Release To Service Flashcards
(152 cards)
1
Q
What actions should you take if icing is encountered?
A
Climb or descend out of the icing conditions using the highest practical engine RPM.
2
Q
What must you do before landing if icing has been encountered?
A
Check the engine response.
3
Q
What configuration limits are in place in airframe icing conditions?
A
Use of full flap in airframe icing conditions is prohibited.
4
Q
What configuration should you use if icing conditions are present in the approach phase?
Why?
A
Use 1/2 flap.
Because Full flap is prohibited in airframe icing conditions.
5
Q
What should you do if you experience a lightning strike?
A
Limit flight to gentle manoeuvres and land as soon as possible.
6
Q
What is the maximum ambient temperature for Hawk operations?
A
+35 degrees C.
7
Q
What is the maximum dew point temperature at sea level that the ECS can cope with?
A
+30 degrees C.
8
Q
Above what dew point may canopy fogging occur?
A
+17 degrees C.
9
Q
What options do you have if excessive fogging is expected/ occurs on descent?
A
Selecting DEMIST/ FLOOD from the ECS.
10
Q
When is canopy fogging most likely?
A
On descent following flight at high altitude and low power settings.
11
Q
May you initiate a manoeuvre when the FUEL or OIL captions are illuminated?
A
No.
12
Q
What is the maximum duration of 0 or negative g in any one application?
A
30 seconds.
13
Q
Following a period of 0 or negative g, what must you do before another period?
A
Operate at a minimum of +1g for at least as much time as was spent below +1g.
14
Q
What is the maximum altitude of the Hawk?
A
FL420.
15
Q
What is the aircraft (not training) limit on speed for SCNs 3, 7, 8 and 9?
KCAS and Mach.
A
575 KCAS
0.9M
16
Q
What is the maximum ground operating mass?
A
7000kg
17
Q
What is the maximum T/O all up mass?
A
7000kg.
18
Q
What is the maximum baggage weight?
A
20kg
19
Q
What should you do if the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) fails to auto-recover from a surge?
A
Set throttle as required and minimise AoA and Sideslip.
20
Q
What is the limit on sustained g when flying at over 25,000ft AMSL?
Why is this in place?
A
Sustained manoeuvres over 3g for over 5 seconds are prohibited.
This is to prevent the risk of acceleration atelectasis.
21
Q
What is the maximum normal acceleration for the aircraft when the mass is over 6200kg?
A
7g
22
Q
What is the maximum g to be used when recovering from flight above 0.94M?
A
2.5g
23
Q
What should you be aware of when decelerating through about 0.94M?
A
There is an abrupt nose-up trim change.
24
Q
What is different about the primary approach and landing reference for flapless approaches?
A
Displayed AoA must not be used as the primary approach and landing reference.
Displayed speed must be used instead.
25
What limit is placed on rudder movement above 200KCAS?
Above 200KCAS, rudder pedals must be maintained central during rolling manoeuvres.
26
Is deliberate large sideslip whilst rolling permitted?
No.
27
What are the limits on lateral stick input at high speeds for non-"rapid rolling" manoeuvres?
Use no more than 1/2 lateral stick input.
28
Above what altitude is rapid rolling prohibited?
FL350
29
State the considerations when rapid rolling.
```
Longitudinal stick position.
Sideslip.
Buffet.
Airbrake.
Flap.
```
Longitudinal stick position must be held as close as possible to the position at entry throughout the manoeuvre.
At completion, sideslip must be minimised before any other manoeuvre commenced.
Aircraft must be clear of buffet before start of any rapid rolling manoeuvre.
Airbrake may be in or out during rapid rolling manoeuvre, but should not be moved during it.
Flaps may be at Up or Combat setting for rapid rolling manoeuvres, but should not be moved during it.
Refer to RTS for limits table.
30
When are the only occasions you are permitted to fly beyond moderate buffet?
During spin and stall training.
31
Above M0.8, how many AoA is the hard edged buffet beyond moderate buffet?
About 1AoA.
32
What stick movements are prohibited when in buffet?
Abrupt fore and aft stick movements.
33
What kind of aerobatic manoeuvres are prohibited?
Flick or snap manoeuvres.
Stall Turns.
Tail Slides.
34
What is the maximum altitude permitted for intentional stalling?
FL300.
35
What limits does visible icing have on stalling practice?
Intentional low speed stalling in all gear/ flap configurations (inc. clean) is prohibited.
36
What is the maximum number of turns permitted during spin recovery practice?
2 turns.
37
What SCNs are you permitted to practice spinning in?
SCN 1 and 7.
38
What is the maximum spin entry altitude?
30,000ft AMSL.
39
What is the recommended spin entry altitude?
25,000-30,000ft AMSL.
40
What is the minimum height for initiation of the spin recovery action?
15,000ft AGL.
41
At what height should you abandon the aircraft if it has not started to recover from a spin?
5000ft AGL.
42
Are deliberate inverted spins permitted?
No.
43
How should you position the ailerons at spin entry and throughout the manoeuvre?
Central.
44
State the situations that necessitate immediate recovery actions from a spin.
IAS appears likely to drop to 100KCAS or below.
IAS appears likely to rise to 200KCAS or above.
Transient side forces feel excessively large.
An engine surge is encountered.
You reach the minimum height to initiate the spin recovery action (15,000ft AGL).
45
What position should the throttle be in at entry to and throughout the spin?
Idle.
46
Is intentional spinning in MFC or degraded EEC permitted?
No.
47
What should you check regarding the engine following spin recovery.
Check for surge free acceleration - i.e. that the RPM leads TGT when the throttle is advanced.
48
State the maximum speed that the aircraft tyres are allowed to remain in contact with the ground?
180kts.
49
State the maximum airfield altitude for the tyres.
6000ft AMSL.
50
What position must the canopy be in when taxiing?
Either:
Fully open and locked
OR
Closed and locked.
51
What is the windspeed limitation on taxiing with the canopy open?
Taxi speed + wind speed = 40kts maximum.
52
Name the arrestor systems that the Hawk is permitted to trample.
(x6)
```
RHAG
PAAG
G and W 500
BAK 12
BAK 14
AAE 44B-3A
```
53
At what speed is a Hawk permitted to trample an unsupported and tensioned arrestor system?
Are they permitted to do this as a formation, or must they be a singleton?
Up to tyre limiting speed.
Multiple aircraft permitted.
54
At what speed is a Hawk permitted to trample a supported and tensioned arrestor system?
Are they permitted to do this as a formation, or must they be a singleton?
At walking pace.
Single aircraft only. Succeeding aircraft must wait until cable bounce from previous aircraft has stopped.
55
State the (QFI/ dual) crosswind limits for singleton T/Os and landings.
30kts.
56
State the (QFI/ dual) crosswind limits for formation (echelon/ vic) T/Os and landings.
15kts.
57
State the maximum rate of descent on landing for a normal landing (less than 5900kg).
780ft/ minute.
58
State the maximum rate of descent on landing for a heavyweight landing (5901 - 7000kg).
625ft/ minute.
59
What is the maximum number of aircraft permitted to T/O and land in formation.
T/O: 3 (in Vic)
Landing: 2.
60
What is the maximum speed for streaming the chute?
160kts
61
What is the maximum x-wind for streaming the chute.
25kts.
62
When is the chute permitted to be streamed during a formation landing?
When there is nose-tail separation.
When the rear aircraft successfully streams its chute first.
63
Above what taxiing distance must brakes be cooled in between sorties?
2.2 miles.
64
What should you do if you suspect the brakes have exceeded the inspection energy level.
Do not taxi any further than necessary to clear the runway.
Do not apply the parking brake unless required to permit a safe exit from the aircraft.
65
List the types of barrier that the Hawk is permitted to engage.
RAF "Type A" Barrier
RAF "Type B" Barrier - on "light" setting.
Mk. 12 A Barrier - on "light" setting.
66
State the maximum ground speed for engaging the barrier when solo.
120kts.
67
State the maximum ground speed for engaging the barrier when dual.
80kts
68
What should you do if it appears that the aircraft will engage the barrier significantly off centre?
What is the definition of "significantly off centre"?
Consider ejecting.
A wingtip outside the vertical elements of the barrier.
69
What category of aircraft is the Hawk for instrument approaches.
Category C.
Category E when flapless.
70
Are you permitted to perform raw ILS approaches with sole reference to the HUD?
No. Three is no single designated primary flight display - check all periodically.
71
State the HIRTA susceptibility for each band code A-E.
```
A - V. Low
B - V. Low
C - Low
D - Low
E - Low
```
72
What may happen to the FADEC if you fly up to the HIRTA D and E band limits?
It may malfunction or degrade.
73
What should you do if systems start to degrade because you have flown up to HIRTA limits?
Fly away from the HIRTA - the systems should recover as you increase distance away.
74
What is the maximum amount of time any aircrew is permitted to operate the aircraft with the engine running within one 24 hour period?
5 hours.
75
Name the fuels that are approved for use in the Hawk T2.
F-25 (i.e. Jet A with Additives)
F-34
F-35
F-44
76
Name the oils that are approved for use in the Hawk?
OX-26
OX-27
Royco Turbine Oil 500
77
Name the oils that are prohibited for use in the Hawk?
Royco Turbine Oil 555
Esso/ Exxon Turbo Oil 25
78
How many consecutive APU ground start attempts are permitted?
Maximum of 3.
79
How long must you allow between successive APU start attempts?
3 minutes.
80
What is the maximum altitude for an APU start in flight?
20,000ft AMSL.
81
What are the speed limits for an APU start when in flight under normal circumstances?
Below 13,000ft AMSL: 200KIAS maximum
Above 13,000ft AMSL: 380KIAS maximum
82
What are the speed limits for an APU start when in flight under emergency circumstances?
Below 10,000ft AMSL: 380KIAS maximum.
Above 10,000ft AMSL: 460KIAS maximum.
83
With the main generator offline, how much time will each relight or start attempt reduce battery life by?
About 5 minutes.
84
How long should the batteries last for if the main generator goes offline?
What does this account for?
Between about 5 and 16.2 minutes. This accounts for one automatic APU start attempt.
85
What should you do if the FADEC system automatically attempts an APU start outside of the defined envelope?
Reduce speed and altitude to within the envelope ASAP.
86
What is the maximum time that the APU may be operated in flight?
1 hour.
87
State the g-limits while the APU is running.
Negative g prohibited.
88
State the limits on the APU when the ambient temperature is less than +5 degrees C.
Why?
APU must not be ground-run for more than 5 minutes.
Ice may build up around the intake grill.
89
What should you do if ice starts to build up around the APU intake grill?
Shut the APU down immediately.
90
State the characteristics that any external power source must exhibit.
Voltage
Phase
Frequency
200/115V
3 phase
400Hz
91
Name the only ground power unit approved for the Hawk T2.
The Houchin Unit Ground Power
92
Where should the AAR switch be placed at all times (unless instructed by FRCs)?
In the OFF position.
93
What effect will switching the AAR switch to DRY or REFUEL have on the fuel tanks?
It will depressurise the tanks, affecting internal fuel transfer.
94
What should you do with the throttle if you believe you are going to ballistic?
Set the throttle at Idle.
95
What should you do once you have recovered from going ballistic?
Check that the engine is surge-free by checking that RPM leads TGT when throttle is opened.
96
How long must you leave after an aborted ground start before the next attempt?
Why?
At least 2 minutes.
To allow fuel to drain.
97
What is the maximum number of ground start attempts?
3
98
What is the maximum elevation for a ground start?
4000ft AMSL.
99
What is the maximum tailwind for a ground start?
15kts.
100
What is the minimum ambient temperature for a ground start?
Minus 15 degrees C.
101
Are ground starts under MFC or EEC permitted?
No.
102
What is the maximum rating for RPM (%NH) and Indicated T6 temperature?
104% and 880 degrees C.
103
What is the maximum transient rating for RPM (%NH) and Indicated T6 temperature?
104.5% and 885 degrees C.
104
What is the minimum RPM (%NH) at flight idle?
56.2
105
What is the maximum indicated T6 during a ground start?
637 degrees C.
106
What is the maximum indicated T6 during an airborne relight?
840 degrees C.
107
What is the minimum ground idle relative to flight idle?
3%NH below flight idle in same ambient conditions.
108
When in MFC, or EEC is degraded, what is the maximum RPM for the following pressure altitudes (i.e. altitudes with 1013mb set)?
-1500 - 5000ft
5001 - 15,000ft
15,001 - 30,000ft
30,001 - 42,000ft
100%
96%
90%
87%
109
When are the only times MFC is permitted?
In an emergency or during a manual ground check.
110
If possible, where should the throttle be placed when MFC selected?
In the mid-range.
111
What is the minimum %NH when in MFC (if possible).
70%NH
112
Below what speed may MFC windmilling relights be unsuccessful?
250KCAS.
113
In what height band are assisted relights not guaranteed to work?
15,000ft - 20,000ft
114
What %NH must RPM have decayed below before an assisted relight may be initiated?
20%NH
115
Below what RPM must an assisted relight be used?
What happens to the EMP display below this level?
When RPM at or below 10%NH.
The EMP display occults.
116
How long must the engine have been at idle before shutdown (other than in an emergency)?
30 seconds.
117
Above what ground ambient temperature must the APU be operated on the ground in order to cool the cockpit and avionics?
+32 degrees C
118
If OBOGS becomes unavailable, what must you do before BOS is depleted?
What will be required if BOS is depleted before you do this?
Descend to below 10,000ft cabin altitude.
Emergency oxygen.
119
What is the maximum engine speed with the canopy not closed and locked?
81%NH
120
What is the maximum recommended ejection speed?
575KCAS.
121
When command eject is ON, which seat will be ejected first?
What is the time difference between the seats initiating?
Rear seat.
0.35 seconds.
122
What is the minimum safe height above ground level for an ejection in level flight, with zero bank angle, and at altitudes of 5000-10,000ft AMSL for the following speed ranges:
0-350KCAS
350+ KCAS
0ft AGL
100ft AGL
123
Is barrier engagement permitted after MDC has been detonated?
No. Eject instead if necessary.
124
What is the minimum g, maximum g and maximum speed when combat flap is deployed?
-2g
+8g - note that this is the aircraft limit. Training limit is 7g.
350kts/ M0.8
125
What is the minimum g, maximum g and maximum speed up to and including 1/2 flap?
0g
+2.5g - note that this is the aircraft limit. Training limit is 2g.
250kts
126
What is the minimum g, maximum g and maximum speed in excess of 1/2 flap to fully down flap?
0g
+2.5g - note that this is the aircraft limit. Training limit is 2g.
200kts
127
When flap is in transit between positions, which limits should be adhered to.
The greater of the flap settings it is in between.
128
What should you do with the airbrake if HYD1 system fails?
Select airbrake IN.
Further use is then prohibited.
129
May airbrake be moved during a spinning or stalling manoeuvre?
No.
130
Are you permitted to use the Autopilot Altitude Acquire mode?
No.
131
What must you not do regarding control or trim inputs while the autopilot is engaged?
You must not make deliberate control or trim inputs, except when disengaging autopilot via the SFCO.
132
State the speed and height limits for autopilot use.
200 to 500KCAS (/M0.85)
1000ft AGL to FL420.
133
Is autopilot use permitted with the undercarriage down?
No.
134
How far must groundcrew be clear of the datalink aerial during the Datalink PBIT?
When does this PBIT happen? How long does it last?
2.0m
Test initiated at switch on, and lasts for 10 seconds.
135
State the order that altimeter pressure setting changes must be made.
Standby barometric altimeter.
HDFD.
HUD via the DEP.
136
What may happen to the RadAlt after high AoB manoeuvres?
It may insidiously over- or under-read for several seconds.
137
When A/A TACAN is in memory mode, may it be relied upon to ensure safe aircraft separation?
No.
138
State which channels may be selected with the TACAN in A/A mode.
12-57 and 75-120.
139
What must you have when using the TACAN or VOR in order to make an approach when IMC below safety altitude?
When is this not the case?
A monitoring radar service.
In an emergency.
140
Following a PDMC recycle, what will happen to the TCAS?
It will revert to standby.
141
What scale will the TCAS MFD format default to following a moding change or TA/ RA event?
12nm.
142
What must the TCAS have in order to auto-recover following a failure due to dynamic manoeuvring?
A valid RadAlt input.
143
Is flight under RVSM permitted?
No.
144
Is use of the autopilot in RVSM airspace permitted?
No.
145
Are you permitted to use the MFD EFRCs?
No.
146
Where must the datalink switch be set to during VE ground use?
OFF
147
State the CLT and baggage limits for spin training.
The CLT and the baggage compartment must be empty.
148
What functionality is lost in aircraft retrofitted with Hawk T1 actuators?
Autopilot functionality.
149
What is the maximum change in angle of bank permitted through rapid rolling when not at 1g?
180 degrees.
150
What is the maximum change in angle of bank permitted through rapid rolling when at 1g?
360 degrees.
151
What is the permitted speed range for rapid rolling?
200kts to 500kts (0.8M)
152
What are the g limits on loaded rapid rolling in the following fuel states:
CLT > 165kg
CLT <165kg
CLT> 165kg: -1g to +3g
CLT < 165kg:
-1g to + 4.6g when above 6200kg AUM (about 100kg in CLT)
or
-1g to + 5.3g when below 6200kg AUM (about 100kg in CLT).
