Renal Flashcards

1
Q

Which differential should you suspect in a patient who is over 60 and presents for the first time with renal colic?

A

Ruptured AAA

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2
Q

What is orthostatic proteinuria?

A

A benign condition caused by changes in renal haemodynamics.

MOA: A period of prolonged standing occurs, the patient then tests positive for protein in their urine.

Present in 2-5% of normal individuals.

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3
Q

How should a mid stream urine sample be collected? What needs to be done?

A
  1. Collect the sample early in the morning, preferably the first urination of the day:
    Most concentrated sample, the elements are better detected.
  2. Drink fluids before hand - to fill your bladder, test is most accurate when bladder is half full
  3. Wash your hands well beforehand - to avoid contamination
  4. Clean the area only if:
    - you have recently opened your bowels
    - you have just finished your period
  5. Place the jar close to your urethral opening
  6. Don’t collect the first bit of urine, collect from after the stream hits the toilet
  7. Place the lid tightly on the sample jar, without touching the inside of the jar.
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4
Q

What does urine analysis tell us in chronic kidney disease?

A

DIPSTICK:
1. Proteinuria - suggests glomerular or tubulointerstitial disease

  1. Urine sediment with Haematuria/red blood cell casts - suggests proliferative glomerulonephritis
  2. Pyuria or white blood cell casts - suggests interstitial nephritis or UTI
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5
Q

Which mode of urine collection has the greatest prognostic value in CKD?

A

The two options:
Spot urine collection and 24 hour collection.

Spot urine collection for total protein is the best (relative to 24 hour collection):
It is a one off test - a single sample is used.

In a 24 hour collection, urine is collected throughout the day in a single container - an averaged result.

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6
Q

Which test has greater sensitivity for low levels of protein in the urine? ACR or PCR?

A

In short: ACR = microalbuminaemia (DM)
PCR = proteinuria (CKD)

ACR has greater sensitivity for low levels of proteinuria (microalbuminaemia)

PCR is better for quantification/monitoring proteinuria

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7
Q

What further testing does urine dipstick positive for haematuria indicate for?

A

Anyone with non-visible haematuria should have urine culture performed to exclude UTI.

If persistent non-visible haematuria: urology referral

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8
Q

Since diabetes is the leading cause of CKD, what should be checked at the annual DM checkup in GP?

A
BP
Urine dipstick
BMI
Diabetic foot exam
HbA1c
Serum creatinine and eGFR
Serum cholesterol
QRISK3 - quantify CV risk
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9
Q

What is the upper limit of normal blood sugar in HbA1C?

A

HbA1C:
42 mmol/Mol is the upper limit
48mmol/Mol is considered diabetes

Fasting:
5.5 mmol/L is the upper limit
7 mmol/L is considered diabetes

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10
Q

How is chronic kidney disease staged?

A

Two measures are used:

  1. Albumin:creatinine ratio ACR - A1/2/3
  2. GFR - G1/2/3a/3b/4/5
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11
Q

What is ACR?

A

ACR is urine albumin to creatinine ratio.
Creatinine is assumed to be consistent (reminder: serum creatinine is used for GFR)

Used for convenience sake to check for proteinuria, in lieu of 24 hour urine collection.

Measured: by spot specimen urine sampling, to find creatinine and albumin concentrations, then dividing albumin (mg) by creatinine (g) - classification; A1 to A3

Increased ratio means there is more kidney damage therefore allowing more protein through the glomeruli.

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12
Q

What is Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein (THP)?

A

Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein AKA uromodulin a glycoprotein secreted by renal tubules.

It is the most abundant protein in urine, and can be up to 150mg per day.

It defines mild proteinuria (- note that more severe proteinuria is microalbuminaemia)

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13
Q

What is proteinuria?

A

Proteinuria is defined as >150mg/day, most of the low molecular weight proteins are reabsorbed.

This 150mg is made up of 30mg or less albumin, and then Tamms Horsfall protein, b2 microglobulin, immunoglobulin light chains and others.

Dipsticks don’t detect smaller proteins since the result would always be positive, so they detect albumin.

Early renal disease = >150mg/day low molecular weight proteins.
This indicates increased glomerular permeability.

Microalbuminaemia = 30-300mg/day
This is proteinuria but specifically with increased albumin, which is a large protein, and shouldn’t be able to cross the glomerulus unless it is damaged, indicating glomerular or tubular disease.

Severe albuminuria = >300mg/day this is the point at which dipsticks become positive

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14
Q

When do primary care refer a patient with decreased GFR?

A

GFR <60 is the threshold for referral but not unless it is progressive or very low, also any other indications of serious kidney dysfunction/disease (proteinuria, haematuria, HTN, vasculitis, other)

GFR:
30-59 and progressive = routine referral if the renal impairment is progressive (>25% in a year or >15ml/min in a year)

30-59 but no progression = consider referral if there is:

  • haematuria
  • proteinuria
  • unexplained anaemia
  • abnormal potassium/calcium/phosphate

15-29 = urgent referral

<15 = immediate referral

Other indications for referral:
Proteinuria - urgent If nephrotic syndrome (oedema: high proteinuria and low serum albumin)

Haematuria - visible or invisible with proteinuria

HTN - malignant or uncontrolled

Systemic illness - vasculitis, myeloma, sarcoidosis (these most often involve the kidney)

Renal outflow obstruction

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15
Q

When looking at a kidney on ultrasound, what are the shapes and sizes you might see that constitutes evidence of chronic kidney disease?

A

Reminder: a normal kidney is 11cm between its poles

Polycystic kidney - massive, amorphous (18+cm) with fluid filled spaces within it

Atrophic - small, (7.5cm) sclerosed, shrunken

Hypertrophic - enlarged due to compensation for other kidney

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16
Q

What are possible histopathological findings from biopsy that support a diagnosis of CKD?

A

Eosinophilic areas within the glomerulus (- nodular glomerulosclerosis in DM)

Fibrocellular crescent around the outside of the glomerulus (- crescentic glomerulonephritis)

Eosinophilic cast within the tubule (- cast nephropathy or myeloma kidney)

Lots of cells between the glomeruli (- acute interstitial nephritis due to white cell invasion)

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17
Q

What is a normal eGFR for a healthy adult age 25?

A

100-120

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18
Q

What are the five stages of CKD, as defined by eGFR?

A

Stage 1 - GFR >90: kidney damage with normal GFR

Stage 2 - GFR 60-89: kidney damage with mild decrease in GFR

-NOW WE START TO REFER-
Stage 3 A/B - GFR 30-59: moderate decrease in GFR

Stage 4 - GFR 15-29: Severe decrease in GFR

Stage 5 - GFR <15: Established kidney failure

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19
Q

Why is stage 3 CKD split in to stage 3A and stage 3B But the other stages aren’t split?

A

Most CKD patients lie within stage 3, therefore it is split to better indicate the kidney function.

Why is it left as a single stage then?

Because the confidence interval for the eGFR calculation is 95% between eGFR of 31-59, so a patient’s true GFR is anywhere within this range.

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20
Q

Why is there a correction in eGFR for African Caribbean patients?

A

There is a presumed increased muscle mass, which means that creatinine is expected to be higher with perfectly functioning kidneys.

I.e. the molecule used to make estimations is assumed to be at higher concentration but without any kidney dysfunction

So an Afro Caribbean patient can have a higher creatinine than his Caucasian counterpart but they will both have the same kidneys

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21
Q

Why do we use the patient’s weight in the calculation of their eGFR?

A

Weight is a reflection of muscle mass, which is a reflection of creatinine production.

Someone with a low weight and a high creatinine is more worrying than someone with high weight and high creatinine.

You should eyeball the patient to decide this.

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22
Q

When a patient presents with signs of fluid overload, which two bedside tests should be done to exclude renal causes?

A

Bedside tests:

  1. Urinalysis - for proteins and haematuria, since this indicates glomerular damage
  2. Blood pressure readings - one of the first signs of renal dysfunction
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23
Q

If urinalysis of a patient with fluid overload symptoms shows protein 3+, what is the likely issue?

A

Protein 3+ indicates glomerular dysfunction, proteinuria only occurs in damage to the filtration barrier.

Without haematuria we put bladder cancer to the back of the pile of differentials.

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24
Q

Which conditions can cause an decrease in specific gravity of urine?

A

Decrease in SG = less solute, more water

So:
Excessive hydration
Diabetes insipidus
Acute tubular necrosis

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25
Q

Which conditions can cause an increase in specific gravity of urine?

A

Increase in SG = more solute, less water

So:
Dehydration
SIADH
CHF
Cirrhosis
Glycosuria
Proteinuria
Recent IV contrast
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26
Q

What is the normal pH range for urine? Can we use this to decide if the patient is acidotic or alkalotic?

A

Urine pH = 4.5 - 8.0

No, we cannot establish their serum acidity or alkalinity because urine pH varies widely depending on diet

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27
Q

What conditions cause a decrease in urine pH?

A

Higher acidity results from:

Acidaemia, which can be due to diet, or any condition causing acidosis; sepsis, DKA, HHS, type 2 respiratory failure etc

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28
Q

What conditions cause a rise in urine pH?

A

Increase in alkalinity:

Anything that causes alkalosis - metabolic alkalosis from ingestion, prolonged vomiting, hypovolaemia, diuretic use (loss of H+), Hypokalemia.

Distal renal tubular necrosis

UTI - secondary to urease producing organisms (klebsiella, proteus)

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29
Q

What processes cause glycosuria?

A

Glycosuria:

Hyperglycaemia
Proximal tubule dysfunction - Franconi syndrome or genetic abnormality

30
Q

What processes cause a positive haematuria finding on urine dipstick?

A

Dipstick: detects haemoglobin AND myoglobin

Causes of positive result:

  1. Any cause of haematuria (UTI, renal stone, GU malignancy, nephritic syndrome, others)
  2. Rhabdomyolysis
  3. Contamination with semen
31
Q

Which protein is urine dipstick most sensitive for? Why is the urine supposed to be taken in the morning?

A

Urine dipstick is most sensitive for albumin

Only becomes positive at >300mg/day

Morning sample:
Sensitivity depends on urine concentration, higher concentration means more sensitive.

32
Q

What groups of conditions cause proteinuria?

A

Proteinuria:
Glomerular disease; - diabetic nephropathy, IgA nephropathy etc

Overflow proteinuria; - multiple myeloma, rhabdomyolysis, intravascular haemolysis

Post-renal; UTI etc

33
Q

What does the leukocyte part of the urinalysis strip test for?

A

Tests for leukocyte esterase - an enzyme released by WBCs; used to estimate number of WBCs in the urinary tract

34
Q

What does the nitrites part of the urinalysis strip test for?

A

Nitrites test for the presence of enterobacteriacae, which convert nitrates to nitrites.

Only these bacteria do this within the urinary tract.

Conditions:
UTI
Indwelling urinary catheter

35
Q

What are the three ketones used by the body for energy sources?

A

Beta hydroxybutyrate - the highest one in ketoacidosis
Acetoacetate
Acetone

All detected in urine by the ketone part of the strip

36
Q

Which conditions cause positive ketone result on urinalysis test strip?

A
Positive for ketones:
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Alcoholic ketoacidosis
Starvation ketoacidosis
Ketogenic diet

Note that the strip is poorly sensitive to beta hydroxybutyrate

37
Q

How might you diagnose post streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A
  1. History of recent/current pharyngitis or impetigo, and nephritic syndrome
  2. Bloods: antibodies against group A streptococci, decreased serum compliment level
  3. Biopsy: Enlarged glomerulus that is hypercellular
38
Q

How can you distinguish the three types of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?

A

All three show crescent shaped thickening of the glomerulus on histopathology.

On immunofluorescence:
Type 1 - linear because it’s attack on the basement membrane
Type 2 - patchy since it’s immune complexes being deposited in the subendothelium
Type 3 - no fluorescence because there is no deposition of antibodies in the nephron

39
Q

Which blood tests could be used to investigate the different causes of renal glomerular disease?

A

Renal function: FBC, eGFR, Serum electrolytes (establish damage/EPO function)

Bone profile: Total protein, albumin, ALP and calcium
(Vitamin dysfunction)

Lipid profile: cholesterol, HDL/LDL, Triglycerides (atherosclerosis and CKD)

Coagulation screen: in preparation for renal biopsy, in case of clotting disorders

HbA1C: diabetic nephropathy

ESR/CRP: ongoing inflammation in vasculitis and other systemic inflammatory conditions

Immunology screen:
pANCA, cANCA
complex levels (low in immune complex diseases)
anti-glomerular basement (GBM) antibody
antihyaluronidase/anti-DNAase (post-streptococcal GN)
Rheumatoid factor (cryoglobulinaemia)

Hepatitis serology: HBV is associated with membranous and mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis and HCV is associated with cryoglobulinaemia glomerulonephritis (small vessel non-ANCA vasculitis)

Myeloma screen: (multiple myeloma can also cause glomerulonephritis) serum light chain assay and urinary bence Jones protein assay

40
Q

What is the purpose for testing urine for Bence-Jones proteins?

A

Bence Jones proteins are a urinary immunoglobulin light chain protein that is suggestive of multiple myeloma.

41
Q

What is urine sediment, in the context of urine microscopy?

A

Urine that has been centrifuged to separate solid and liquid, and then most of the liquid is removed, and then the solid is resuspended in the remaining solution- to concentrate the suspension.

This concentrated suspension is the urine sediment.

Used to observe the components: cells, crystals and casts.

Be aware of break down of these structures if the sample is old.

42
Q

When doing urine microscopy, what is important when considering the urine sample collection?

A

Must be fresh - old samples see their crystals, casts and cells break down.

Must not be refrigerated - crystals can precipitate out that otherwise wouldn’t have been present.

43
Q

How are RBCs quantified in urine microscopy?

A

3 or more RBCs in the microscope field is considered abnormal

Dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of glomerular disease

44
Q

What can cause RBCs to be present in urine under microscopy?

A
Most common: 
UTI
Renal stone
GU malignancy
Recent instrumentation (damage)
Coagulopathy
Glomerulonephritis 
Sickle cell anaemia
Renal tuberculosis
Vigorous exercise
Contaminated by menstrual blood
Least common
45
Q

How are WBCs quantified on urine microscopy?

A

> 5 WBCs per field are considered abnormal

46
Q

What are the causes of increased WBCs in urine under microscopy?

A
Most common:
UTI
Indwelling urinary catheter
Recent instrumentation (damage)
Urologic malignancy
Chronic interstitial nephritis (damage to the area between the tubules, glomeruli and blood vessels by medications - most commonly)
Interstitial cystitis
Intraabdominal inflammatory process adjacent to the GU tract (e.g. IBD, ovarian pathology)
Contaminating with vaginal secretions
Least common
47
Q

What does the presence of bacteria in urine under microscopy tell us?

A

If symptoms are present and/or urine dip is positive (leukocyte esterase and nitrites) it indicates UTI

If there are no symptoms and/or urine dip is negative, it indicates poor collection technique

Urine analysis by microscopy is not commonly used for decisive diagnosis of UTI, instead it is used to assist diagnosis .

48
Q

What is the relevance of crystals in the urine, as found on urine microscopy?

A

Formation of crystals depends on:

  1. Concentration of ions and molecules
  2. Urine pH

Small amounts of crystals are a normal phenomena

Most common crystals;
ACID:
Uric acid - high acidity due to a first round of chemotherapy, and subsequent DNA breakdown
Cystine - defect in cysteine transport
SHAPE= American footballs and hexagons respectively

ALKALI:
Calcium phosphate
Magnesium ammonium phosphate - seen in urease-producing UTIs
SHAPE: Rods and rectangles respectively

URINE pH INDEPENDENT:
Calcium oxalate dihydrate - only relevant to renal stone prodution
Calcium oxalate monohydrate - indicates ethylene glycol ingestion
SHAPE: squares and circles respectively

49
Q

What are casts?

A

Long, cylindrical structures formed in the renal tubules due to precipitation of Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein (the most common protein in urine), which are then deposited in the urine.

They are either cellular or acellular.

MOA: Acidic or concentrated urine promotes formation, and then other elements become embedded in the casts. (These inform us of the cause of kidney injury)

50
Q

What does a muddy brown cast in the urine suggest?

A

ACELLULAR - Acute tubular necrosis - remember that casts form in the renal tubules, If necrosis is occurring there, expect necrosis material.

51
Q

What does a waxy cast in the urine suggest?

A

ACELLULAR - Acute or chronic kidney disease - non specific

52
Q

What does a fatty cast in the urine suggest?

A

ACELLULAR - Fatty; yellow-tan fat globules, suggests nephrotic syndrome.

In nephrotic syndrome there is a dysregulation of liver lipid metabolism, decreased hepatic lipase activity so there is decreased clearance of triglycerides and VLDLs.

Hyperlipidaemia occurs, and in combo with podocyte damage, fats accumulate in the urine.

53
Q

What is a granular cast?

A

ACELLULAR - a cast that has formed from the degeneration of a cellular cast.

54
Q

What is the relevance of RBCs in a urinary cast?

A

CELLULAR - suggests glomerulonephritis (nephritic syndrome, since nephrotic syndrome only allows proteins and fat through, no cells)

55
Q

What is the relevance of WBCs in a urinary cast?

A

CELLULAR - suggests interstitial inflammation, which may be infectious or non infectious

56
Q

What is the urinanalysis profile (dipstick and microscopy) of UTI?

A

Appearance: Cloudy, turbid

Specific gravity: -
Protein: maybe present
Leukocyte esterase: High
Nitrites: maybe present

RBCs: maybe present
WBCs: present
Casts: -

57
Q

What is the urinanalysis profile (dipstick and microscopy) of Nephrotic syndrome?

A

Appearance: Foamy

Specific gravity: High
Protein: Very high
Leukocyte esterase: -
Nitrites: -

RBCs: -
WBCs: -
Casts: Fatty casts

58
Q

What is the urinanalysis profile (dipstick and microscopy) of Nephritic syndrome?

A

Appearance: Red or brown

Specific gravity: High
Protein: Mild/moderate elevation
Leukocyte esterase: maybe present
Nitrites: -

RBCs: Dysmorphic RBCs
WBCs: maybe present
Casts: RBC casts

59
Q

What is the urinanalysis profile (dipstick and microscopy) of Acute tubular necrosis?

A

Appearance: Dark yellow or amber

Specific gravity: Low
Protein: may be higher
Leukocyte esterase: may be present
Nitrites: -

RBCs: may be present
WBCs: may be present
Casts: Muddy brown casts

60
Q

What is the urinanalysis profile (dipstick and microscopy) of Dehydration and resulting decreased renal perfusion?

A

Appearance: Dark yellow

Specific gravity: High
Protein: may be present
Leukocyte esterase: -
Nitrates: -

RBCs: -
WBCs: -
Casts: Hyaline casts

61
Q

How do we screen for progression of Von Hippel Lindau disease?

A

There is no formal diagnostic criteria, instead, the gene is screened for in those with family history of VHL, and those with imaging evidence of *.

  • Annual USS
  • CT abdomen every 3 years (also for at risk relatives)
  • :
    1. Haemangioblastomas - CNS symptoms (headaches, vomiting, weakness, ataxia) or retinal symptoms (vision loss)
    2. Renal tumours/cysts/haemangioma

Note: Haemangioblastomas are characteristic of VHL.

62
Q

How can we differentiate glomerular/renal haematuria from other causes?

A

PMH/History:

  1. Hypertension
  2. Proteinuria
  3. Recent urinary tract infection (often a trigger for flare up of glomerular nephritis)
  4. Autoimmune systemic symptoms (rash, joint pains, weight loss)
Investigations:
Urinalysis - dip/microscopy (casts, blood, protein)
BP
eGFR
ACR/PCR
Renal biopsy
Antibody assays
63
Q

How do we diagnose polycystic kidney disease?

A
  1. History:
    FHx- ADPKD, ESRD, intracranial aneurysm, haemorrhagic stroke and subarachnoid haemorrhage
    Symptoms of renal enlargement, cystitis, kidney stones
    Symptoms of hepatic enlargement
  2. Urinalysis: haematuria, albuminuria, leukocyturia
3. Conclusive diagnosis = USS of kidneys
Diagnostic criteria;
15-39 3+ cysts in total
40-59 2 cysts in each kidney
60+ 4 cysts in each kidney
64
Q

How do we distinguish blood leaked in the kidney from bleeding further down the urinary tract?

A

Look for dysmorphic RBCs.

RBCs become dysmorphic when the blood is passing through the glomerulus, since this squashes them and loses them their shape.

If the bleeding is further down from the kidney, the RBCs are not put any stress, therefore there are no dysmorphic cells present.

65
Q

What is nephrotic proteinuria range?

A

> 3.5 grams of protein in the urine within 24 hours (note: normal protein level is 300mg per 24 hours) - can indicate glomerulonephritis.

Nephritic syndrome, bladder cancer and UTI proteinuria is less than 3.5g per 24 hours

66
Q

What is the diagnostic pathway for possible AKI?

A

First exclude emergencies:

  1. Check NEWS2
  2. CXR for pulmonary oedema or pneumonia (a cause)
  3. U+E’s for potassium level
  4. Basic observations and volume status (BP sitting and standing)
  5. Urine culture
  6. Urine dipstick (kidney/post renal damage)
  7. USS renal tract
  8. Stool culture for diarrhoea cause of prerenal AKI

SEPSIS
Renal failure - indicates for dialysis
Side effect of renal failure

67
Q

Is one positive haematuria result on urine dipstick considered diagnostic of microscopic haematuria?

A

Positive for blood on the dipstick on MORE than one occasion.

Requires two instances of haematuria for a positive finding, unlike frank haematuria, which only requires one sighting for further investigation.

68
Q

Which investigations must be carried out on someone age 45+ with macroscopic haematuria?

A
Cystoscopy (flexible)
FBC
U+E’s
CT urogram 
USS
We’re most worried about bladder cancer
CT is for spread and staging
USS is for masses and lesions
FBC indicates anaemia and other signs of obstruction/inflammation 
U+E indicates renal function
69
Q

Which investigations must be carried out on someone age 45+ with microscopic haematuria?

A

Cystoscopy

USS

70
Q

Which investigations must be carried out on someone age <45 with microscopic haematuria and LUTS (urinary frequency and urgency)?

A

Cystoscopy
U+E’s
BP
Urine protein

71
Q

Which investigations must be carried out on someone age <45 with microscopic haematuria and loin pain?

A

Non-contrast CT, to rule out stones and tumours
U+E’s
BP
Urine protein

72
Q

What is the diagnostic pathway for pyelonephritis?

A

Blood cultures
Mid stream urine sample for culture
CT or USS to exclude pyonephrosis (collection of pus in the kidney collection system)