglobulinemia
b. IgG deficiency
c. selective IgA deficiency
d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
C
113
A monoclonal spike of IgG, Bence Jones prteinuria, and bone pain are usually associated with:
a. Burkitt lymphoma
b. Bruton disease
c. severe combined immunodeficiency
disease
d. multiple myeloma
D
114
The serological test that can be modified to selectively detect only specific IgM antibody in untreated serum is:
a. ouchterlony
b. enzyme immunoassay
c. hemagglutination inhibition
d. passive hemagglutination
B
115
A single, reliable screening test for detecting neonatal infection in the absence of clinical signs
a. serum immunoelectrophoresis
b. differential leukocyte count
c. CD4 cell counts
D. Quantitative serum IgM determination
D
116
After penicillin injection, a patient rapidly develops respiratory distress, vomiting and hives. This reaction is primarily mediated by:
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
D
117
Which of the following activities is associated with C3b?
a. opsonization
b. anaphylaxis
c. vasoconstriction
d. chemotaxis
A
118
Macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria is enhanced by which of the following:
a. opsonin
b. antigen
c. hapten
d. secretory piece
A
119
Which class of immunoglobulin is thought to function as an antigenic receptor site on the surface of immature B lympocytes?
a. IgD
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgG
A
120
Antibodies to which of the following immunoglobulins is known to have produced anaphylactic reactions following blood transfusion?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG
A
121
Polyclonal B cell activation:
a. inhibits antibody production
b. requires the participation of T helper
cells
c. results from the activation of suppresor T cells
d. can induce autoantibody production
D
122
Treatment of IgG with papain results in how many fragments from each immunoglobulin molecule?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
B
123
A bacterial protein used to bind human immunoglobulins is:
a. HAV antibody, IgA type
b. Escherichia coli protein C
c. staphylococcal protein A
d. HAV antibody, IgG type
C
124
The following procedure has been routinely used for detection of hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) because of its high level of sensitivity:
a. hemagglutination
b. counterimmunoelectrophoresis
c. radial immunodiffusion
d. ELISA
D
125
The most important use of nontreponemal antibody (NTA) test alone is in:
a. establishing the diagnosis of acute active syphilis
b. establishing the diagnosis of chronic syphilis
c. evaluating the success of therapy
d. determining the prevalence of disease in the general population
C
126
Immunoassay are based on the principle of:
a. separation of bound and free analyte
B. Antibody recognition of homologous antigen
c. protein binding to isotopes
d. production of antibodies against
drugs
B
127
Which of the following is most useful in
establishing a diagnosis in the convalescence phase of a viral infection?
a. slide culture
b. serological techniques
c. shell vial
d. culture on McCoy media
B
128
The enzyme control tube in an ASO hemolytic assay exhibits no cell lysis. What is the most likely explanation for this?
a. incorrect pH of buffer
b. low ionic strength buffer
c. oxidation of the enzyme
d. reduction of the enzyme
C
129
Cholesterol is added to the antigen used in flocculation tests for syphilis to:
a. destroy tissue impurities present in the alcoholic beef heart extract
b. sensitize the sheep RBCs
c. decrease specificty of the antigen
d. increase sensitivity of the antigen
D
130
A substrate is first exposed to a patient’s serum, then after washing, anti-human immunoglobulin labeled with a fluorochrome is added. The procedure described is:
a. fluorescent quenching
b. direct fluorescence
c. indirect fluorescence
d. none of the above
C
131
In the indirect immunofluorescence method of antibody detection in patient serum, the labeled antibody is:
A. Human anti-goat immunoglobulin
B. rheumatoid factor
C. Goat anti-human immunoglobulin
D. Complement
C
132
The specificity of an immunoassay is determined by the:
a. label used on the antigen
b. method used to seperate the bound
from free antigen
c. antibody used in the assay
d. concentration of unlabeled antigen
C
133
Is assessing the usefulness of a new laboratory test, sensitivity is defined as the percentage of:
a. positive specimens correctly
identified
b. false-positive specimens
c. negative specimens correctly identified
d. false-negative specimens
A
134
A 25-year old woman is seen by a physician because of Raynaud phenomenon, myalgias, arthralgias and difficulty in swallowing. There is no evidence of renal disease. An ANA titer is 1:5120 with a speckled pattern with mitotic. Which of the following are also likely to be found in this patient?
a. high-level nDNA antibody and a low CH50 level
b. high-level Sm antibody
c. high-titer rheumatoid factor
d. High-level ribonucleoprotein (RNP) antibody
D
135
In primary biliary cirrhosis, which of the following antibodies is seen in high titers?
a. antimitochondrial
b. anti-smooth muscle
c. anti-DNA
d. anti-perietal cell
A
136
High titers of antimicrosomal antibodies are most often found in:
a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. systemic lupus erythematosus
c. chronic hapatitis
d. thyroid disease
D
137
Rheumatoid factors are immunoglobulins with specificity for allotypic determinants located on the:
a. Fc fragment of IgG
b. Fab fragment of IgG
c. J chain of IgM
d. secretory of component of IgA
A
138
Which of the following is the most sensitive and appropriate method for the detection of rheumatoid factor?
a. nephelometry
b. immunofixation electrophoresis c. immunoflourescence
d. manual latex agglutination
A
139
Autoantibodies in the absence of Sm are found in patients with:
a. mixed connective tissue disease
b. systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Crohn disease
d. Multiple myeloma
A
140
Which of the following is decreased in serum during the active stages of systemic lupus erythematosus?
a. anti-nuclear antibody
b. immune complexes
c. complement (C3)
d. anti-DNA
C
141
In the anti-double-stranded DNA procedure, the antigen most commonly utilized is:
a. rat stomach tissue
b. mouse kidney tissue
c. Crithidialucilae
d. Toxoplasma gondii
C
142
Interferon can be produced by which of the following?
a. macrophages
b. T lymphocytes
c. virus-infected cells
d. all of the above
A
143
When a precipitation reaction is converted to agglutination by increasing the size of the “antigen” particles, the test is then referred to as
a. direct agglutination
b. optimal agglutination
c. indirect (passive)agglutination
d. prozone reaction
C
144
What is the purpose of anti-sheep hemolysin in a complement fixation test?
a. sensitizes sheep red blood cells
b. hemolyzes sheep red blood cells
c. agglutinates sheep red blood cells
d. neutralizes patient antibody
A
145
In the VDRL test, a zonal reaction usually appears as which of the following results?
a. reactive
b. non-reactive
c. weakly reactive
d. any of the above
C
146
The quantitative VDRL test is performed on all
sera in which the qualitative VDRL test is
a. Nonreactive
b. Reactive
c. Weakly reactive
d. Either reactive or weakly reactive
D
147
The quantitative VDRL test is performed on all
sera in which the qualitative VDRL test is
a. Nonreactive
b. Reactive
c. Weakly reactive
d. Either reactive or weakly reactive
D
148
The Treponemapallidum Immobilization (TPI) test requires
a. reagin
b. an extract of a pathogenic terponeme
c. Treponemapallidum fixed on a slide
d. living Treponemapallidum
D
149
Which of the following serves as the absorbent in the Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Test- Absorbed (FTA-ABS) test?
a. Reiter’s treponema
b. Treponema microdentium
c. Treponema pallidum, Nichols strains
d. Treponema pertenue
A
150
The fluorescein-antihuman gamma globulin used in the FTA-ABS test
a. makes the antigen-antibody reaction
visible
b. is added to the serum before the antigen
is added
c. is added to the antigen before the serum
is added
d. makes the antibody visible
A
151
The reaction on DNA-methyl green substrates when testing for the presence of anti-DNase (anti- streptodomase) are
a. blue (+) yellow (-)
b. red (+) orange (-)
c. green (+) colorless (-)
d. Purple (+) yellow (-)
C
152
Brucellaabortus will cross-react with antibodies of?
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Franciscella tularensis
D
153
Which of the following methods has a high degree of specificity when typing the herpes simplex virus (HSV)?
a. direct fluorescent antibody
b. cell culture
c. Enzyme-linked immunoassay (ELISA)
d. cell typing
C
154
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)infection can be
diagnosed by which of the following serological tests?
a. IgM and IgG antibody testing
b. cell culture
c. direct fluorescent antibody test
d. indirect human globulin test
A
155
Which of the following is a good screening test for determining immunity to the rubella virus?
a. Direct agglutination
b. Complement fixation
c. IgG antibody test
d. IgM antibody test
C
156
Blood donors should be routinely tested for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and
a. Varicella zoster virus
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Rubella virus
C
157
The best serological method used to test for a rubella virus infection is the
a. complement fixation test
b. direct fluorescent antibody test
c. indirect fluorescent antibody test
d. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test
D
158
A positive anti-ribonucleoprotein (anti-RNP) in the antinuclear antibody group is suggestive of which autoimmune disease?
a. mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)
b. rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
c. scleroderma
d. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
A
159
A positive anti-ribonucleoprotein (anti-RNP) in the antinuclear antibody group is suggestive of which autoimmune disease?
a. mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD)
b. rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
c. scleroderma
d. systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
A
160
What is the most common complement deficiency?
a) C2
b) C3
c) C4
d) C1INH
A
161
C3 convertase in classical pathway
a) C4b2a
b) C3bBb
c) C4b2a3b
d) C3bBb3b
A
162
Which of the following refers to the “reaginic” antibody?
a) IgA
b) IgG
c) IgM
d) IgE
D
163
Which of the following statements is false about an anamnestic response versus a primary response?
A. Has a shorter lag phase
B. Has a longer plateau
C. Antibodies decline more gradually
D. IgG antibodies predominate
C
164
Antigen is to antibody, epitope is to__
a) antigenic determinant
b) hapten
c) Fab
d) TCR
C
165
Diapedesis is described as
A. migration of phagocytes along blood vessel
wall
B. attraction of phagocytes to site of injury
C. cell movement to a certain direction under
stimulation of chemical substance
D. engulfment of foreign substance
A
166
Which class of antigens is necessary antigen recognition by CD4 positive T cells?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen recognition
B
167
Which IgG subclass is MOST efficient at
crossing placenta?
a) IgG1
b) IgG2
c) IgG3
d) IgG4
A
168
A graft between genetically unidentical individual of the same species?
A. Autograft
B. Isograft
C. Allograft
D. Xenograft
C
169
Considered to be non self
A. antigen
B. immunogen
C. antibody
D. hapten
B
170
Genetic differences in the antibody
a. ElieMetchinikoff
B. Susumu Tonegawa
C. Karl Landsteiner
D. Paul ehrlich
B
171
Which of the following complement components i a strong chemotactic factor as well as strong anaphylatoxin?
A. C3a
B. C3b
C. C5a
D. C4a
C
172
Which of the following is considered to be 2nd line of defense against pathogens?
A. intact skin
B. cell mediated immunity
C. phagocytosis
D. humoral immunity
C
173
Phagocytic cells EXCEPT:
A. lymphocytes
B. eosinophils
C. monocytes
D. neutrophils
A
174
Which method can b used to cross-match recipients and organ donors for HLA-D compatibility?
A. Flow cytometry
B. Primed lymphocyte test
C. Mixed lymphocyte culture
D. Restriction fragment length polymorphism
C
175
Found to be seen in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE):
a) decreased C1, C2
b) high titers of DNA antibody
c) marked decrease in serum CH50
d) all of the above
D
176
Which of the following heterophile Abs is adsorbed only by beef erythrocytes?
a) Forssman
b) Serum sickness
c) Infectious mononucleosis
d) Neurosyphilis
C
177
MalaQuick test Standby test detects:
a) Parasitic LDH
b) Histidine rich protein 2
c) Schuffner dot antigens
d) P. vivax and P. ovale only
B
178
In heterophile differential test, absorption
will _________ agglutination.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) no effect
d) dissolve
B
179
Serologic profile of chronic active hepatitis due to HBV
a) HBs Ag (+), total anti-HBc (+), HBe Ag (+)
b) HBs Ag (+), total anti-HBc (+), anti-HBe (+)
c) HBs Ag (-), anti-HBcIgM (+), antiHBs (-)
d) HBs Ag (-), anti-HBc (+), anti-HBe (+)
A
180
Which of the following bands, when present in at least two bands, confirm positive for HIV?
a) p24
b) gp 41
c) gp 120/160
d) all of the above
D
181
Found in RA:
A. HLA-DR
B. HLA-DR2
C. HLA-DR3
D. HLA-DR4
D
182
HLA-B8 is found in:
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Hashimoto’s
C. Addison’s
D. Crohn’s
A
183
A titer of 20 in RF latex test means?
A. positive
B. weakly positive
C. negative
D. cannot be determined
A
184
What is the most common complement deficiency?
A. C2
B. C3
C. C4
D. C1INH
B
185
C3 convertase in classical pathway
A. C4b2a
B. C3bBb
C. C4b2a3b
D. C3bBb3b
A
186
Alfred Nisonoff used the enzyme pepsin to obtain evidences on structure of immunoglobulins. The enzyme can be used cleaves antibodies into?
A. 2Fab, 1Fc
B.1 F(ab)2 and 1 Fc’
C.1Fab and 1Fc
D. 1Fab and 1Fc’
C
187
Antibodies
A. are synthesized and secreted by both B and T cells
B. bind to several different epitopes simultaneously
C. contain four polypeptides different light
chain polypeptides
D. Tag antigens for destruction and removal
D
188
Antigen is to antibody, epitope is to__
A. antigenic determinant
B. hapten
C. Fab
D. TCR
C
189
Diapedesis is described as
A. Migration of phagocytes along blood vessel wall
B. attraction of phagocytes to site of injury
C. cell movement to a certain direction under
stimulation of chemical substance
D. engulfment of foreign substance
A
190
Diapedesis is described as
A. Migration of phagocytes along blood vessel wall
B. attraction of phagocytes to site of injury
C. cell movement to a certain direction under
stimulation of chemical substance
D. engulfment of foreign substance
A
191
Which class of antigens is necessary for
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. No MHC molecule is necessary for antigen
recognition
B
192
Which IgG subclass is MOST efficient at
crossing placenta?
A. IgG1
B. IgG2
C. IgG3
D. IgG4
A
193
A graft between genetically unidentical individual of the same species
A. autograft
B. isograft
C. allograft
D. Xenograft
C
194
Considered to be non self
A. antigen
B. immunogen
C. antibody
D. hapten
B
195
Which of the following complement components is a strong chemotactic factor as well as strong anaphylatoxin?
A. C3a
B. C3b
C. C5a
D. C4a
C
196
Which of the following complement components is a strong chemotactic factor as well as strong anaphylatoxin?
A. C3a
B. C3b
C. C5a
D. C4a
C
197
Which one of the following properties of antibodies is NOT dependent on the structure of the heavy chain constant region?
A. Ability to cross placenta
B. Affinity for antigen
C. Isotype class
D. Ability to fix complement
B
198
Which of the following is considered to be
2nd line of defense against pathogens?
A. intact skin
B. cell mediated immunity
C. Phagocytosis
D. Humoral immunity
C
199
For an antibody-coated antigen to be
phagocytized, what part of the antibody molecule fits into a receptor on the phagocytic cell?
A. Fab region
B. Hinge region
C. Variable region
D. Fc region
D
200
Which class of HLA antigens is found on antigen presenting cells?
A. HLA-A
B. HLA-B
C. HLA-C
D. HLA-D
D
201
It is important to note that when an infant is born, level of specific antibody of the following class are used to indicate neonatal infection
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD
B
202
Which method can be used to cross-match recipients and organ donors for HLA-D compatibility?
A. Flow cytometry
B. Primed lymphocyte test
C. Mixed lymphocyte culture
D. Restriction fragment length polymorphism
C
203
Found to be seen in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE):
A. decreased C1, C2
B. high titers of DNA antibody
C. marked decrease in serum CH50
D. All of the above
D
204
First to spread typhoid fever:
A. WIDAL
B. ROSALYN
C. MARY
D. JULES
C
205
Autoantibody which binds to the Fc portion of IgG molecule
A. anti-RNA
B. anti-nuclear antibody
C. rheumatoid factor
D. anti-DNA antibody
C
206
Which of the following heterophile Abs is adsorbed only by beef erythrocytes?
A. Forssman
B. Serum sickness
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Neurosyphilis
C
207
In the anti-double stranded DNA procedure, the antigen most commonly utilized is:
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Crithidialucilae
C. mousekidneytissue
D. rat stomach tissue
B
208
Serologic test that employs Phase Contrast microscope:
A. FTA-ABS
B. Anti-dsDNA test
C. Mixed Lymphocyte Culture test
D. Microlymphocytotoxicity test
D
209
HIV Viral load test
A. ELISA
B. Western Blot
C. IFAT
D. PCR
D
210
Associated with 10% post transfusion hepatitis.
A. HAV
B. C. HCV
C. HBV
D. HDV
C
211
HLA type associated with multiple sclerosis
A. HLA- B7
C. HLA-DR2
B. HLA- B8
D. HLA DR4
A
212
Transfusion transmitted diseases hence homologous donor testing are required EXCEPT
a. CMV
b. YFV
c. HTLV1 and HTLV 2
d. WNV
B
213
In HAI for Rubella antibodies, a titer of 8 is considered
a. positive
b. reactivated
c. negative
d. recovery
A
214
Type IV HPS reaction includes
a. tuberculin skin test
b. urticarial and contact dermatitis
c. contact dermatitis
d. tuberculin &contact dermatitis
D
215
Has a role in opsonization and ADCC
a. IgM
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgA
C
216
IgE binds to the Fc portion of
a. mast cells
b. precursor cells
c. macrophage
d. PMN
A
217
CD4 positive cells EXCEPT
a. TDTH cells
b. TC
c. TS
d. all of the above
A
218
Most specific assay for HCV
a. EIA
b. HCV RNA
c. western Blot
d. RIBA
B
219
Endotheliaal leukocytes adhesion molecule (ELAM-1) plays a role in :
a. diapedesis
b. complement binding
c. chemotaxis
d. opsonization
A
220
In flow cytometry, fluorescence is detected and collected by sensors placed at
a. 45’C
b. 95’C
c. 90’C
d. 180’C
C
221
Gundersen test is for
a. treponemacidalAb
b. leptospiralAb
c. borreliacidalAb
d. brucellocidal AB
C
222
Marker of low level HBV carrier
a. Hbs Ag
b. anti-HBcIgM
c. anti-HBs
d. anti-HBe
D
223
Cytotoxic reactions are characterized by interaction of:
A. IgG to cell bound antigen
B. IgM or IgG to cell bound antigen
C. IgM to soluble antigen
D. IgG to soluble antigen
B
224
A highly specific indicator for rheumatoid arthritis
A. rheumatoid factor
B. C reactive protein
C. cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody
D. hypocomplementia
C
225
Anti-microsomal antibodies (+)
A. SLE
B. RA
C. Chronic hepatitis
D. Hashimoto’s disease
D
226
Arrange the steps of phagocytosis in the proper order
1. initiation and chemotaxis
2. digestion and destruction
3. engulfment
4. adherence
5. phagosome formation 6. fusion (phagolysosome)
A. 1-3-4-5-6-2
C. 1-4-3-5-6-2
B. 1-3-5-6-2-4
D. 1-4-3-6-5-2
C
227
Which type of cancer is associated with the highest level of Nuclear matrix protein (NMP)?
A. Ovarian cancer
B. Urinary bladder cancer
C. Testicular cancer
D. Breast cancer
B
228
For the PCR reaction to take place, one must provide:
A. Oligonucelotide primer
B. Sample DNA
C. DNA polymerase
D. All of the above
D
229
The production of antibodies by B cells is turned off by?
A. suppressor cells
B. cytotoxic cells
C. B lymphocytes
D. helper T cells
A
230
PNH is associated with what complement component?
A. C2
B. DAF
C. C3
D. C1 INH
B
231
Who constructed the structure of antibodies?
A. ElieMitchnikoff
C. Karry Mullis
B. Porter and Endelman
D. SusumoTonegawa
B
232
CEA is marker for what cancer?
a. gastrointestinal
b. breast cancer
c. hepatocellular
d. ovarian cancer
A
233
Staining pattern of CREST syndrome in indirect fluorescent antibody test
a. centromere
b. nucleolar
c. speckled
d. peripheral
A
234
What stage of T cells development releases lymphokines?
a. activated T cells
b. sensitized T cells
c. mature T cells
d. plasma cells
B
235
Inadequate washing causes
a. false positive
b. either
c. false negative
d. neither
C
236
LE like syndrome is seen in what compliment deficiencies?
a. C1
b. C8
c. C5
d. C7
A
237
Which of the following hepatitis virus belongs to flaviviridae family?
a. HAV
b. HCV
c. HBV
d. HCV and HGV
D
238
An employee who receives an accidental needle-stick should immediately
a. Apply sodium hypochlorite to the area
b. Notify a supervisor
c. Receive HIV prophylaxis
d. Receive a hepatitis B booster shot
B
239
How do heterogeneous assays differ from homogeneous assays?
a. Heterogenous assays require a separation step
b. Heterogeneous assays are easier to perform than homogeneous assays
c. The concentration of patient analyte is directly proportional to bound label in homogeneous assays
d. Homogeneous assays are more sensitive than heterogeneous ones.
A
240
Which of the following best characterizes chemiluminescent assays?
a. Only the antigen can be labeled
b. Tasts can be read manually
c. These are only homogeneous assays
d. A chemical oxidized to produce light
D
241
The serum of an individual who received all doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should contain
a) Anti-HBs
b) Anti-HBe
c) Anti-HBc
d) All of the above
A
242
The most common cause of congenital infections is
a) CMV
b) Rubella
c) VZV
d) HTLV-1
A
243
A double positive result on a screening test for HTLV-III antibody
a) Is highly specific for HTLV-I infection
b) Should be followed by PCR
c) Must be confirmed by Western blot
d) Must be confirmed by viral culture
C
244
HIV virions bind to host T cells through which receptors?
a) CD4 and CD8
b) CD4 and the IL-2 receptor
c) CD4 and CXCR4
d) CD8 and CCR2
C
245
Enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is called
A. opsonization
B. agglutination
C. solubilization
D. chemotaxis
A
246
Which of the following peripheral blood cells plays a key role in killing of parasites?
a. Neutrophils
b. Monocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Eosinophils
D
247
The immune mechanism of this hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by the T- cells’ release of cytokines.
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV
D
248
Who among the following was the first to transfuse blood from animals to humans?
a. Jean Baptiste Denis
b. Richard Lower
c. James Blundell
d. Edward Lindemann
A
249
Function of IL-8
A. Stimulate blood cells
B. Prevents apoptosis
C. Inflammation
D. Anti-inflammation
C
250
CD34
A. HSC
B. B cells
C. T cells
D. Megakaryoctes
A
251
Part of the light chains of MHC class I.
a. acid-1-glycoprotein
b. beta-2-microglobulin
c. serum amyloid A
d. alpha-2-macroglobulin
D
252
Fluorescent label attached to an antibody against the antigen-antibody complex
a. Indirect
b. Direct
c. Inhibition
d. NOTA
A
253
Indicates active infection and infectious state:
a. HBs Ag
b. HBe Ag
c. anti-HBc
d. anti-HBe
B
254
Fluoroscent stained specimens are visualized using what type of microscope?
a. brightfield
b. darkfield
c. phase contrast
d. polarizing
D
255
Part of antibody which binds foreign substance: a. Epitope
b. Paratope
c. Hinge region
d. Fc region
B
256
This is where the antibody binds to the antigen.
a. Carrier
b. Schlepper
c. Deteminant
d. Fab region
D
257
Which among the following disease is associated with anti-dsDNA and anti-phospholipid antibodies?
A. SLE
B. MM
C. MS
D. RA
A
