Renal, Urinary Systems and Electrolytes III Flashcards

1
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a young female with orthostatic hypotension, hyponatremia, and hypokalemia with high urine Na+ and K+?

A

Diuretic abuse

normally dehydrated patients with hyponatremia and hypokalemia will have reduced urine Na+/K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a young female with photosensitivity, headaches, thrombocytopenia, hematuria, and proteinuria?

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in an adolescent with recurrent kidney stones and hexagonal crystals on urinalysis?

A

Cystinuria

due to defective transport of dibasic amino acids (cystine, lysine, arginine, and ornithine); stones are classically hard and radioopaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in an afebrile elderly male with BPH who experiences agitation and lower abdominal tenderness 2 days after surgery?

A

Acute urinary retention

diagnosis is confirmed by bladder ultrasound; treatment is insertion of a Foley catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in an elderly diabetic with non-anion gap metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, and mild renal insufficiency?

A

Type 4 (hyperkalemic) renal tubular acidosis

most common in elderly patients with poorly controlled diabetes (damage to the juxtaglomerular apparatus results in hyporeninemic, hyperaldosteronism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in an elderly patient taking a TCA that develops abdominal pain and suprapubic fullness?

A

Urinary retention

due to anticholinergic properties of TCAs, which prevents destrusor muscle contraction and urethral sphincter relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the likely ingested agent in a patient who overdosed and presents with fever, tinnitus, and tachypnea?

A

Aspirin

causes mixed respiratory alkalosis and anion gap metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the likely underlying cause of refractory hypokalemia in an alcoholic patient?

A

Hypomagnesemia

intracellular Mg2+ typically inhibits potassium secretion by renal outer medullary potassium (ROMK) channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the likely underlying etiology of kidney disease with arteriosclerotic lesions of renal arterioles?

A

Hypertension

hypertension first manifests as nephrosclerosis and evolves to glomerulosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the likely underlying etiology of kidney disease with GBM thickening, mesangial expansion, and glomerular sclerosis?

A

Diabetic nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the long-term treatment for severe hypercalcemia (> 14mg/dL or symptomatic)?

A

bisphosphonates (e.g. zoledronic acid, pamidronate)

symptoms include weakness, GI distress, and neuropsychiatric symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common cause of abnormal hemostasis in patients with chronic renal failure?

A

Platelet dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common cause of death in dialysis and renal transplant patients?

A

Cardiovascular disease

accounts for approximately 50% of all deaths in dialysis patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis in adults?

A

IgA nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common extrarenal manifestation of autosomal dominant PKD?

A

Hepatic cysts

other extra-renal complications include berry aneurysms, valvular heart disease, colonic diverticula, and abdominal wall/inguinal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common form of drug-induced chronic renal failure?

A

Analgesic nephropathy

suggested by elevated creatinine with urinalysis showing hematuria or sterile pyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common malignancy associated with painless hematuria in adults?

A

Bladder tumors

especially patients age > 35 with a smoking history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common reason for higher incidence of UTIs in females than in males?

A

Shorter urethral length in females

other predisposing factors include sexual intercourse, recent antibiotic use, spermicidal contraceptives, and close proximity of the urethra to the anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most common type of kidney stone?

A

Calcium oxalate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most important intervention for preventing contrast-induced nephropathy?

A

Adequate IV hydration

with isotonic bicarbonate or normal saline; acetylcysteine administration may reduce risk as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the next step in evaluation of acute kidney injury in an elderly patient with BPH who presents with rising creatinine and urinary urgency without hematuria, weight loss, or elevated PSA?

A

Renal ultrasound

helps assess for hydronephrosis and other causes of obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the next step in management for a patient with acute renal failure and oliguria with evidence of significant urine retention?

A

Bladder catheterization

may also place a catheter if the bladder scan is inconclusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the recommended management for a patient with uremic encephalopathy?

A

Hemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the recommended management for an asymptomatic simple renal cyst?

A

Reassurance (no follow-up required)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a patient with a 4 mm kidney stone (first episode)?

A

Hydration (> 2 L fluid intake daily)

stones < 5 mm typically pass spontaneously with conservative management; supportive therapy for pain and nausea may be initiated as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a patient with metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia secondary to recurrent vomiting?

A

IV saline and potassium

volume resuscitation with normal saline corrects contraction alkalosis

27
Q

What is the recommended treatment for both type I and type II renal tubular acidosis?

A

Oral bicarbonate replacement

type II RTA may benefit from the addition of a thiazide diuretic as well (mild volume depletion enhances bicarbonate and sodium reabsorption)

28
Q

What is the treatment of choice for euvolemic hypernatremia?

A

5% dextrose (preferred) or 0.45% saline for free water supplementation

29
Q

What is the treatment of choice for mild hypovolemic hypernatremia?

A

5% dextrose in 0.45% saline

30
Q

What is the treatment of choice for severe hypovolemic hypernatremia?

[…] until euvolemic, then […]

A

0.9% saline (isotonic) until euvolemic, then 5% dextrose (hypotonic)

patients may also be switched to 0.45% saline instead of 5% dextrose

31
Q

What is the treatment of choice for uremic coagulopathy?

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP)

increases release of factor VIII-vWF multimers from endothelial storage sites; other treatment options include cryoprecipitate or conjugated estrogens (platelet transfusion is not indicated)

32
Q

What is the typical volume state (hypo, eu-, or hyper-volemic) of patients with hypercalcemia?

A

Hypovolemic

due to polyuria (from Ca2+-induced nephrogenic DI) and decreased oral intake; loop diuretics should be avoided as they can worsen volume depletion

33
Q

What is the underlying cause of hypercoagulability in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Loss of antithrombin III in urine

manifests as venous or arterial thrombosis, most commonly renal vein thrombosis

34
Q

What neurological complication is associated with autosomal dominant PKD?

A

Berry aneurysms

however, routine screening is not recommended

35
Q

What psychiatric medication is associated with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

A

Lithium

treatment involves salt restriction and discontinuation of lithium

36
Q

What renal pathology is likely present in an asymptomatic patient with the CT below?

A

Simple renal cyst

37
Q

What screening procedure is useful for detecting cystinuria?

A

Urinary cyanide nitroprusside test

38
Q

What side effect may thiazide diuretics have on serum Na+ levels?

A

Hyponatremia

39
Q

What treatment is used for cardiac membrane stabilization in patients with hyperkalemia?

A

IV calcium infusion (e.g. calcium gluconate or calcium chloride)

note: NOT calcium carbonate!

40
Q

What treatment provides the most rapid reduction in serum K+ in patients with hyperkalemia?

A

IV insulin + glucose

results in an intracellular potassium shift (transiently); other options include inhaled beta-2 agonists and sodium bicarbonate

41
Q

What type of acid-base disturbance occurs with vomiting?

A

hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

GI fluid is rich in both HCl and KCl, resulting in loss of K+ and Cl-; HCO3- levels rise as a result of H+ loss

42
Q

What type of anti-histamine has anti-cholinergic activity?

A

1st generation H1-blockers

may cause urinary retention, especially in elderly men with BPH

43
Q

What type of cast is characteristic of acute tubular necrosis?

A

Muddy brown granular cast

44
Q

What type of cast is characteristic of glomerulonephritis?

A

RBC cast

45
Q

What type of cast is characteristic of interstitial nephritis and pyelonephritis?

A

WBC cast

46
Q

What type of cast is characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Fatty cast

47
Q

What type of casts (2) are characteristic of chronic renal failure?

A

broad and waxy casts

48
Q

What type of kidney stone commonly affects patients with Crohn disease or other causes of fat malabsorption?

A

Calcium oxalate stones

non-absorbed fat binds Ca2+ in the gut, preventing Ca2+ from binding oxalate (insoluble) and consequently increasing free oxalate (soluble) absorption

49
Q

What type of kidney stone is characterized by needle-shaped crystals on urinalysis and radiolucency?

A

Uric acid stones

radiolucent therefore must be evaluated by abdominal CT, ultrasound, or IV pyelography (not X-ray)

50
Q

Which class of autonomic drugs are associated with hyperkalemia?

A

Non-selective beta blockers

51
Q

Which class of autonomic drugs may be useful for treating ureteric kidney stones (in addition to IV hydration and analgesics)?

A

alpha1-blockers (e.g. tamsulosin)

acts on the distal ureter to lower muscle tone and reduce reflex ureteral spasm secondary to stone impaction

52
Q

Which classes of anti-hypertensive drugs are associated with hyperkalemia?

A

ACE inhibitors and ARBs

other commonly implicated drugs are non-selective beta blockers, cardiac glycosides, NSAIDs, and K+-sparing diuretics

53
Q

Which diuretics (2) are commonly administered to cirrhotic patients with volume overload and ascites?

A

furosemide and spironolactone

may result in hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and prerenal AKI

54
Q

Which type of hematuria, glomerular or non-glomerular, is associated with gross hematuria and no proteinuria?

A

Non-glomerular hematuria

55
Q

Which type of hematuria, glomerular or non-glomerular, is associated with microscopic hematuria and proteinuria?

A

Glomerular hematuria

may also have RBC casts and dysmorphic RBCs

56
Q

Which type of nephrotic syndrome is associated with HIV, heroin use, and obesity?

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

57
Q

Which type of nephrotic syndrome is associated with Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Minimal change disease

58
Q

Which type of nephrotic syndrome is most common in African Americans and Hispanics?

[…]

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)

most common type of nephrotic syndrome overall in adults

59
Q

Which type of nephrotic syndrome is most commonly associated with malignancies?

A

Membranous nephropathy

typically solid cancers (e.g. lung, colon, prostate, breast)

60
Q

Which type of nephrotic syndrome is most commonly associated with renal vein thrombosis?

A

Membranous nephropathy

may present acutely with abdominal pain, fever, and hematuria or gradually as worsening renal function and proteinuria in an asymptomatic patient (more common)

61
Q

Which type of nephrotic syndrome is most likely in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Amyloidosis (AA)

characterized by amyloid deposits that stain with Congo red and demonstrate apple-green birefringence under polarized light or as randomly arranged fibrils on electron microscopy

62
Q

Which types of nephrotic syndrome (2) are associated with hepatitis B infection?

A

membranous nephropathy (more common) and MPGN

63
Q

Winter’s formula is use to calculate the expected PaCO2 in a patient with metabolic acidosis via the equation:

PaCO2 = […]

A

PaCO2 = (1.5*HCO3-) + 8 +/- 2

a patient with a PaCO2 within the expected range suggests adequate respiratory compensation

64
Q

[…] casts are nonspecific and are often seen in concentrated urine samples (can be a normal finding).

A

Hyaline casts are nonspecific and are often seen in concentrated urine samples (can be a normal finding).