Respiratory 1 Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Closure or collapse of alveoli or possibly filled with alveolar fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are common clinical manifestations of acute atelectasis?

A

Tachycardia, tachypnea, pleural pain, central cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are common risk factors for atelectasis?

A
  • Older age
  • Bedrest without frequent changes in position
  • Recent surgery
  • Lung disease (COPD, asthma, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the primary goal in managing atelectasis?

A

Improve ventilation and remove secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are first-line measures for managing atelectasis?

A
  • Frequent turning
  • Early ambulation
  • Lung volume expansion maneuvers
  • Coughing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

Decrease in the arterial oxygen tension in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Decrease in oxygen supply to tissues and cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is postural drainage used for?

A

Assists in the removal of bronchial secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is influenza?

A

Highly contagious respiratory illness caused by a virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three serotypes of the influenza virus?

A
  • A
  • B
  • C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the incubation period for influenza?

A

1-4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are common clinical manifestations of influenza?

A
  • Fever
  • Chills
  • Myalgia
  • Headache
  • Sore throat
  • Fatigue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the common diagnostic tests for influenza?

A
  • Viral cultures
  • RT-PCR
  • Rapid influenza diagnostic test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the best prevention strategy for influenza?

A

Influenza vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the common side effects of the Trivalent Inactivated Influenza vaccine (TIV)?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Low grade fever
  • Headache
  • Injection site reactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is pneumonia?

A

Acute infection of lung parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are risk factors for pneumonia?

A
  • Smoker
  • Alcohol use
  • Immunosuppressed
  • Chronic diseases
  • Prolonged immobility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is pneumonia classified?

A
  • Community-acquired (CAP)
  • Hospital-acquired (HAP)
  • Ventilator-associated (VAP)
  • Aspiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is CURB-65 used for?

A

To aid in the decision to hospitalize pneumonia patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are potential complications of pneumonia?

A
  • Atelectasis
  • Pleurisy
  • Pleural effusion
  • Pneumothorax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the role of antibiotics in pneumonia treatment?

A

Prompt treatment with antibiotics is a priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a tracheostomy?

A

Surgically created stoma used to establish a patent airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the advantages of a tracheostomy compared to an endotracheal tube?

A
  • Easier to keep clean
  • Better oral and bronchial hygiene
  • Increased patient comfort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is tuberculosis (TB)?

A

Infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the most common clinical manifestation of pulmonary TB?
Initial dry cough that becomes productive
26
What does the Tuberculin Skin Test (TST) assess?
Development of antibodies secondary to exposure to TB
27
What is the purpose of bacteriologic studies in TB diagnosis?
Required for diagnosis, involves consecutive sputum samples
28
What is a common complication of pneumonia?
Sepsis/septic shock
29
What is the recommended testing method for health care workers getting repeated testing and those with decreased response to allergens?
Two-step testing ## Footnote This method is particularly relevant for accurate tuberculosis screening.
30
What test will patients who have received the BCG vaccine typically show a positive result on?
Mantoux test
31
What type of assays are known as Interferon-γ gamma release assays?
IGRAs ## Footnote T-SPOT is an example of this type of assay.
32
What might a chest x-ray show in a patient with tuberculosis?
Lesions in upper lobes
33
What is required for the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
Bacteriologic studies ## Footnote Consecutive sputum samples obtained on 3 different days.
34
Is hospitalization necessary for most tuberculosis patients?
No
35
For how long is a patient with a positive sputum considered infectious after starting treatment?
First 2 weeks
36
What is required for a patient to be discharged to home if they are at high risk?
Three consecutive negative sputum smears ## Footnote These must be obtained on three different days.
37
What criteria must be met for a tuberculosis patient to be discharged to home?
* Started on an appropriate multiple drug regimen and tolerating medications * Medically stable and able to care for self * Understands and can comply with home isolation * Ongoing follow up and treatment plan established
38
What is the initial treatment phase duration for newly diagnosed active tuberculosis?
8 weeks
39
What are the four drugs commonly used in tuberculosis treatment?
* Isoniazid * Rifampin * Pyrazinamide * Ethambutol
40
What should patients be taught regarding tuberculosis drug therapy?
About side effects and when to seek medical attention
41
What liver functions should be monitored during tuberculosis treatment?
AST & ALT
42
What is a major factor in multidrug resistance and treatment failures in tuberculosis?
Noncompliance
43
What is the preferred strategy to ensure adherence to tuberculosis treatment?
Directly observed therapy (DOT)
44
What treatment is usually given to health care workers who develop a positive TB test?
Isoniazid for 6 to 9 months
45
What are the alternative regimens for latent TB infection treatment?
* 3-month regimen of Isoniazid and rifapentine * 4 months of rifampin
46
True or False: Patients are considered noninfectious after 2 to 3 weeks of continuous medication therapy.
True
47
What is atelectasis?
Atelectasis is the collapse of alveoli in the lungs.
48
What are the main nursing interventions for preventing atelectasis?
* Frequent turning * Early mobilization * Strategies to expand lungs and manage secretions * Incentive spirometer * Voluntary deep breathing
49
What is the purpose of an incentive spirometer?
To encourage deep breathing and lung expansion.
50
What is the recommended positioning for a patient using an incentive spirometer?
Semi-Fowler or upright position.
51
Fill in the blank: Chest physiotherapy (CPT) includes ________ and ________.
[chest percussion], [vibration]
52
How is chest percussion performed?
By cupping the hands and lightly striking the chest wall in a rhythmic fashion.
53
What are the clinical manifestations of pneumonia?
* Cough * Low grade fever, chills * Dyspnea, tachypnea * Myalgia * Pleuritic chest pain * Use of accessory muscles
54
What are some nursing interventions for pneumonia?
* Teach hygiene * Promote nutrition/fluids * Encourage rest * Regular exercise * Vaccinations
55
What is the role of humidification in nursing care for pneumonia?
To maintain moisture in the airways.
56
What dietary considerations should be made for older adults with pneumonia?
* High calorie * Small, frequent meals * Monitor for weight loss
57
What is a key goal for a patient with pneumonia?
Improved airway patency.
58
What should be monitored in tracheostomy care?
* Bilateral lung sounds * SpO2 * Cuff pressure * Trach ties
59
What is the maximum cuff pressure to prevent tracheal necrosis?
24 to 30 cm H2O.
60
What is a technique to promote speech in patients with a tracheostomy?
Using deflated cuff to allow exhaled air to flow over vocal cords.
61
True or False: Accidental dislodgement of a tracheostomy tube is most dangerous within the first 5-7 days.
True.
62
What is the initial phase of treatment for active tuberculosis?
8 weeks.
63
List the four drugs commonly used in the treatment of active tuberculosis.
* Isoniazid * Rifampin * Pyrazinamide * Ethambutol
64
What type of isolation is required for patients with active tuberculosis?
Airborne isolation in a negative pressure room.
65
What is an important teaching point for patients with tuberculosis regarding infection control?
Cover nose and mouth when coughing or sneezing.
66
What should patients do until their sputum is negative for AFB?
Sleep alone and minimize close contact with others.