Reproduction and Developement Flashcards

(75 cards)

1
Q

Interphase is a phase in which DNA is uncoiled in the form of chromatin. What are its three stages called?

A

G1, S, and G2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In this cell stage, cells create organelles for energy and protein production, while also increasing their size. To move on, a restriction point is held. This is also the longest phase in interphase.

A

G1 Stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A point during which DNA is checked for quality must be passed for the cell to move into S stage.

A

Restriction Point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In this cell stage, DNA is replicated (23 to 46). The strands of DNA (chromatids) are held together at the centromere.

A

S Stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In this cell stage, there is further cell growth and replication of organelles in preparation for mitosis. Another quality checkpoint must be passed for the cell to enter mitosis.

A

G2 Stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In this stage, mitosis and cytokinesis occur.

A

M Stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens in prophase of mitosis.

A
  • Chromasomes condense
  • Nuclear membrane dissolves
  • Nucleoli disappear
  • Centrioles migrate to opposite sides of the cell
  • Spindle apparatus forms
  • Kineticore of each chromosome is contacted by a spindle fiber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens in metaphase of mitosis.

A

Chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate (equitorial plate).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens in anaphase of mitosis.

A

Sister chromatids are separated and pulled to opposite poles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens in telophase of mitosis.

A
  • Nuclear membrane reforms
  • Spindle apparatus disappears
  • Cytokinesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens in prophase I of meiosis?

A

The same as mitosis, except with the addition of:

  • Synapsis
  • Crossing over of tetrads (Mendel’s Second Law of Independent Assortment)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What happens in metaphase I of meiosis?

A

Homologous chromosomes line up on opposite sides of the metaphase plate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens in anaphase I of meiosis?

A

Homologous chromosomes are segregated to opposite poles of the cell (Mendel’s First Law of Segregation).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What happens in telophase I of meiosis?

A

Chromosomes may or may not fully decondense and the cell may enter interkinesis after cytokinesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sperm is developed where?

A

In the seminiferous tubules of the testes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What nourshes the developement of sperm?

A

Sertoli Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What cells secrete testosterone and other male sex hormones?

A

Interstitial Cells of Leydig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When sperm gain motilityy, where are they stored until ejaculation?

A

Epididymis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does sperm travel during ejaculation?

A

Vas deferens > Ejaculatory Duct > Urethra > Out of Penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This contributes fructose to nourish sperm and produce alkaline fluid.

A

Seminal Vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Produces alkaline fluid.

A

Prostate Gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Produce a clear viscous fluid that cleans out any remnants of urine and libricates the urethra during sexual arousal.

A

Bulbourethral Glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What part of the sperm contains genetic material and is covered with an acrosome?

A

Head of Sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A modified golgi apparatus that contains enzymes that help the sperm to fuse to and penetrate the ovum.

A

Acrosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What part of the sperm generates ATP from fructose and contains many mitochondria?
Midpiece of Sperm
26
Primary oocytes are arrested at what phase?
Prophase I
27
Secondary oocytes are arrested at what phase?
Metaphase II
28
Cytokinesis of the oogenesis is uneven and results in one cell receiving very little cytoplasm and organelles. What is this called?
Polar Body
29
An acellular mixture of glycoproteins that protect the oocyte and contain the compounds necessary for sperm binding (surround the oocyte).
Zona Pellucida
30
A layer of cells that adhere to the oocyte during ovulation.
Corona Radiata
31
Where does fertilization usually occur?
Ampulla of the Fallopian Tube
32
How does sperm penetrate the outer layer of the female egg? What is the outer layers?
Acrosomal enzymes penetrate the: - Corona Radiata - Zona Pellucida
33
When the first sperm penetrates the egg, it causes a release of calcium ions which prevents additional sperm from fertilizing the egg and increases the metabolic rate of the resulting diploid zygote.
Cortical Reaction
34
Early divisions of cells in the embryo.
Cleavage
35
Results in cells that are capable of becoming any cell in the organisim.
Indeterminate Cleavage
36
Results in cells that are committed to differentiating into a specific cell type.
Determinate Cleavage
37
A solid mass of cells seen in early development.
Morula
38
Has a fluid filled center and has two different cells types (trophoblasts and inner cell mass).
Blastula (Blastocyst)
39
This penetrates the endometrium and creates the interface between maternal and fetal blood.
Chorion (Chorionic Villi)
40
Before the placenta is established, the embyro is supported by?
Yolk Sac
41
Involved in early fluid exchange between the embryo and the yolk sac.
Allantois
42
Lies just inside the chorion and produces amniotic fluid.
Amnion
43
Fluid filled center of the blastula is called?
Blastocoel
44
Part of the blastula that will become the placental structures.
Trophoblasts
45
Part of the blastula that will become the developing organism.
Inner Cell Mass
46
Becomes the epidermis, hair, nails, and the epithelia of the nose, mouth, and anal canal, as well as the nervous system (including adrenal medulla) and lens of the eye.
Ectoderm
47
Becomes much of the musculoskeletal, circulatory, and excretory systems. Also gives rise to the gonads and the muscular and connective tissue layers of the digestive or respiratory systems (including adrenal cortex).
Mesoderm
48
Becomes much of the epithelial linings of the respiratory and digestive tracts and parts of the pancreas, thyroid, bladder, and distal urinary tracts.
Endoderm
49
What becomes the CNS?
Neural Tube
50
This lies on the tip of each neural fold that fused to form the neural tube; will become the PNS (Sensory Ganglia, Autonomic Ganglia, Adrenal Medulla, and Schwann Cells) as well as specific cell types in other tissues (calcitonin-producing cells of the thyroid, melanocytes in the skin, and others).
Neural Crest Cells
51
Substances that interfere with development, causing defects or even death of the developing embryo.
Teratogens
52
What forms after the formation of the three germ layers?
The Nervous System (Neurulation)
53
The commitment to a specific cell lineage, which may be accomplished by uneven segregation of cellular material during mitosis or by morphogens.
Determination
54
Promote development down a specific cell line.
Morphogens
55
Refers to changes a cell undergoes due to selective transcription to take on characteristic appropriate to its cell line.
Differentiation
56
These cells are able to differentiate into all cell types, including the three germ layers and placental structures.
Totipotent Cells
57
These cells are able to differentiate into all three of the germ layers and their derivatives.
Pluripotent Cells
58
These cells are able to differentiate only into a specific subset of cell types.
Multipotent Cells
59
What are the three potencies of stem cells?
1. Totipotent 2. Pluripotent 3. Multipotent
60
These signals act on the same cell that released the signal.
Autocrine
61
These signals act on cells in the local area.
Paracrine
62
These signals act through direct stimulation of the adjacent cells.
Juxtacrine
63
These signals act on distant tissues after traveling through the bloodstream.
Endocrine
64
Peptides that promote differentiation and mitosis in certain tissues.
Growth Factors
65
If two tissues both induce further differentiation in each other, this is termed?
Reciprocal Induction
66
The result of multiple molecular and metabolic processes; most notably, the shortening of telomeres during cell division.
Senescence
67
One of the shunts in the fetal circulatory system, connects the right atrium to the left atrium, bypassing the lungs.
Foramen Ovale
68
One of the shunts in the fetal circulatory system, conects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, bypassing the lungs.
Ductus Arteriosus
69
One of the shunts in the fetal circulatory system, connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava, bypassing the liver.
Ductus Venosus
70
The process by which a gastrula forms from a blastula.
Gastrulation
71
The rudimentary alimentary cavity of an embryo at the gastrula stage.
Archenteron
72
The opening of the central cavity of an embryo in the early stage of development.
Blastopore
73
Organogenesis (development of heart, eyes, gonads, limbs, liver and brain).
First Trimester
74
Tremendous growth: movement begins, the face becomes distinct, and the digits elongate.
Second Trimester
75
Rapid growth and brain development continue, and there is transfer of antibodies to the fetus.
Third Trimester