Republic KV Prep Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
Republic alcohol policy
A
12 hours and < .02% BAC
2
Q
What is needed for reporting for duty?
A
Power brick, iPad 90% charged, Comply365 and Jepp updated, Pilot cert, medical, passport, flashlight, radio license
3
Q
When is show time?
A
45 minutes prior
4
Q
If FO will be late, notify captain within how much time?
A
30 minutes
5
Q
Inflight APU shuts for
A
UFO: Underspeed, FADEC critical, Overspeed
6
Q
On ground, APU shuts for
A
UFO, SHELF: Underspeed, FADEC critical, Overspeed; Sensor fail, high oil temp, EGT high, low oil temp, fire
7
Q
What does APU provide
A
Electrical and bleed
8
Q
What happens when APU EMER STOP button pressed
A
Fuel SOV closes and immediate shutdown
9
Q
Where do packs distribute air to?
A
Pack 1: Flight deck and cabin; Pack 2: Cabin
10
Q
Number of fans in AFT electronics bay
A
0
11
Q
How many recirc fans to move air into cabin and flight deck?
A
2
12
Q
What keeps the 3 avionics e-bays cool?
A
Forward and center: 3 fans; Aft: natural air flow
13
Q
Wing span with extended winglets?
A
93’ 11”
14
Q
When is FD displayed?
A
TOGA pressed; any LNAV or VNAV; AP on and windshear detected
15
Q
SPDe modes?
A
Both FLCH modes and Overspeed
16
Q
APPR2 requirements
A
Both mins set on RA between 800 and 1500; both NAV tuned to correct LOC; Both PFD show correct course; both PFD show valid mins; flaps 5
17
Q
SPDt modes
A
PTH; VS; FPA; ALT; ASEL; GS
18
Q
Takeoff mode - min and max pitch?
A
8-18 degrees
19
Q
GA does not transition to ASEL/ALT if selected ALT is within xxx of TOGA hit?
A
400 feet
20
Q
VNAV approach temp comp adjusts FMS waypoints for:
A
Approach transition; MIssed approach
21
Q
Windshear detection available at what altitudes?
A
Between 10’ and 1500’
22
Q
Batteries will provide power for essential loads for how long?
A
10 minutes
23
Q
What would we use DC GPU for?
A
APU start if Batt2 unavailable
24
Q
What is source priority for electrical power?
A
Respective IDG, APU, Ground, Opposite IDG
25
How many networks make up electrical system?
2
26
Arrive at plane with GPU powering plane.
Start APU. How can you tell if APU is powering aircraft
GPU button shows AVAIL and MFD electrical page shows APU
27
When would amber IDG light illuminate
High oil temp, Low oil temp, test
28
IDG LED purpose
Shows which IDG to disconnect when EICAS message appears
29
What does AVAIL indicate?
Voltage, Amperage and Frequency good
30
What should pilot do when switching from GPU to APU for power?
Push AVAIL button out to prepare for next time
31
What charges battery?
Any AC source
32
What is powered when Batt1 is off?
Hot batt bus
33
When is hot batt bus powered
Always
34
What are some items on hot batt bus?
Engine oil indications, Fire extinguishers, Fuel and Hydraulic SOV's, Courtesy lights, refueling panel, Water and waste systems, CMC (Central Maintenance Computer)
35
If aircraft at gate with GPU connected and engine started, is electrical system split?
Yes
36
What is available during an electrical emergency?
Compass backlight, CA CCD, FO MCDU, clock, DU2/3, both audio control panels, guidance panel
37
During normal operations, are both detector loops required to receive a warning?
Yes
38
Bottle discharge for FWD Cargo fire in flight with ANNUNCIATED fire?
Must push button for HRB. LRB goes automatically 1 minute later
39
On ground, how long for APU to shut automatically if there is a fire?
10 seconds
40
What indications exist for Lav fire extinguisher discharging?
None
41
How is cabin protected from fire?
4 Halon extinguishers
42
What does pulling fire handle do?
Closes: Fuel SOV, Hydraulic SOV, bleed, xbleed
43
What are indications of an APU fire?
FIre bell and triple chime, 2 master warning, red stripe on emergency stop button, EICAS message
44
Will APU shut inflight for fire?
No
45
If APU EMER STOP hit after fire detected, what happens?
SOV closes, APU shuts immediately, red stripe turns white
46
What happens if APU EMER STOP not hit after fire is detected?
After 1 minute red stripe illuminates. If on ground, APU shuts in 10 seconds
47
What does it take for APU FIRE EXT light to illuminate?
1) EMER STOP pushed after fire detected; or 2) Fire detected and no action taken for 60 seconds
48
When does red bar on APU EMER STOP button illuminate
APU fire
49
Pressing APU FIRE EXT causes what to happen?
SOV closes, APU shuts, bottle fires
50
Can LRB be fired prior to 1 minute in flight?
Yes, by pushing extinguisher second time
51
How can LRB be fired if on ground?
Push extinguisher second time
52
Will LRB discharge automatically on ground?
No
53
If no smoke detected, what is cargo fire extinguisher logic IN FLIGHT
Button must be pushed TWICE
54
If no smoke detected, what is cargo fire extinguisher logic ON GROUND
3 pushes required. 1 to arm HRB, 1 to fire HRB. 1 to fire LRB (if desired)
55
If smoke IS detected, what is cargo fire extinguisher logic ON GROUND
2 pushes required
56
If smoke IS detected, what is cargo fire extinguisher logic IN FLIGHT
1 push required
57
What are the indications that smoke is detected in the lav?
EICAS and 2 master warnings. FA orange light. Won't know which lav though
58
Difference between Normal and Direct mode?
Direct bypasses FCM and has no high level functions
59
Will speed brakes and ground spoilers work in direct mode?
No
60
Does autopilot work if elevator in direct mode?
No
61
What are rudder high level functions?
Yaw damper, airspeed gain scheduling, turn coordination
62
Will multifunction spoilers work in direct mode?
Yes, but with default gain
63
What is priority for trim?
Backup, Captain, FO, FCM (AP)
64
What are elevator high level functions?
Airspeed gain scheduling, AOA limit, Elevator Thrust Compensation
65
How does fly by wire work?
FCM connects to ACE, giving input based on pilot inputs
66
With spoilers in direct mode, what MF spoiler functions will not work?
Speed brakes; Ground Spoilers
67
What happens when you press only half of the trim switch?
Deactivates
68
What flight controls use electrical power to actuate?
Slat/Flap and stab trim
69
When will speed brakes automatically close?
Flaps >= 2; TLA >=70; Speed ,=180
70
Which flaps settings approved for takeoff?
1, 2, 4
70
What happens when stick shaker is activated?
Nose up control authority is limited
71
What will interrupt electrical PBIT?
AC interruption; Hydraulic pump turned on; any mode switch pressed
72
How long are the PBIT's?
Electric: 3 minutes; Hydraulic: 1 minute
73
Which displays can be reverted?
PFD (DU 1/5); EICAS (DU3)
74
What do the takeoff crossbars provide?
Extended centerline; pitch attitude
75
What is the operating range for the radar altimeter?
-20 to 2500
76
How many IRS (Inertial Reference Systems) does the aircraft have?
2
77
When will the FD automatically display?
TOGA pressed; AP on; Wind shear detected
78
When is TOGA mode deactivated?
Another vertical mode selected; AP activated
79
When will the AC fuel pump turn on automatically?
Ejector pump fails; Crossfeed ops; engine start; APU operation if ejector pump not operating
80
When can DC pump be used?
On ground and in flight
81
Why do we have the DC pump?
Provides pressurized fuel for engine start and APU operation when no AC power or AC pump operating
82
What is fuel pump logic?
Primary ejector; AC pump; DC pump
83
Each hydraulic system has an EDP and ACMP (T/F)?
False
84
If both engines fail, what provides hydraulic pressure until the RAT comes online
Hydraulic 3 accumulator
85
Will the PTU operate on the ground if in AUTO?
No
86
Which systems use hydraulic power?
Flight controls and spoilers; brakes; gear; nosewheel steering; thrust reversers
87
What are primary and backup source for hydraulic system 3?
ACMP 3A and ACMP 3B
88
When will hydraulic ACMP activate automatically ON GROUND?
Flaps > 0 and TLA T/O or Flaps > 0 and GS>50
89
Can we disable EDP by pressing SYS1 or SYS2 Engine pump shutoff?
No
90
What happens when pushing HYD SYS1 or SYS2 ENGINE PUMP SHUTOFF buttons?
SOV closes
91
Why does HYD ACPM 3A have ON position?
It is primary for system 3
92
Why does HYD ACPM 3B have AUTO position?
It is backup for system 3
93
What items on hydraulic system 2 different from hydraulic system 1?
Nosewheel steering; inboard brakes; landing gear
94
When will hydraulic PBIT run?
On ground when all 3 system pumps turned on
95
What will interrupt hydraulic PBIT
Moving flight controls
96
What happens if there is a bleed source failure?
Crossfeed automatically opens
97
How long will the anti icing system remain on if icing detected?
2 or 5 minutes, depending on EPIC load?
98
What does selecting ALL on MCDU T/O dataset menu provide for ENGINE, and how long if no ice detected and in AUTO mode?
AI until 1700 AFE or 2 minutes
99
What does selecting ALL on MCDU T/O dataset menu provide for WINGS, and how long if no ice detected and in AUTO mode?
AI from wheelspeed > 40 until 1700 AFE or 2 minutes
100
With ice detection selector in AUTO and T/O dataset ref AI set to OFF, how long is wing and engine AI inihibited?
1700 AFE and 2 minutes
101
What is max speed if wiper is failed unparked?
Vmo
102
What happens if wiper turned on for dry windshield?
Won't operate
103
Autobrakes will be disarmed for what conditions?
Autobrake switch turned off; brakes pressed, Thrust levers not idle, BCM failure
104
When is LG WARN INHIB switch used?
To inhibit gear warning for DUAL RA failure
105
When would you use alternate gear extension procedure?
If hydraulic not available or electrical system fails
106
When would you use the electrical override switch?
When gear lever control box fails. Bypass PSEM
107
When is anti-skid protection deactivated?
Wheel speed < 10
108
What conditions required for autobrakes to engage during rejected takeoff?
Thrust levers idle; Wheel speed < 60; no brakes applied
109
What conditions required for green towing light to illuminate?
Steering disengaged; brakes off
110
What determines minimum turn radius with standard winglets?
Horizontal stabilizer tip
111
When does touchdown protection deactivate for braking?
3 seconds after WOW; wheelspeed > 50
112
What disengages rudder pedal steering?
Activation of nosewheel steering
113
What are the 4 levels of EICAS alerts
Warning, caution advisory, status
114
TO Config checks for what?
Parking brake, flaps, pitch trim
115
What does EICAS full button do?
Out declutters; in gives full info
116
When does EICAS de clutter happen?
30 seconds after gear and flaps retracted
117
What is DUMP button used for?
Emergency evacuation; smoke evacuation; rapid decompression
118
What happens when DUMP button is pressed?
Packs and fans off; outflow valve set to 2000 FPM climb then continues by natural leak
119
Is the pressurization system still in normal when LFE is manual?
Yes
120
The pressurization system consists of:
Outflow valve; static pressure port; negative and positive relief valves; cabin pressure controller
121
Will the DUMP button work when pressurization system is in manual mode?
No, but packs and fans will be commanded off
122
How can you determine position of the outflow valve?
MFD ECS synoptic page
123
What color is the LFE on the EICAS?
Green=FMS
Cyan=Manual
124
What does the overheat detection system monitor?
Bleeds, packs, plumbing, APU bleeds
125
What provides air for the AMS?
Engine bleed, APU bleed, external
126
Air from the pneumatic system provides:
Engine start; ECS; anti-ice; water pressure
127
What allows oxygen into mask to remove smoke and fumes?
Purge valve
128
Where would you find oxygen system parameters and indications?
MFD Status page
129
What are the minimums for oxygen on flight deck?
Green: 3 crew
Cyan: 2 crew
Amber: no dispatch
130
What activates when oxygen masks removed from storage?
Oxygen flows to mask; headsets off; speaker on; mask microphone on
131
What happens if test/reset button pressed while masks not stowed?
Oxygen stops and mask microphone turns off. Headsets turn back on
132
What type of oxygen is provided in each setting?
Emergency: 100 percent under pressure
100 percent: Pure oxygen
Normal: 100 percent mixed with cabin air
133
What is indication of successful universal DVDR test?
No fail on EICAS and steady green light at end of test
134
If not selected on MCDU, when does DVDR start recording?
First engine start
135
Inhibit button lasts for how long?
500 seconds
136
When will cockpit door automatically open?
30 seconds after emergency entry button pressed if inhibit is not pressed
137
How many halo on fire extinguishers on the aircraft?
5
138
How many portable oxygen bottles?
2
139
Once illuminated how long will the emergency lights last?
10 minutes
140
What emergency equipment is on the flight deck?
Crash ax; 2 flashlight; 2 escape rope; fire resistant gloves; 3 oxygen masks; 3 life vests; 2 PBE; halon fire extinguisher 
141
What data does the IRS calculate for navigation
Position; ground speed; heading; altitude 
142
What will trigger an ATTCS event?
N1 diff > 15%
Wind shear
Engine failure during takeoff or GA
143
What happens if a thrust Reserver deploys inflight?
FADEC idles engine
144
What does ATTCS provide
Max thrust reserve
145
What powers hydraulics when we are waiting for the RAT?
Hydraulic three accumulator
146
What is the difference between oxygen gauge inside and outside the plane?
The inside one on the MFD includes compensation for temperature
147
Which parts of the wings an engine are heated
Outboard three slats on wings and engine cowl
148
Can airplane be fueled with no power on?
Yes using hot battery bus 2
149
What is timeframe for a CDL deferral?
120 days
150
Can you tell from the outside whether a passenger door is armed?
No you can only see the position of the vent flap
151
What is the minimum fuel temperature on the ground and at altitude?
-37c and -65c
152
What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?
Maintain fuel level in collector tanks
153
When do the masks automatically drop?
Between 14,000 and 14,750 cabin elevation
154
How many TRU’s are there and what do they do?
3. Convert AC to DC
155
How many inverters are there and what does an inverter do?
One and it converts DC to AC
156
What happens if the EICAS fails?
If reversionary panel display switch is in auto it displays on the MFD
157
What are the braking protections?
Locked wheel protection
anti-skid protection
automatic wheel braking touchdown protection
158
What is the difference between factored and unfactored landing distance
Factored accounts for stopping Within 60% of available. Wet or slippery adds 15 percent. Unfactored is exact amount of runway needed to stop
159
What provides electrical power during the eight seconds prior to the RAT coming online?
Batteries via the DC essential bus and the AC stand by bus
