Reproductive system Flashcards

1
Q

mullerian ducts

A

What forms the female reproductive system, this is nullified when Y chromosome sets in males.

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2
Q

Wolffian ducts

A

What forms the male reproductive system

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3
Q

What maintains the temperature of the testes?

A

The scrotum, 1-3 C below core temperature that is required for normal sperm production. The CREMASTER skeletal muscle raises and lowers testes to regulate temperature.

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4
Q

Testes

A

descends into the scrotum during 7th month of fetal development through the inguinal canal.

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5
Q

spermatogonium

A

sperm forming cells in the testes this arise from the primordial germ cells that arise from the yolk sac endoderm

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6
Q

Seminal glands

A

Alkaline fluid that contains fructose, prostaglandins and clotting proteins. (60% of volume in semen.) . Fresh semen is semi-solid because of clotting proteins. Seminal glands should always be studied if prostate malignancy.

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7
Q

prostate gland

A

slightly acidic due to citric acid, acid phosphatase, prostate specific antigen, pepsinogen, lysozyme, amylase and hyalorunidase 20% of semen volume. enlargement of prostate comes with age but is also a sign of malignancy. Largest accessory organ.

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8
Q

bulbourethral glands

A

secretes alkaline substance protecting passing sperm neutralizing acid from urine. lubricating end of penis and lining of urethra decreasing sperm damage.

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9
Q

semen

A

mixture of sperm and seminal fluid (2.5- 5 ml in each ejaculation)

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10
Q

what is the typical sperm count?

A

50-150 mil/ml,

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11
Q

seminaplasmin

A

naturally produced antibiotic. neutralize normal flora of female reproductive system.

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12
Q

Penis

A

contains urethra and passageway for the ejaculation of semen and excretion of urine.

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13
Q

corpora cavernosa

A

during erections arteries dilate and expansion prevents venous drainage. When flaccid, arteries constrict and allows venous drainage. blood vessels respond to alpha receptors

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14
Q

Corpus spongiosum

A

keeps spongy urethra open

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15
Q

ejaculation

A

occurs through sympathetic reflex (alpha receptors)

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16
Q

circumcision

A

surgical removal of part of prepuce

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17
Q

cryptorchidism

A

undescended testes, may result in sterility. 3% full term babies, 30% premature babies. in 80% of cases testes descend during first year of life . 30-50x higher incidence for testicular cancer. unilateral or bilateral. surgery might be considered bc longer it takes to descend more damaged spermatogenesis due to heat.

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18
Q

Puberty

A

gonadotropin secretions high in newborns but decreases abruptly a few weeks after delivery.

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19
Q

what marks the beginning of puberty?

A

raising levels of FSH and LH

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20
Q

Hypospadias

A

1;300 abnormal opening of the urethra along the ventral (upper portion) surface. may result in urinary retention with recurrent UTI. May result in urinary incontinence

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21
Q

Epispadias

A

abnormal opening of the urethra along its dorsal (lower portion) surface. may result is urinary incontinence.

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22
Q

Balanitis

A

local inflammation of glans penis often occur with balanoposthitis

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23
Q

Balanoposthitis

A

local inflammation of the prepuce. tend to occur along with balanitis in uncircumcised males due to accumulation of smegma. can lead to phymosis and paraphymosis. may narrow opening of urethra and Pt. complains they cannot ejaculate. may need surgery

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24
Q

carcinoma penis

A

squamous cell carcinoma with HPV subtypes 16 and 18 that is usually present in the lesions. may be verrucouse or ulcerated.

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25
Q

Cryptochyrdism

A

0.7-0.8% of male population. failure of the testicle to descend into the scrotum. normally they descend from celomic cavity in the 3rd month, and arrive into the scrotum through the inguinal canal in last 2 months of intrauterine life. it is a common feature of congenital syndromes such as Prader-Willi. Most commonly effects right testicle but in 25% is bilateral. 4 fold incidence in undescended testicle and increase risk in contralateral one

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26
Q

Testicular tumors

A

most important cause of painless madd of testis. peak b/w ages of 15-34yr. olds. 95% arise from germinal cells and are malignant. history of cryptochydism is present in 10% of cases. most common in white population. may be preceded by chryptochidism or trauma

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27
Q

Seminoma

A

account for 50% of primary malignant tumor of the testes. the lesions is firm and painless and of germ cell origin. undescended testicles increase rick by 10-40x.

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28
Q

Kleinfelter’s syndrome

A

testicular dysgenesis due to an extra chromosome. This leads to sterility. more estrogen than testosterone narrowing of spermatic cord

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29
Q

Most common testicular tumors

A

mixed in type (60%). Teratoma (tumor fo 3 germinal layers), Embryonal cell carcinoma and yolk sack tumors.

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30
Q

Seminoma testicular tumor

A

peak age 40-50, 10% have elevated hCG

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31
Q

Embryonal carcinoma

A

Peak age: 20-30, 90% have elevated hCG or AFP or both

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32
Q

Circumcision debate

A

there is an increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma due to cell debris accumulation with foreskin, this can be reduced by proper hygiene.

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33
Q

Epididymis

A

the first structure to receive functional sperm cells. Any trauma or inflammation can create torsion on testes and lead to infertility. “testes blood barrier” acts like meninges.

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34
Q

Parenchyma of testes

A

have 2 specialized cells- sertoli and leydig.

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35
Q

Sertoli

A

nourishment for continuous production of spermatogonium and produces a hormone that inhibits FSH.

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36
Q

Leydig

A

produces testosterone and accelerates spermatogonium replication and differentiation.

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37
Q

Lab tests for infertility in males

A

sonography of vessels that nurture testicles, # of sperm count per ejaculation and characteristics of sperm.

38
Q

ABP

A

androgen binding protein secreted by sertoli cells

39
Q

What happens to sperm cells that are abnormal/

A

undergo apoptosis and are recycled to avoid antigen formation.

40
Q

how long does spermatogenesis take?

A

65-75 days

41
Q

what is the acrosome?

A

the tip of the sperm head that protects genetic material as sperm travels to oocyte

42
Q

What are signs of prostate malignancy?

A

difficulty in urination, frequency, urgency but cant completely empty bladder.

43
Q

Bowden’s disease/ carcinoma in situ

A

presence of large cells with mitotic figures. kollocytes- viral bodies inside squamous cells in HPV. treated locally but if it goes beyond basal membrane can be very risky

44
Q

teratoma

A

immature-> nervous tissue and is malignant, mature is benign and most common.

45
Q

Acute prostatitis

A

poor perfution due to poor vascularization. compressoin of prostatic urethra causes feeling of urgency and painful urination. infections from E coli. G-

46
Q

Chronic prostatitis

A

accompanied by lymphocytic inflammatory infiltrate due to low virulent bacteria.

47
Q

Benign prostatic hypertrophy

A

effects more than 90% of elderly. frequency and urinary retention. not malignant. growth of glandular and fibrous tissue that enlarges the gland and compress prostatic urethra.

48
Q

prostatic adenocarcinoma

A

most common visceral neoplasm in males second to lung cancer. peak incidence at and after 65 yr. latent lesion present >50% of 80 yr olds. 70 -80% arise in peripheral zone and palpable during rectal exams. less commonly associated with urinary retention.

49
Q

how surgeons classify lesions

A

1) microscopic
2) macroscopic
3) extracapsular
4) metastatic

50
Q

syphilis

A

spirochaetes. STD with 3 stages. primary= identified by the chancre. 2nd= identified by mucocutaneous lesions condyloma lata. 3rd= cardiovascular and neurosyphilis. treponema pallidum on dark field examination (not present in 3iary).

51
Q

Serologic test VDRL

A

venereal disease research laboratory if this is + then RPR is conclusive

52
Q

RPR

A

rapid plasma reagin

53
Q

gonorrhea

A

clinically manifested as a purulent urethral discharge in which causative organism is identified microscopically phagositized inside PMN;s yellow discharge from urethra. causes female infertility due to going unrecognized . curable in males. G- diplococci

54
Q

mons pubis

A

FUPA

55
Q

labia minora

A

similar to corpus spongiosum keeps vagina open?

56
Q

vestibule

A

region bw/ labia minora homologous to membranous urethra in males.

57
Q

UTI risk in females

A

increased bc urethra is shorter

58
Q

paraurethral glands

A

similar to prostate in males also called skene

59
Q

greater vestibular glands

A

bartholin’s, similar to bulbourethral glands in males

60
Q

layers of the ovary

A

germinal epithelium, tunica albuginea, ovarian cortex and overian medulla that has connective tissue

61
Q

follicular cells

A

single layer around oocyte

62
Q

granulosa cells

A

nourish developing oocyte and produces estrogen as follicle develops.

63
Q

graffian follicle

A

mature follicle that is prepared for the release of a second oocyte.

64
Q

corpus luteum

A

yellow body that produces progesterone, estrogen, relaxin and inhibin.

65
Q

isthmus

A

where fertilization occurs and maybe ectopian pregnanices

66
Q

ampulla

A

next to uterus

67
Q

gonadotropin

A

high in new borns but decreases abruptly after few weeks of delivery until puberty marked by increasing levels of FSH and LH

68
Q

lactiferous sinus

A

where milk is produced

69
Q

LH in women

A

promotes ovulation and corpus luteum

70
Q

estrogen

A

causes lining of uterine to grow, progesterone makes endometrium receptive to implantation in secretory phase. estrogen production weens during ovulation. estrogen also comes from placenta for nutrition.

71
Q

when is pregnant belly identified?

A

5 mos

72
Q

amniocentesis

A

most common test performed (30+ women risk increases) done after 12th week of gestation and can remove 5 ml of fluid

73
Q

chorionic cilli sampling

A

CVS, more than 2 miscarriages but increases risk for miscarriage. takes sample of placenta villi. used to test fetus earlier in life but very risky.

74
Q

Alpha fetoprotein

A

measured in serum is different than in amniotic fluid in babies that have genetic abnormalities or neural tube defects.

75
Q

1st way to identify pregnancy

A

hCG –> rescues corpus luteum until 3/4 mos.

76
Q

hCS

A

prepares mammary glands for lactation, decreases glucose use and increases fatty acid use for ATP production

77
Q

Corticotropin releasing hormone

A

establishes time of birth increases secretion of cortisol

78
Q

water breaking

A

can lead to infection of baby

79
Q

Condyloma acuminata

A

HPV,

80
Q

STDs in women

A

HPV, herpes simplex 2, gonococci infection, syphilis

81
Q

candida albicans

A

fungi in vagina, opportunistic, diabetes mellitus and other immune compromised pts. are high risk

82
Q

condyloma lesions

A

latum- flat, moist and minimally elevated. acuminata= papillary, elevated in anogenital region. microscopically has koilocytosis (ballooning of cells)

83
Q

lichen sclerosis

A

vuvlar dystrophy manifested by hyperkeratosis, thinning of epidermis and dermal sclerosis with adnexal atrophy

84
Q

squamous hyperplasia

A

vuvlar dystrophy. epithelial thickening and hyperkeratosis. there is no predisposition for cancer development even though this is present around margins of vulvar cancer.

85
Q

vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia

A

ranges from mild dysplasia to carcinoma in situ.

86
Q

extramammary paget’s

A

occurs in bone and looks like pop corn

87
Q

melanoma

A

goes unnoticed until metastasized into other organs.

88
Q

vaginitis

A

inflammation of mucosa of vagina only. candida sp, trichomonas

89
Q

squamous cell carcinoma

A

occurs in postmenopausal. pap smear prevents inflammation into malignancy

90
Q

clear cell adenocarcinoma

A

lesion in late teen girls from mothers who received diethystillbestrol during pregnancy

91
Q

sarcoma botryoides

A

embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma produces soft polypoid mass.

92
Q

urticaria

A

purple coin like lesions, IgE 20-40 yo and women