Respiratory Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

Assessment of asthma control*

A
  1. Daytime symptoms >2x/ week
  2. Night waking
  3. Reliever use >2x/week
  4. Activity limitation
  • Well controlled: none above
  • Partly controlled: 1-2
  • Poor controlled: 3-4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Step ladder for Asthma - GINA*

A

1 - symptoms <2/month
(Preferred: As needed low dose ICS-formoterol)
2 - symptoms >2/month, but less than daily
(Preferred: Daily low dose inhaled ICS/ As-needed low dose ICS-formoterol)
3 - symptoms most day/ waking with asthma >=1/week
(Preferred: Low dose ICS-LABA)
4 - symptoms most days/ waking with asthma >=1/week/ low lung function
(Preferred: Medium dose ICS-LABA)
5 - uncontrolled symptoms/ exacerbation
(Preferred: High dose ICS-LABA; Refer for specialist assessment of contributory factors +- add-on therapy eg: tiotropium, anti-IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Adjusting treatment for asthma*

A

> Step up
Assess the following before consider stepping up treatment:
i. Incorrect inhaler technique
ii. Poor adherence to medications
iii. Modifiable risk factors
iv. Symptoms due to co-morbid conditions

  • Sustained step up (at least 2 - 3 months)-> persistent symptoms and/or exacerbations despite 2-3 months of controller treatment
  • Short term step up (for 1 - 2 weeks) with written asthma action plan e.g. for during viral infection or allergen exposure
  • Day-to-day adjustment by patient for those with mild asthma and on low dose ICS-formoterol as maintenance and reliever

> Step down
Indication: good asthma control for 3 months
Step down: reduce dosage of ICS by 25-50% at 2-3 month interval but never stop ICS unless the diagnosis is in doubt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Assessing the severity of acute asthma attack*

A
○ Severe attack
§ Unable to complete sentences in one breath
§ Respiratory rate >25/min
§ Pulse rate >110 beats/min
§ PEF 33-50%
○ Life-threatening attack
§ PEF <33%
§ Silent chest, cyanosis
§ Arrhythmia or hypotension
§ Exhaustion, confusion or coma
§ ABG:
Normal/high PaCO2 >4.6kPa
PaO2 <8Pa, or SaO2 <92%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Approach to acute exacerbation of Asthma

A
  1. Assess severity of attack
  2. Immediate treatment
    - Supplemental O2 to maintain 94-98%
    - Salbutamol 5mg nebulized with O2
    - If severe + ipratropium 0.5mg/6h to nebulizers
    - Hydrocortisone 100mg IV/ Prednisolone 40-50mg PO
  3. Reassess every 15min
    - If PEF <75% repeat Salbutamol nebulizer every 15-30min. Add ipratropium if not already given
    - Monitor ECG; watch for arrhythmias
  4. -> If not improving
    - Refer ICU +- IV salbutamol
    - > If improving
    - Continue nebulized salbutamol every 4-6 hours
    - Prednisolone 40-50mg PO OD for 5-7 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is FEV1, FVC and their normal value

A
  • FEV1: the volume exhaled in the first second after deep inspiration and forced expiration (Normal: >80% predicted)
  • FVC: the total volume of air that the patient can forcibly exhale in one breath (Normal: >80% predicted)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

GOLD classification

A

COPD severity

  • 1: Mild (FEV1 >= 80%)
  • 2: Moderate (50-80)
  • 3: Severe (30-50)
  • 4: Very severe (<30)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MMRC Scale*

A

Grade of dyspnea

  • 0: No except on strenous exercise
  • 1: SOB hurrying on level/ walking up slight hill
  • 2: Walk slower than same age/ stop for breath when walking at own pace on the level
  • 3: Stop for breath after walking about 100m/ few minutes on the level
  • 4: Too breathless to leave the house/ dressing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How to diagnose COPD

A
  • Spirometry (FEV1/ FVC <70%, both pre and post bronchodilator)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

X-ray sign for COPD**

A
  • Hyperinflation
  • Flat hemidiaphragm
  • Large central pulmonary artery
  • Decrease peripheral vascular marking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HRCT finding for COPD

A
  • Bronchial wall thickening
  • Scarring
  • Air space enlargement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Medication for acute COPD attack

A
  • Nebulized bronchodilator: Salbutamol 5mg/4h and ipratropium 500mcg/6h
  • Controlled oxygen therapy if SaO2 <88% or PaO2 <7 kPa
  • Steroids: IV hydrocortisone 200mg and oral prednisolone 30mg OD (continue for 7-14 days)
  • Antibiotics: if evidence of infection, eg: amoxicillin 500mg/8h PO
  • IV Aminophylline: if no response to nebulizer and steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Causes of Bronchiectasis***

A

> Congenital

  • cystic fibrosis
  • primary ciliary dyskinesia

> Acquired

  • TB
  • pneumonia
  • bronchial obstruction (tumor, foreign body)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Signs of bronchiectasis*

A
  • Clubbing
  • Coarse inspiratory crepitation
  • Wheeze
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Investigation for bronchiectasis***

A

> Initial Ix

  • CXR (tram-line, cystic lesion)
  • Spirometry (variable, may show obstructive pattern)

> To diagnosed bronchiectasis
- HRCT (signet ring appearance)

> To find the cause

  • Mantoux test
  • Sweat test
  • FBC
  • Sputum culture
  • Bronchoscopy (locate site of hemoptysis, exclude obstruction)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Management for bronchiectasis***

A
  • Airway clearance technique and mucolytic
  • Antibiotics
  • Bronchodilators (eg: nebulized salbutamol)
  • Corticosteroid (eg: prednisolone)
  • Surgery (indicated in local disease or to control severe hemoptysis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

History directing to asthma diagnosis

A
  • Wheeze, SOB
  • Diurnal variation
  • Response to exercise, cold air, allergen
  • Symptoms after aspirin, B-blocker
  • History/ Family Hx of atopy/ asthma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Light’s criteria

A

> Transudate

  • Fluid/Serum protein <=0.5
  • Fluid/Serum LDH <=0.6

> Exudate

  • Fluid/Serum protein >0.5
  • Fluid/Serum LDH >0.6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Definition of bronchiectasis**

A
  • Irreversible abnormal dilatation of the bronchial tree
  • Divide macroscopically into: cylindrical, varicose, cystic
  • Main organism: H. influenzae, Strep. pneumoniae, Staph. aureus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Complications of bronchiectasis*

A
  • Recurrent pneumonia
  • Empyema
  • Lung abscess
  • Progressive respiratory failure
  • Cor pulmonale
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Physical signs expected in COPD**

A

> General

  • Breathlessness
  • Cachexia
  • Malnourished
  • Evidence of respiratory distress

> Respiratory

  • Reduced chest expansion
  • Reduced breath sound
  • Loss of cardiac dullness, downward displacement of liver - hyperinflated lungs
  • Coarse crepitation - sign of pneumonia

> Cardiovascular

  • Raised JVP
  • Right displacement of apex beat
  • Parasternal heave
  • Peripheral edema, hepatomegaly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Examination finding for pneumothorax**

A

○ Inspection
- Respiratory distress

○ General examination

  • Raised JVP
  • Distended neck veins
  • Tracheal deviation away

○ Respiratory examination

  • Reduced chest expansion
  • Hyper-resonance
  • Absent breath sound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CXR features of pneumothorax**

A
  • Exaggerated radiolucency
  • Loss of vascular marking
  • Contralateral shift of the trachea and mediastinum
  • Flattening of the ipsilateral diaphragm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Definition of COPD - Keyword*

A
  • Persistent, progressive

- Airway and/or alveolar abnormalities

25
Definition of chronic bronchitis*
- Chronic productive cough | - Most day for 3 months in 2 successive years
26
CXR features of COPD***
``` □ Hyperinflated lung - >6 anterior or 10 posterior ribs in the midclavicular line at diaphragm level □ Flat hemidiaphragms □ Large central pulmonary arteries □ Decrease peripheral vascular marking ```
27
Management of acute COPD***
1. Nebulized bronchodilators (Salbutamol 5mg/4h and ipratropium 500mcg/6h) Ix: CXR, ABG 2. Controlled O2 therapy if SaO2 <88% (start at 24-28%, aim sat 88-92%) 3. Steroids: IV hydrocortisone 200mg and oral prednisolone 30mg OD (continue for 7-14 days) 4. Antibiotics: if infection; amoxicillin 500mg/8h PO 5. If no response to nebulizer and steroids -> IV aminophylline 6. If no response -> consider non-invasive positive pressure ventilation
28
Pharmacological therapy for COPD**
> Bronchodilators - Beta agonist: salbutamol (short) and salmeterol (long) - SE: fine tremor, sinus tachycardia - Antimuscarinic: ipratropium bromide (short), tiotropium (long) - SE: dry mouth, metallic taste > Corticosteroid - eg: fluticasone, beclomethasone, budesonide - SE: oral candidiasis, hoarseness of voice > Phosphodiesterase-4 inhibitors - eg: Roflumilast
29
Management for pneumothorax***
> Spontaneous - Aspirate using 16-18G needle - Insert chest drain and admit > Tension - Emergency needle thoracentesis (2ns ICS at midclavicular line, insert chest tube)
30
Definition of emphysema
- abnormal permanent enlargement of air spaces - distal to the terminal bronchioles, - accompanied by the destruction of alveolar walls
31
Definition of bronchiectasis
- Abnormal chronic dilatation of one or more bronchi | - Associated with building up of mucus making the person more vulnerable to infection
32
Finding differentiating COPD from bronchiectasis*
> COPD - Reduced chest expansion bilaterally - Breath sound: prolonged expiratory phase - Wheezing > Bronchiectasis - Normal chest expansion, breath sound - Coarse crackles
33
Classification of pneumothorax
> Main - Traumatic - Atraumatic -> primary (without known eliciting event); secondary (subsequently due to an underlying pulmonary disease) > Alternative - Simple - Tension - Open
34
Complication of smoking
- Cancer - Heart disease - Stroke - Lung disease - Diabetes - COPD (eg: emphysema, chronic bronchitis)
35
Investigation for TB**
> Active - CXR - Sputum smear (culture still be required even if smear is negative -> possible of smear negative TB) - Sputum culture - Nucleic acid amplification test > Latent - Tuberculin skin testing (Mantoux test)
36
Light's criteria**
- For pleural effusion - Transudative: Fluid/ Serum protein <= 0.5 Fluid/ Serum LDH <=0.6 - Exudative Fluid/ Serum protein > 0.5 Fluid/ Serum LDH >0.6
37
Management for TB**
- 2 month intensive phase (Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol) + 4 month maintenance phase (Rifampicin, Isoniazid)
38
Management of close contact of TB**
> Asymptomatic □ Mantoux test □ CXR if Mantoux test >=10mm > Symptomatic □ CXR □ Sputum AFB □ Mantoux test
39
Side effect of TB medications**
- Rifampicin (enzyme inducer: care with warfarin, temporary discoloration of urine, sweat) - Isoniazid (peripheral neuropathy) - Pyrazinamide (hepatitis) - Ethambutol (optic neuritis)
40
What is miliary TB*
- Massive dissemination of TB via hematogenous route to various organs, including lung itself - Chest radiograph □ Involve both lung predominantly lower lobes □ Evenly distributed diffuse 2-3mm nodules
41
Physical signs for pleural effusion*
- Decrease chest expansion - Stony dull percussion - Diminished breath sound - Decreased tactile vocal fremitus and vocal resonance - Tracheal deviation
42
Investigation for pleural effusion*
- CXR: blunt costophrenic angle, meniscus sign, tracheal deviation - Pleural fluid aspiration: biochemistry, Gram/ AFB stain, culture and sensitivity, cytology (WCC, malignant cells)
43
Monitoring of treatment for TB
> At 2 month □ Repeat sputum AFB direct smear □ Sputum MTB C&S if smear positive □ CXR > At 4 month and 6 month □ Repeat sputum AFB direct smear □ CXR
44
Type of respiratory failure***
> Type 1 (normocapnia) - VQ mismatch - Cause: right to left shunt, alveolar hypoventilation - Mx: correcting hypoxia -> supplementary O2 > Type 2 (hypercapnia) - CO2 retention - Cause: weakness in resp muscle, obstructive lung disease (asthma, COPD) - Mx: correcting ventilation -> non-invasive/ invasive mechanical ventilation
45
Asthma vs COPD***
> Asthma - Age before 40 - Episodic symptoms with interspersed symptoms free period - Trigger: laughter, exercise - History of atopy - Relieved by bronchodilator, ICS > COPD - Age after 40 - Chronic and progressive - History of smoking, noxious fume - Bronchodilator only provide limited relief
46
Investigation for COPD*
- FBC: leukocytosis, polycythemia - ABG: respiratory acidosis - ECG: right atrial and ventricular hypertrophy - Sputum C&S - CXR - Spirometry
47
Discharge criteria for COPD
- Inhaled SABA requirement not more frequent than 4 hours - Able to ambulate - Able to eat and sleep without frequent awakening by SOB - Clinically and ABG stable for 12-24 hours
48
Triggering factor for asthma exacerbation*
- Viral respiratory infection - Allergen exposure - Food allergy - Poor adherence with ICS - Exercise - Change in weather - Laughter
49
What is Respimat, Seretide
- Respimat: tiotropium | - Seretide: fluticasone + salmeterol
50
Risk factor for COPD
- Tobacco smoking - Occupational exposure to dust, fumes - Childhood respiratory infections
51
Content of Seretide
- Fluticasone (Steroid) + Salmeterol (LABA) | - Purple color, round inhaler
52
What are classes of COPD
> No or 1 exacerbation not leading to hospitalization - A: mMRC 0-1 - B: mMRC >=2 > >=2 exacerbation or >=1 exacerbation leading to hospitalization - C: mMRC 0-1 - D: mMRC >=2
53
Investigation for asthma
``` > To diagnosed asthma - Spirometry □ FEV1/FVC <70% □ Positive reversible test (FEV1 improve >200cc and 12% from baseline, after 10-15 minutes after 200-400mcg salbutamol) - PEFR □ Diurnal variation >10% ``` > During exacerbation - Spirometry □ If possible, recorded before treatment is initiates - ABG □ For patient with PEF or FEV1 <50% predicted, or do not respond to initial treatment - CXR □ Not responding to treatment and a pneumothorax is suspected
54
Mechanism of O2 induced hypercapnia in COPD
- The Haldane effect: rightward displacement of the CO2-hemoglobin dissociation curve in the presence of increased oxygen tension - Modest decrease in minute ventilation, which also reduces alveolar ventilation, due to decreased stimuli from peripheral chemoreceptor to the central respiratory center
55
ECG changes of pulmonary embolism
> S1Q3T3 (McGinn-White sign) - Classic pattern of acute cor pulmonale - Large S wave in lead I, Q wave in lead III and inverted T wave in lead III
56
Management of pulmonary embolism
> Hemodynamic unstable - Systemic thrombolysis: IV rtPA - Others: percutaneous catheter-directed thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy > Stable - Anticoagulation: SC LMWH, fondaparinux - Rescue thrombolysis: if serum troponin +ve and RV dysfunction present > Long-term - Anticoagulation: min 3 months for all patient
57
Important investigation for pulmonary embolism
- ECG: S1 Q3 T3 - CXR: oligemia of affected segment, dilated pulmonary artery, pleural effusion, wedge shape opacities - D dimer: +ve suggestive of PE - CTPA: look for filling defect in pulmonary artery due to embolus
58
Classification of cough based on duration
- Acute: <3 weeks - Subacute: 3-8 weeks - Chronic: >8 weeks