Reproductive System Flashcards

(177 cards)

1
Q

Describe the three phases of the canine estrus cycle

A
  1. Proestrus:
    Estrogen rises –> vulva enlarges –> serosanguinous vaginal discharge –> attraction of males
  2. Estrus:
    Estrogen declines –> triggers LH surge –> ovulation –> female is receptive (behavioral estrus) –> progesterone begins to rise
  3. Diestrus:
    Progesterone is secreted from corpus luteum –> uterus prepares for implantation
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2
Q

Describe the role of progesterone

A

Produced by ovary after heat (estrus)
o After ovulation, follicle corpus luteum –> makes progesterone (diestrus)
o Required for normal pregnancy

Stimulates endometrial glands (increasing number and secretion) and prepares wall for fertilized ovum

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3
Q

What are the types of ovarian cysts?

A

Non-functional: incidental finding typically discovered when imaging/routine OHE
o Minimal to no clinical signs, may be identified at any age
o Surgical excision is curative, still want to submit for histopathology

Functional: hormone producing, arise from ovarian follicles
o Follicular cysts produce estrogen (most common)
o Luteal cysts produce progesterone (rare in dogs)

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4
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with the most common type of functional ovarian cyst?

A

Follicular cysts

Causes prolonged stage of estrus

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5
Q

What type of ovarian cyst might be associated with pyometra?

A

Progesterone-releasing cysts

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6
Q

What is the signalment associated with ovarian cysts?

A

Young adults (dogs

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7
Q

What is the treatment and prognosis of ovarian cysts?

A

Surgical excision is curative

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8
Q

Why can pyometra be associated with ovarian neoplasia?

A

Chronic release of progesterone as in a functional granulosa cell tumor causes endometrial hyperplasia and immunosuppression of the uterus, making bacterial proliferation more likely

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9
Q

What are the different tissues of origin for ovarian neoplasia and why is tissue-type significant?

A

Tissue of origin dictates effects of tumor

Epithelial: adenoma/adenocarcinoma - space occupying masses only
o Causes vague signs of inappetance, vomiting, lethargy, etc.

Stromal: granulosa cell tumor - functional
o Progesterone –> pyometra
o Estrogen –> persistent proestrus/estrus

Germ cell: dysgerminoma, teratoma, teratocarcinomas (tend to occur in young animals)

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10
Q

What is the general likelihood of metastatic disease with ovarian neoplasia?

A

Uncommon, 20-30%

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11
Q

Is metastatic ovarian disease more common in dogs or cats?

A

Cats

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12
Q

What is the significance of a metastatic, functional ovarian tumor?

A

More complicated than simple excision, but adjunctive treatment may improve survival

Functional tumors (estrogen) can cause irreversible bone marrow suppression

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13
Q

What is the prognosis for a solitary (non-metastatic) ovarian tumor?

A

complete exision is curative

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14
Q

What is the etiology of ovarian remnant syndrome?

A

Surgical error - ovarian tissue left behind at OHE, or tissue dropped into the abdomen that has revascularized

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15
Q

What are the clinical signs of ovarian remnant syndrome?

A

Recurrence of estrus cycle (even 2-3 years later)

Vulval swelling, behavioral estrus

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16
Q

Why is vaginal bleeding not typically seen with ovarian remnant syndrome?

A

The uterus has been removed

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17
Q

How is ovarian remnant syndrome diagnosed in the dog?

A
  1. Vaginal cytology (easiest)
    o Mimics normal heat cycle, must be done in standing heat
    o Inconsistent in cats
  2. Hormone assays
    o Elevated estrogen and progesterone, low LH
    o Cats may require lutenization first
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18
Q

Where should you look for the remnant when treating ovarian remnant syndrome?

A

Caudal pole of right kidney

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19
Q

How does ovariectomy differ from OHE?

A

Removal of ovary alone
o No risk of secondary effects (eg. pyometra) because hormones have been removed

Ligate ovarian vessels as for OHE –> ligate uterine vessels at proper ligament –> excise ovary

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20
Q

Which hormone is necessary for pyometra?

A

Progesterone

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21
Q

What is the most common bacteria found in pyometra?

A

E. coli

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22
Q

What are the typical historical findings of a dog with pyometra?

A
Recent heat cycle (4-8 weeks ago)
Polyuria/polydipsia 
Systemic illness – variable (anorexia, lethargy, vomiting, fever)
Abdominal pain/guarding
Vaginal discharge – purulent
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23
Q

Why is PU/PD associated with pyometra?

A

PU/PD caused by bacterial toxins that inhibit ADH in PT of kidney

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24
Q

What is the difference between open and closed pyometra, and how does that relate to severity of systemic signs?

A

Open cervix - discharge seen, but less systemically severe

Closed cervix - more severe

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25
How is pyometra diagnosed?
``` CBC/Chem consistent with sepsis/SIRS o Neutrophilia with left shift o Mild thrombocytopenia o Hypoalbuminemia o Mild cholestasis (bilirubin, liver enzymes up) ``` Radiographs (good), US (ideal) showing large fluid-filled uterus
26
How should a pyometra case be stabilized?
Stabilize with IV fluids +/- colloids IV antibiotics – empirical therapy for gram negative (usually ampicillin/enrofloxacin) Treat for SIRS if necessary
27
List the treatment options for pyometra, which is preferred, and why
1. OHE (preferred – better prognosis, no risk of recurrence) 2. Medical management Prostaglandin F2alpha – smooth muscle, cervix Systemic antibiotics Close monitoring
28
What are the indications that would make medical management of pyometra acceptable?
NOT systemically ill OPEN only Owner highly motivated and aware of risks
29
Why is medical treatment of closed pyometra contraindicated?
Prostaglandin + closed cervix = rupture
30
What is the likelihood of medical management preserving fertility in a pyometra case?
50%
31
What are the differences between the 'standard' OHE and OHE for pyometra?
Large incision – xiphoid to pubis Usually no need to break suspensory ligament Milk purulent material away from cervix Ligate prior to clamp placement – friable! Use noncrushing clamps (Doyen) Iatrogenic rupture possible!
32
What is the usual history of a dog with metritis?
Post partum (12 hours to 1 week)
33
What are the clinical signs of a dog with metritis?
Systemic illness | Foul-smelling reddish-brown discharge
34
What is the etiology of metritis?
Dystocia Obstetric manipulation Retained fetus or placenta Devitalized uterine tissue
35
How is metritis diagnosed? | What diagnostic procedure is not helpful?
Primarily based on timing following parturition Vaginal cytology not helpful (degen neutrophils and intracellular bacteria are normal postpartum) CBC/Chem changes similar to pyometra Imaging – similar to pyometra
36
What are the indications for medical treatment of metritis?
Valuable breeding animal Good response to initial therapy No devitalized tissue/retained placenta or fetus
37
Is treatment of metritis an emergency?
Yes, depending on severity
38
Which surgical procedure is typically used for metritis? | What is the prognosis?
OHE | Good prognosis
39
What is the impact of OHE on lactation
No effect on milk production
40
What is the pathophysiology of cystic endometrial hyperplasia?
Excess progesterone --> glandular tissue becomes cystic --> uterus fills with secretions --> cysts may become hemorrhagic
41
What history and clinical signs are compatible with cystic endometrial hyperplasia?
Failure to conceive | Patients usually bright and alert
42
How is cystic endometrial hyperplasia diagnosed?
US for cysts
43
Is treatment of cystic endometrial hyperplasia an emergency?
Not typically
44
What are the treatment options with cystic endometrial hyperplasia? What are the prognoses and which treatment is preferred?
OHE - good prognosis, preferred -necessary with hemorrhage (hematometra) Medical therapy - if valuable breeding animal and no vaginal bleeding
45
What is uterine torsion? | What causes it?
Rotation of uterine horn on long axis | Associated with dystocia, also reported with CEH, pyometra, etc.
46
Is uterine torsion a surgical emergency?
Yes
47
How is uterine torsion treated? | Should the torsed fetus be derotated?
OHE + removal of viable pups by c-section DO NOT derotate
48
What are the signalment, cause, and treatment options for uterine prolapse
More common in cats Complication of parturition, up to 48 hours following final fetus 1. Manual reduction 2. OHE - prevents recurrence
49
What is the relative risk of benign vs. malignant uterine neoplasia?
Benign: minimal signs, often incidental Malignant: likely metastatic, prognosis guarded
50
Is malignant uterine neoplasia more likely in dogs or cats?
Cats - variable in origin | In dogs most commonly benign leiomyomas
51
List the 6 critera for diagnosing dystocia
1. Prolonged gestation (>68 days) 2. Signs of toxemia during gestation 3. Stage 1 lasting >24 hours 4. No puppies >36 hours after temperature drop 5. Active stage 2 contractions >30 minutes 6. >4 hours between puppies
52
Which breeds are prediposed to dystocia?
Brachycephalic
53
What are the contraindications to medical treatment of dystocia?
``` Active contractions >30 minutes Fetal malposition (determined on palpation) Fetal distress (determined by US – fast or slow HR) ```
54
What are the two surgical treatments for dystocia? | How do they differ?
1. C-section (hysterotomy) | 2. En-bloc OHE: simultaneous OHE and dystocia treatment
55
What is the holding layer for closing incisions in the uterus?
Submucosa
56
What suture would you use to close incisions in the uterus?
``` 3-0/4-0 absorbable monofilament One layer (continuous) or two (+inverting) ```
57
What is the prognosis for dogs undergoing surgery for dystocia?
99% survival
58
What is the prognosis for puppies going through dystocia?
87% survival 2 hours post-op (lower for brachycephalic breeds)
59
What are the anatomic indications for an episiotomy approach to the vagina?
Anything caudal to the pelvis (vestibular and vaginal lesions) Access to just cranial of urethral opening (incision limited dorsally by rectum)
60
What is the proper positioning, incision, and closure for an episiotomy approach?
Position as for perineal surgery (leg drop) Incise on midline from vulvar opening (median raphe) Expect moderate hemorrhage Close in 3 layers: mucosa, muscle + SQ, skin
61
What are the anatomic indications for a ventral approach to the lower reproductive tract?
Intrapelvic and abdominal lesions
62
What is the difference between a caudal abdominal approach and a transpelvic approach to vaginal surgery?
Caudal abdominal approach: - ventral midline incision - limited access to lesions caudal of cervix Transpelvic: - ventral approach through pelvis (osteotomy) - very invasive, requires muscle elevation and bone removal
63
What is the etiology of vestibulovaginal stenosis?
Congenital developmental anomaly (no basis for genetic transmission) involving retained embryonic epithelial tissue
64
What are the 3 forms of vestibulovaginal stenosis?
1. Vertical septum (double vagina) - thin band of mucosa oriented dorsoventrally 2. Annular lesion (imperforage hymen) - ring-shaped narrowing - includes mucosa and submucosa +/- musularis 3. Hypoplasia - narrowed section of vaginal vault - uncommon
65
What are the clinical signs associated with vestibulovaginal stenosis?
Recurrent vaginitis +/- UTI Difficulty or pain with breeding Urinary incontinence
66
How is urinary incontinence related to vestibulovaginal stenosis? Will repair of the stenosis improve the incontinence?
Usually due to other urinary abnormalities | Surgery will not improve incontinence
67
How is contrast vaginourethrogram used to diagnose vestibulovaginal stenosis? What alternative diagnostic is considered best?
Iodinated contrast used to measure the maximum and minimum diameter of the vagina - ratio used to determine severity of stenosis Vaginoscopy provides direct visualization of stenosis
68
What are the indications for treatment of vestibulovaginal stenosis?
Breeding dogs | Spayed dogs with clinical signs
69
What general criteria are used to determine treatment of vestibulovaginal stenosis?
Lesion type and location
70
What are the treatment options for a simple septal vestibulovaginal stenosis?
* Digital breakdown ineffective 1. Episiotomy with mucosal resection at lesion attachments 2. Endoscopic laser ablation / scissor resection
71
Why is mucosal resection not an option in anular vestibulovaginal stenosis lesions? What treatment is preferred?
Annular lesions are prone to stricture 1. Vaginal resection and anastomosis (if caudal to pelvis) 2. Vaginectomy of cervix to uretheral opening (if intrapelvic)
72
What is the etiology of a recessed vulva?
Conformational abnormality (vulva is covered by skin)
73
What is the impact of prepubertal OHE on the incidence of recessed vulvas?
NO relationship
74
What is the impact of obesity on the incidence of recessed vulvas?
NO relationship
75
What clinical signs are associated with recessed vulvas?
Often asymptomatic Skin fold dermatitis/vaginitis Urine pooling may cause recurrent UTI or apparent incontinence
76
What procedure is typically recommended for the treatment of recessed vulva?
Episioplasty ('vulvoplasty') | Resection of extra skin, appose and close tissue
77
What is the prognosis for treatment of recessed vulva?
Good | Complications are rare and recurrent signs almost always resolve
78
What history and signalment is compatible with vaginal edema?
Young dogs in the first few proestrus/estrus cycles
79
What is the etiology of vaginal edema?
Mucosa becomes edematous --> protrudes from vulva --> tissue subject to drying/trauma
80
How is vaginal edema typically treated
Edema resolves with end of cycle (though will recur), lubricate and reduce until then OHE/OVE resolves and prevents recurrence Resection of tissue is alternative for breeding animals
81
How is vaginal prolapse differentiated from vaginal edema and neoplasia?
Entire circumference of vagina prolapses, creating a 'donut-shape'
82
What are the etiologies of vaginal prolapse?
Secondary to dystocia, constipation, forced separation
83
How is vaginal prolapse typically treated?
Manual reduction and OHE
84
What is the typical signalment associated with reproductive neoplasia?
Older (>10), intact female dogs
85
What is the relative likelihood of benign vs. malignant vaginal neoplasia?
80% benign (leiomyoma most common)
86
What is involved in the staging workup of vaginal neoplasia?
CBC/Chem/UA thoracic rads abdominal US Biopsy required to determine malignancy
87
How is benign vaginal neoplasia typically treated?
Full-thickness resection of vaginal wall at base of mass
88
What is the most common type of vaginal malignant neoplasia? | What are the characteristics of that malignancy?
Leimyosarcoma Relatively low risk of metastasis Locally invasive Survival good with local control of tumor
89
What is involved in surgical treatment of malignant vaginal tumors?
Aggressive resection (2-3 cm) via vulvovaginectomy
90
What breed may be predisposed to malignant mammary tumors?
German Shepherds
91
What is the relative likelihood of malignant mammary tumors in dogs, male vs female?
Most common neoplasm in female intact dogs, 50% are malignant Extremely rare in males, more likely benign
92
Is it more common to have single or multiple mammary tumors?
Multiple
93
Why is it important to remove all mammary tumors, and to test each one histopathologically?
Malignant transformation is possible | May see different histologic subtypes within the same dog
94
What is the difference between canine mammary hyperplasia and neoplasia?
Hyperplasia occurs after heat cycle and will regress | Typically multiple masses only a few mm in diameter
95
What tests are recommended in the workup of canine mammary neoplasia and why?
1. Minimum database 2. Three-view thoracic radiographs - 25-50% of malignancies have mets at initial diagnosis 3. Abdominal US/CT/MRI - especially for caudal mammary masses d/t drainage to iliac LNs
96
What is the value of cytology (FNA) in the workup of mammary tumors?
Questionable value - cannot definitively r/o malignancy and treatment is the same whether benign/malignant Can differente mammary tumor from other masses
97
List the 5 criteria of malignancy in mammary tumors
1. Rapid growth 2. Size (>1cm diameter) 3. Fixed to skin/underlying tissues 4. Poorly circumscribed 5. Ulceration or inflammation
98
What are the appropriate margins for wide excision of a potentially malignant mammary tumor?
2-3 cm circumference, fascia and muscle plane deep
99
What are the differences between the 4 excision procedures for mammary tumors? What are the indications for each?
1. Lumpectomy - removal of solitary, small mass located between glands or at periphery - contraindicated with any COM 2. Simple mastectomy - indicated for solitary masses, 1-2cm, within gland 3. Regional mastectomy - indicated for multiple tumors in adjacent glands - remove 1-3 or 3-5 - rarely used since likelihood of metastasis is great 4. Chain (radical) mastectomy - indicated for mulitple masses throught chain, tumors in gland 3 with any COM, or solitary masses anywhere with multiple COM
100
Which mastectomies are typically staged, and why?
Bilateral chain mastectomies | Risk of dehiscence is too high if done at the same time, stage 4-6 weeks apart
101
What is the prognosis for a benign mammary mass removal?
Good with complete resection
102
Describe the three stages of labor, including the events preceding and following it
• Temperature drop (
103
What size mammary masses are most likely to be benign in dogs?
104
What is the median survival time of malignant mammary disease?
1-2 years if no metastasis
105
What main factor of malignant mammary tumors is associated with longer survival?
Size (smaller tumors = longer survival)
106
What is the prognosis for dogs with metastatic mammary disease?
Poor. 80% recurrence with LN mets MST 5 months
107
What is the influence of OHE/OE on the risk of developing mammary tumors in dogs?
OHE prior to 1st estrus --> 0.5% risk OHE before 2 years reduces risk OHE after 2 years, no effect
108
What other procedure is typically recommended at the time of mastectomy? Which procedure is performed first?
OHE OHE performed first to avoid seeding tumor into abdomen
109
How is an inflammatory carcinoma differentiated form a standard mammary tumor?
Multiple glands affected in both chains with edema, erythema, and pain of affected glands
110
Is inflammatory carcinoma likely to be metastatic?
Highly likely
111
What is the prognosis of inflammatory carcinoma?
Poor, MST
112
Is surgical treatment usually recommended with inflammatory carcinomas?
No
113
What is the relative likelihood of malignant mammary tumors in cats?
90% malignant (adenocarcinoma) | Male and female rates similar
114
How does OHE affect the development of mammary tumors in cats?
Prior to 6 months = 10% risk | Prior ot 1 year = 15% risk
115
When is surgery of feline mammary tumors indicated? | Which procedure is typically selected?
Recommended if no metastasis Chain mastectomy No evidence that simultaneous OHE increases survival
116
When is adjunctive therapy recommended for feline mammary tumors?
Always
117
What 3 factors predict a good prognosis for feline mammary neoplasia?
1. Size: 3 years >3cm = MST ~6 months 2. Surgery More aggressive = better survival 3. Histologic grade
118
How is fibroadenomatous hyperplasia differentiated from feline mammary neoplasia
Characteristic appearance (cat boobs), definitive dx on histopath if needed
119
What signalment is associated with fibroadenomatous hyperplasia in cats?
Young (
120
Which hormone induces fibroadenomatous hyperlasia in cats? | What conditions is it associated with?
Progesterone-dependent | Complicated by trauma, infection, necrosis
121
Which surgical procedure is used to treat fibroadenomatous hyperplasia and why? Which approach is preferred?
OE/OHE (remove the hormones) Flank approach
122
Define: cryptorchidism
failure of either testicle to descend into the scrotum
123
At what age can cryptorchidism be diagnosed definitively?
6 months
124
How is cryptorchidism transmitted?
Genetically, with small breeds predisposed
125
What are the potential sequelae of cryptorchidism?
Sterility in affected testicle (always) Suppression of spermatogenesis in normal testicle Highly prone to neoplastic transformation Prone to torsion Often atrophied
126
Where can prescrotal testicles usually be palpated?
in SQ between inguinal ring and scrotum
127
How can testicles in the abdomen or inguinal region be located?
Abdominal US Exploratory laparotomy *recall origin is at caudal pole of kidney
128
What procedures are used when performing castration of a cryptorchid dog?
Remove abnormal testicle first Prescrotal - incise directly over testicle Abdominal - caudal celiotomy incision (skin adjacent to prepuce) --> divide preputial muscle and vessels --> midline linea incision --> follow testicular artery or vas deferens
129
In which patients is testicular torsion more common?
Abdominal cryptorchids
130
What are the clinical signs associated with testicular torsion?
May be mild (anorexia lethargy) to acute abdomen (marked pain, shock)
131
How is testicular torsion diagnosed?
Ultrasound, palpation
132
Is testicular torsion a surgical emergency?
Yes
133
What is the prognosis for testicular torsion with or without surgery?
Good with surgery | Fatal without
134
In cases of testicular torsion, should the testicle be derotated before it is ligated
no
135
Which condition predisposes to testicular neoplastic transformation?
Cryptorchidism
136
Can neoplastic testicles be functional?
Yes, functionality is common
137
How are functional testicular tumors associated with other secondary characteristics?
Feminism syndrome - Sertoli cell tumors (estrogen) - alopecia, prostate disease, gynecomastia, bone marrow suppression Testosterone - interstitial cell tumors - perineal hernias
138
What is the likelihood of metastatic disease with testicular tumors?
Rare,
139
Which surgical procedure is recommended for the treatment of un-metastasized testicular neoplasia? What is the prognosis?
Bilateral castration with scrotal ablation Surgery may be curative
140
What is scrotal ablation?
Removal of the scrotum along with castration
141
When is scrotal ablation indicated?
Neoplasia Torsion Castration of older, large-breed dogs
142
What is ligated and divided during vasectomy?
Vas deferens
143
Why does vasectomy have no effect on testosterone-related disease?
Testicles still intact
144
What is hypospadias?
incomplete formation of the penile urethra
145
What is the breed predilection for hypospadias?
Boston Terriers
146
How is hypospadias treated?
Urethrostomy proximal to abnormality | Excision of exposed mucosa and penile remnants
147
What is paraphymosis?
Inability to retract penis into prepuce
148
What causes paraphymosis?
Congenital - narrowed orifice, shortened prepuce | Acquired - trauma, infection, priapism (persistent erection)
149
What are the medical treatments for paraphymosis?
``` Reduce edema/swelling -hyperosmolar solutions -cold/heat Reduce paraphimosis -lube ```
150
What are the indications for surgical treatment of paraphymosis?
Recurrent condition Small diameter preputial opening Necrosis
151
Why is castration indicated for acquired paraphimosis?
In cases of priapism it will resolve the problem
152
When is penile amputation indicated in paraphimosis?
Necrosis
153
What is phallopexy?
Attaching of penis to prepuce
154
What procedure is indicated for tumors of the penis and prepuce?
Penis - penile amputation | Prepuce - preputial reconstruction
155
What are the common tumor types arising from the penis and prepuce?
Penis: TVT, papilloma, squamous cell, mast cell Prepuce: mast cell, TVT, melanoma
156
Which penile tumor is not treated surgically?
TVT - tx with vincristine
157
What is important about mast cell tumors of the prepuce?
More malignant than other sites
158
What two components are necessary for reconstruction of the prepuce?
``` Epithelial surface (local, haired skin) Mucosal surface (oral cavity) ```
159
What are the CS and PE findings with benign prostatic hyperplasia?
CS: dyschezia, dysuria PE: palpation of symmetrically enlarged, pain-free prostate
160
How is benign prostatic hyperplasia differentiated from other prostatic disease?
US shows characteristic homogenous enlargement of prostate
161
How is benign prostatic hyperplasia treated?
Castration
162
What are the two components of the etiology of prostatitis?
Ascending infection from the urethra (E. coli most common) | Pre-existing BPH
163
What are the clinical signs of prostatitis?
Dyschezia, dysuria, pain on urination/defecation, +/- purulent penile discharge
164
How is prostatitis differentiated from other prostatic disease?
Palpation - bilobed, symmetrical, painful! | US - heterogenous prostate with pathognomonic flocculent fluid
165
What are the ramifications of severe cases of prostatitis?
Rupture --> septic shock, peritonitis
166
What is the sx treatment for mild vs. severe cases of prostatitis?
Mild - castration | Severe - exploratory laparotomy and omentalizaiton + castration
167
What is omentalization of the prostate?
Bringing omentum into or through abscess cavity to improve drainage
168
What is the typical signalment of a dog with prostatic cysts?
Older, intact males
169
What are the clinical signs associated with prostatic cysts, and how is it differentiated from other prostatic disease?
Large, discrete mass in caudal abdomen May be asymptomatic 'Double bladder' on US Fluid aspiration is brown/watery
170
Which surgical procedure is indicated based on the structure of a prostatic cyst?
All cysts - castration Small with limited attachment - surgical resection Large or capsular/urethral communication - partial resection and omentalization
171
What is the prognosis for treatment of prostatic cysts
Good with sx
172
How is urinary incontinence related to prostatic cysts?
Resultant of anatomical changes in urethra by cyst, not the surgery
173
What is the most common type of prostatic neoplasia?
Adenocarcinoma
174
How common is prostatic metastatic disease?
80% at the time of diagnosis
175
What is the effect of castration on the incidence of and prognosis for prostatic neoplasia?
Castration --> increased incidence and risk of metastasis
176
What clinical signs are compatible with prostatic neoplasia?
dysuria, hematuris, urinary retention, dyschezia lameness d/t bone mets large, asymmetrical prostate on palpation
177
What treatment is recommended for prostatic neoplasia?
Palliative: - tube cystotomy - urethral stent Sx treatment not typically pursued d/t guarded prognosis