resp Flashcards

1
Q

lung Ca causing SIADH

A

small cell carcinoma

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2
Q

mx of person with frequent IECOPD

A

home Abx (if purulent or clinical signs of pneumonia) and prednisolone 30mg (plus bronchodilator frequency increased)

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3
Q

mx COPD

A

SABA/SAMA
LABA +ICS
LAMA LABA ICS

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4
Q

pneumoconiosis where are opcaities

A

upper zones

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5
Q

Small cell cancer special features

A

ADH → hyponatraemia
ACTH → Cushing’s syndrome
ACTH secretion can cause bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, the high levels of cortisol can lead to hypokalaemic alkalosis
Lambert-Eaton syndrome: antibodies to voltage gated calcium channels causing myasthenic like syndrome

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6
Q

phases of churg strauss

A

1 allergy rhinitis asthma
2eosinophilia
3 vasculitis pANCA

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7
Q

severe asthma

A

PEFR 33 - 50% best or predicted
Can’t complete sentences
RR > 25/min
Pulse > 110 bpm

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8
Q

buproprion contraindicated in

A

epilepsy

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9
Q

fev1 in moderate (stage 2 copd)

A

50-79% (very severe <30%)

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10
Q

sleep apnoea scale

A

epworth

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11
Q

Facial rash plus lymphadenopathy

A

sarcoidosis

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12
Q

causes ARDS

A
infection: sepsis, pneumonia
massive blood transfusion
trauma
smoke inhalation
acute pancreatitis
cardio-pulmonary bypass
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13
Q

lung mets caused by

A
breast cancer
colorectal cancer
renal cell cancer
bladder cancer
prostate cancer
(before computers people read books)
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14
Q

smoking cessation in preggo

A

none or nicotine replacement patch

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15
Q

long term o2 therapy if

A

pO2<7.3 twice

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16
Q

asbestos causes

A
benign pleural plaques
asbestosis- lower lobe fibrosis
mesothelioma- blue asbestos
pleural thickening
lung Ca
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17
Q

mx sarcoidosis

A

if asymptomatic nothing

first line prednisolone (hyper calcaemia etc)

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18
Q

features of steroid responsiveness in COPD

A

previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy
a higher blood eosinophil count
substantial variation in FEV1 over time (at least 400 ml)
substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%)

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19
Q

mx of atelectasis

A

chest physiotherapy

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20
Q

Asthma may be diagnosed if any of the following criteria are met (in adults)

A

An exhaled FeNO of 40 parts per billion or greater (hence option 1 is incorrect)
A post-bronchodilator improvement in lung volume of 200 ml (hence option 2 is incorrect)
A post-bronchodilator improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more (hence option 3 is CORRECT)
A peak expiratory flow rate variability of 20% or more (hence option 4 is incorrect)
An FEV1/FVC ratio <70% (it is an obstructive lung disease) - hence option 5 is incorrect

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21
Q

haemoptysis for the past two weeks. Clinical examination reveals a loud first heart sound, a diastolic murmur and new-onset atrial fibrillation.

A

Haemoptysis in mitral stenosis is thought to occur secondary to rupture of the bronchial veins caused by raised left atrial pressure.

22
Q

Fibrosis predominately affecting the lower zones

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
most connective tissue disorders (except ankylosing spondylitis) e.g. SLE
drug-induced: amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate
asbestosis

23
Q

upper zone fibrosis charts

A
C - Coal worker's pneumoconiosis
H - Histiocytosis/ hypersensitivity pneumonitis
A - Ankylosing spondylitis
R - Radiation
T - Tuberculosis
S - Silicosis/sarcoidosis
24
Q

COPD mx after SABA/SAMA in asthma feature pictue

25
Surgery contraindications
stage IIIb or IV (i.e. metastases present) FEV1 < 1.5 litres is considered a general cut-off point* malignant pleural effusion tumour near hilum vocal cord paralysis SVC obstruction
26
mx ptx
primary less than 2 discharge more than 2 drain 2dary drain/ admit
27
pH to intubate in acute asthma
less than 7.35 likely represents carbon dioxide retention in a tiring patient
28
azithromycin ix before starting
ECG and LFTs
29
when to use NIV in COPD
The evidence surrounding the use of NIV in COPD shows that patients with a pH in the range of 7.25-7.35 achieve the most benefit. If the pH is < 7.25 then invasive ventilation should be considered if appropriate
30
mx A1AT deficiency (obstructive)
no smoking supportive: bronchodilators, physiotherapy intravenous alpha1-antitrypsin protein concentrates surgery: lung volume reduction surgery, lung transplantation
31
first-line treatment for moderate/severe obstructive sleep apnoea
Following weight loss, CPAP
32
tx in COPD that helps with exercise tolerance
pulmonary rehab
33
causes of exudative pleural effusion
``` Exudate (> 30g/L protein) infection: pneumonia (most common exudate cause), TB, subphrenic abscess connective tissue disease: RA, SLE neoplasia: lung cancer, mesothelioma, metastases pancreatitis pulmonary embolism Dressler's syndrome yellow nail syndrome ```
34
causes of transudate effusion
heart failure (most common transudate cause) hypoalbuminaemia (liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, malabsorption) hypothyroidism Meigs' syndrome
35
sleep apnoea ix
polysomnography
36
varencicline moa
nicotinic partial agonist
37
ank psond lung changes
restrictive- apical fibrosis and kyphosis
38
haemoptysis in valvulopathy
Haemoptysis in mitral stenosis is thought to occur secondary to rupture of the bronchial veins caused by raised left atrial pressure.
39
breathlessness after effusion drained
reexpansion pulmonary oedema
40
Bilateral interstitial shadowing in RA pt
methotrexate pneumonitis
41
tx and prevention of high altitude cerebral oedema
dexamethosone | acetazolamide
42
when to assess for LTOT
very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 < 30% predicted). Assessment should be 'considered' for patients with severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 30-49% predicted) cyanosis polycythaemia peripheral oedema raised jugular venous pressure oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air
43
mediastinal mass ddx
4 T's: teratoma, terrible lymphadenopathy, thymic mass and thyroid mass
44
KCO vs TLCO
KCO is TLCO divided by the alveolar volume, which makes it a measure of how efficient gas exchange is in relation to the alveolar-capillary surface to volume ratio. In asthma, this is increased because there is increased pulmonary blood flow which increases the number of cells which come into contact with the gas.
45
causes of a rasied TLCO
``` asthma pulmonary haemorrhage (Wegener's, Goodpasture's) left-to-right cardiac shunts polycythaemia hyperkinetic states male gender, exercise ```
46
how to ascend safely
less than 500m a day, rest every 3rd day
47
empyema features
turbid effusion with pH<7.2, Low glucose, High LDH
48
Low total gas transfer with normal/ increased transfer coefficient
Extrapulmonary restrictive defect, or pneumonectomy
49
causes of bronchiectasis
post-infective: tuberculosis, measles, pertussis, pneumonia cystic fibrosis bronchial obstruction e.g. lung cancer/foreign body immune deficiency: selective IgA, hypogammaglobulinaemia allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) ciliary dyskinetic syndromes: Kartagener's syndrome, Young's syndrome yellow nail syndrome
50
indications for chest drain from aspirate info
Patients with frankly purulent or turbid/cloudy pleural fluid on sampling should receive prompt pleural space chest tube drainage. The presence of organisms identified by Gram stain and/or culture from a non-purulent pleural fluid sample indicates that pleural infection is established and should lead to prompt chest tube drainage. Pleural fluid pH < 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection indicates a need for chest tube drainage.
51
when is surgery an optioin in bronchiectasis
localised disease only
52
problem with CRP in pneumonia monitoring
it lags behind actual infection (2 types of error)