Reproductive Pathology Flashcards

(35 cards)

1
Q

cryptorchism

A

absence of one or both testicles

- most common congenital defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

hypospadias

A

urethra opens on ventral aspect of shaft to the junction of penis and scrotum or perineum

  • very common (2nd to cryptorchism)
  • never do a circumcision, b/c you need the skin to fix the hole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

epispadias

A

urethra opens on dorsal aspect of penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

small, bifid phallus with bladder exstrophy are severe defects associated with…

A

epispadias (assoc. severe defect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

tx for cryptorchism

A

orchioplexy - surgical placement of UDT into scrotum before puberty; decr. likelihood of atrophy, ca, and infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

varicocele

A

abnormal enlargement of vein draining the testicles

sometimes seen as a tortuous mass on the surface of scrotum or dilated veins of spermaic cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

epididymitis

A

inflammation of epididymis usually d/t bacterial infection (gonorrhea, chlamydia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hydrocele

A

accumulation of fluids around testicle

d/t

  • fluid secretion by tunica vaginalis
  • trauma, hernia, orchiis, CA
  • plugged inguinal lymphatic system (repeat infections, particularly parasitic origin)

pe: transilluminate, area should turn red to indicate fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

urethritis

A

inflammation of urethra (gonococcal or NGU)

culprits -
gonococcal: Neisseria gonorrhoeae (g- diplococci)
NGU: chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

reactive arthritis (aka Reiter’s syndrome)

A
  • associated with Reiter’s syndrome
    “can’t see, can’t pee, can’t dance with me”

triad: uveitis or conjunctivitis, reactive arthritis, and urethritis (or cervicitis in women)

  • balantis circinata
  • keratoderma blennorrhagica

lab dx: RF-seronegative, HLA-B27-linked spondyloarthropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

balantis circinata

A

serpiginous annular dermatitis of glans penis (inflammation)

c/b yeast or autoimmunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

keratoderma blennorrhagica

A

skin lesions on palms and soles (can spread to scrotum and trunk, looks like psoriasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

primary syphilis

A

occurs 10-90 days after contact with infected individual

male: glans penis
female: vulva or cervix

PAINLESS lesions: raised, firm, red papules (several cm) -> ulcerative crater with slightly elevated edges

regional NT LAD

usually heals in 4-8 wks with or w/o tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

secondary syphilis

A

skin lesions w/i 2-10 wks after primary chancre
- localized or diffuse mucocutaneous rash (nonpruritic, bilateral)

generalized NT LAD

constitutional sxs:

  • malaise
  • h/a
  • nausea
  • anorexia
  • bone pain
  • fatigue
  • fever
  • stiff neck
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tertiary syphilis

A

“the great imitator”
- gummas (soft, non-CA growth), neuro and cardiac sxs

slow progression and can affect any organ, but not infectious

  • impaired balance, parasthesia, incontinence, impotence
  • sensoneural hearing and vision loss
  • chest pain, back pain, stridor, sxs similar to aortic aneurysm
  • dizziness, h/a, blurred vision

gummatous 3-syphillis: 3-10 yrs after infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HPV

A

human papilloma virus

condyloma acuminata: genital warts d/t HPV stains 6 & 11

17
Q

testicular torsion

A

spermatic cord twists and cuts off blood supply to testicle

> > > diffuse testicular pain
decreased cremasteric reflex (stroking inner thigh to retract testicle)

90% due to congenital malformation, but can rarely be caused by trauma (usually young boys)

18
Q

congenital testicular torsion

A

“bell-clapper deformity” accounts for 90% of TT

mesorchium terminates early and testis is free floating in tunica vaginalis d/t insufficient tethering to spermatic cord, testis becomes entangled

i.e. intravaginal TT

19
Q

After age ___, TT has a greater association with testicular malignancy

20
Q

Testicular CA Types (%)

A

primary tumor is most common CA in men. ages 20-40 (avg ~30)

  • mixed forms (40%)
  • seminoma (35%)
  • embryonal (20%)
  • teratoma (5%)
21
Q

seminoma

A

may be felt on testicular self-exam

dx at 40 y/o

PE:
10-14% cases
- masses not-palpable or
- testicular atrophy might be present

histology:

  • sheet-like, locular pattern, fibrous stromal network
  • tumors have pale pink cytoplasm w/ abundant glycogen
22
Q

serum markers:

  • placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP): elevated in 50% of cases
  • human chrionic gonadotropin (hCG): sometimes elevated

serum alpha fetoprotein (AFP) NOT elevated

23
Q

embryonal carcinoma

A

germ cell tumor in ovaries or testes

dx at 30 y/o

PE: testicular lump, potentially painful

stats:

  • 10% of all testicular germ cell tumors
  • presents as part of 90% of MIXED non-seminoma GC tumors
  • 1/5 to 2/3 dx as metastasis
24
Q

serum markers:

- elevated hCG and AFP

A

embryonal carcinoma

25
serum alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
indicative of hepatocellular carcinoma, germ cell tumors, and metastatic liver CA
26
histology: - primitive tubules - sheets, glands, papillar structures composed of primitive epithelial cells with distinctive, crowded, pleomorphic nuclei - nuclear atypia, nucleoli prominent, nuclei overlap, mitoses common
embryonal carcinoma
27
teratoma
encapsulated tumor with tissues/organ components resembling normal derivatives of all three germ layers mesoderm: immature CT endoderm: GI lining cells/glands ectoderm: epidermis with keratin common form: well-circumscribed complex or anechoic cystic masses
28
benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
hyperplasia of prostatic stromal and epithelial cells --> large, fairly discrete nodules in periurethral region of prostate causes partial or complete obstruction of urethra i.e. dec urine flow DOES NOT inc. risk of CA
29
- urinary hesitancy, frequency, retention - dysuria - inc. risk of UTI
BPH Tx: transurethral resection of prostate (TURP)
30
prostatitis
inflammation of prostate may also present with cystitis or urethritis serum PSA may be elevated, but transrectal ultrasonograph or non-contrast CT needed to rule out prostatic abscess
31
histology: | - numerous, small dark, blue lymphocytes seen in stroma between glands
prostatitis
32
prostate CA
develops in men > 50 yo, rare in men
33
poorly differentiated glandular cells with enlarged nuclei and mitotic figures
prostatic adenocarcinoma
34
latent syphilis
may be latent from infection to 25 years, before onset of 3-syphilis - asymptomatic, but can be detected serologically - pt may recall sxs of 1-syphilis or 2-syphilis early latent: first year after resolution of 1 or 2-syphilis, can test + after - sero test late latent: not infectious, but in females can be transmitted in utero
35
congenital syphilis
early CS: occurs w/i first 2 years of life - rhinitis, f/b cutaneous lesions late CS: children > 2yo - problems with hearing and language development - vision - facial/dental abnormalities