Reproductive CME - Sheet1 Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea?

A

Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two most common causes of secondary amenorrhea in patients with normal estrogen?

A

Asherman syndrome and polycystic ovarian syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is another name for gonadal dysgenesis?

A

Turnerís syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What lab test is diagnostic for menopause?

A

FSH > 30mIU/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most common presentation of a leiomyomata (uterine fibroid)?

A

Vaginal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is recommended in most cases of a leiomyomata?

A

Observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common gynecological cancer?

A

Endometrial cancer (adenocarcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the cardinal symptom of endometrial cancer?

A

Vaginal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What patient population is most common in endometriosis?

A

Nulliparous 30 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the most common ovarian growths?

A

Cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common cause of androgen excess and hirsutism?

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bilateral enlarged cystic ovaries, amenorrhea and infertility are the key features of this disease?

A

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How will the ultrasound appear in a patient with Polycystic ovarian syndrome?

A

Sting of pearls or oyster ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is infertility of polycystic ovarian syndrome treated?

A

Clomiphene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is Cervical itraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) most common to occur?

A

Women in their 20s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When has the CDC recommend patients receive the HPV vaccine?

A

Boys and girls age 11-12. Three injections over 5 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What kind of cancer are women exposed to diethylstilbestrol (DES) at increased risk for?

A

Clear cell adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What bug most commonly causes mastitis?

A

S. Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for mastitis?

A

Penicillinase resistance antibiotics (dicloxacillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most frequent benign condition of the breast?

A

Fibrocystic Breast Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What benign breast lesion is more common in black woman?

A

Fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the most common cancer in woman and what kind is the most common?

A

Breast, Infiltrating ductal carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What ductal carcinoma presents with eczematous lesions of the nipple?

A

Paget disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the best screen test for breast neoplasms?

25
What is the most effective form of contraception?
Oral contraception
26
What is the black box warning for IM depo injections?
Osteoporosis ñ thus only to be used for 2 years
27
What is the most common cause of infertility?
Ovulatory disorders
28
What is the physical exam finding of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Chandelier sign
29
Where should the uterus be at 20 weeks of gestation?
Umbilicus
30
When should we hear fetal heart tones (FHT)?
10 weeks
31
What is bluish discoloration of the vagina and cervix called that is seen in pregnancy?
Chadwick sign
32
Where are most ectopic pregnancies located?
Fallopian tube
33
What is the most common cause of ectopic pregnancy?
Adhesions
34
What is the classic triad of ectopic pregnancy?
Unilateral ABD pain, amenorrhea and tenderness/mass on exam
35
What hCG level should show evidence of an IUP?
1,500 mU/mL
36
What patients should receive RhoGam with an abortion?
Rh-negative woman
37
How does a hydatiform mole present on ultrasound?
ìgrapelike vesiclesî or a ìsnow storm patternî
38
What is the most common cause of non-congenital malformation deaths in a neonate?
Preterm delivery
39
What is a major risk factor of premature rupture of membranes?
Infection
40
What test can confirm rupture or membranes and spilling of amniotic fluid?
Nitrazine paper and the fern test
41
What is administered to enhance fetal lung maturity if under 34 weeks gestation?
Betamethasone
42
What is the classic triad of preeclampsia?
HTN, edema and proteinuria
43
What is HELLP syndrome?
Hemolysis, elevated liver function and low platelets
44
What is the most common risk factor for pre-eclampsia?
Nulliparity
45
What is the first line medication to decrease the risk of seizure in mild pre- eclampsia?
magnesium sulfate (MGSO4)
46
What BP medication should be given to decrease the BP in a pregnant woman?
Hydralazine or labetalol
47
What is administered to Rh-negative Moms at 28 weeks?
Rho-Gam
48
What is the test to measure fetomaternal hemorrhage?
Kleihauer-Betke (KB) stain
49
What is the condition that develops if Rh-incompatibility leads to severe fetal anemia and death?
Fetal hydrops
50
What is the most common cause of third trimester bleeding and when does it occur?
Abruptio placenta, after 20 weeks
51
What is the major symptom in abruptio placenta?
Painful vaginal bleeding
52
What is contraindicated in a patient with placenta previa?
Digital exam
53
What is the key differentiating feature of placenta previa from abruption?
Previa is painless
54
At what time interval is the APGAR assessed?
1 and 5 minutes
55
What medication decreases blood loss by stimulating contractions?
Oxytocin
56
What is the leading indication for cesarean section?
Dystonia
57
When is endometritis most common?
After C-section or PROM for more than 24 hours before delivery
58
What is the first line treatment for endometritis?
Clindamycin + gentamycin