Respiratory Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

Tidal volume definition

A

Volume inspired or expired with each normal breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume

A

Volume that can be inspired over and above the tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

Volume that can be expired after the expiration of tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is the inspiratory reserve volume used?

A

During exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Residual volume

A

Volume that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the anatomic dead space?

A

Volume of conducting airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Physiologic dead space

A

Volume of the lungs that does not participate in gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Identify the inspiratory capacity.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Identify the Vital Capacity

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Identify the residual volume

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Identify the Functional residual capacity

A

.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Identify the inspiratory capacity

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Identify the total lung capacity

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Inspiratory capacity definition

A

Sum of tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Functional residual capacity

A

Sum of expiratory reserve volume and residual volume (volume remaining in lung after tidal volume is expired)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1)

A

The volume of air that can be expired in the first second of forced maximal expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the forced expiratory volume (FEV1) normal ratio?

A

FEV1/FVC = 0.80

FVC is forced vital capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In obstructive lung disease (asthma, COPD), what is the FEV1/FVC ratio?

A

Decreased (decreased rate of expiration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In restrictive lung disease (fibrosis), what is the FEV/FVC ratio? (increased or decreased)

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the formula for vital capacity?

A

IRV+TV+ERV (maximum volume of air that can be expired after a full force inspiration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Are the external intercostal and accessory muscles used for respiration during rest?

A

No - Only used during exercise and respiratory distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Is expiration normally passive or active?

A

Passive - the lung-chest wall is normally elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do the internal intercostal muscles do?

A

Expiration - Pull the ribs downward an inward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which cells produce surfactant?

A

Type II alveolar cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What does surfactant consist of?
A phospholipid called DPPC
26
Resistance of the airway is dictated by what law?
Poiseuille's law Powerful inverse relationship with airway radius (to the 4th power)
27
Resistance of the airway is dictated by what law?
Poiseuille's law Powerful inverse relationship with airway radius (to the 4th power)
28
What is a major site of airway resistance?
Medium-sized bronchi. Smaller airways don't contribute because of their parallel arrangement.
29
What is isoproterenol's effect on the airway?
Airway dilation via B2 receptors
30
What causes sickle cell disease
Hemoglobin S (Alpha subunits are normal but beta subunits are abnormal)
31
When is the hemoglobin dissociation curve shifted to the right?
In peripheral tissues, where affinity of hemoglobin for O2 is decreased (Bohr effect)
32
What causes a right shift in the hemoglobin dissociation curve?
Acid pH, increased CO2, Increased temperature, Increased 2,3 DPG
33
When is the oxygen dissociation curve left-shifted?
In the lungs, allows for higher hemoglobin affinity to oxygen.
34
What is the major form of CO2 in the blood?
HCO3- (Bicarbonate)
35
What chemoreceptors detect hypoxemia? (peripheral/central)
Peripheral - Aortic and carotid bodies
36
Which chemoreceptors detect changes in CO2? (Central or peripheral)
Central
37
What are the two major forces that act on pulmonary compliance?
Surface tension (2/3) Elasticity of lung tissue (1/3)
38
How do you calculate the expiratory reserve volume?
Ventilatory capacity minus inspiratory capacity
39
How can LA pressure be estimated?
By obtaining capillary wedge pressure (CWP usually 2-3 mmHg higher than LA pressure
40
Gas exchange occurs only at the alveoli? True/false
FALSE: Gas exchange happens in alveoli AND terminal airways
41
What are causes for an increased A-a gradient?
Shunt, V/Q mismatch, diffusion impairement
42
What is the normal PaO2/FIO2 ratio?
Normal - 500 200-300 is acute lung injury \<200 considered ARDS
43
What is the interstitial PO2 concentration
40 mmHg
44
How is CO2 carried in the blood (3 ways)?
1. Dissolved CO2 (7%) 2. Carboxyhemoglobin (23%) 3. HCO3- (70%)
45
How is HCO3- formed in blood?
1. CO2 is transformed to HCO3- in the RBC 2. H+ is buffered by Hb, exchanging for O2 3. HCO3 exchanges for Cl so the former can be carried in the blood
46
What do you see with Cheyne-Stokes breathing?
Periodic over and underventilation
47
What pathogens cause most feline upper respiratory infections (URI)?
Feline herpesvirus type 1 (FHV-1) and feline calicivirus (FCV) cause approximately 80% of all URIs in cats.
48
What dogs (head conformation) are usually affected with lymphoplasmacytic rhinitis?
Dolichocephalics and mesaticephalics
49
What is the treatment of LPR?
Extremely frustrating to treat. Efficacy with low-dose immunomodulating abx (doxy or azythromycin) and NSAID (piroxicam). Antifungal medications (itraconazole) have shown benefit.
50
What immune response dominates eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy?
Helper T cell type 2 (TH2) immune response with increase in CD4+ T cells
51
What type of immune response is eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy characterized by? CD4 or CD8 Th1 or Th2
CD4 and Th2
52
What is Paragonimus kellecoti transmitted by?
Crayfish
53
How does paragonimus migrate to the lungs?
Ingested \> goes into peritoneum \> pleura \> Adult goes into bronchioles
54
Where do adults of Filaroides hirthi reside?
Alveoli and terminal bronchioles
55
Where do adult Aleurostrongylus abstrussus worms reside?
Bronchioles
56
Where do Oslerus osleri reside in the airways?
Distal trachea and and proximal bronchi
57
What is the nasal worm of dogs?
Eucoleus boehmi
58
Bordetella bronchiseptica compromises the host's normal respiratory defense mechanisms in what way?
Secretion of exotoxins disrupts mucocilliary apparatus
59
What is the natural infection reservoir for Yersinia pestis?
Rodents (fleas on the rodents)
60
What is the mechanism of action of theophylline?
Methylxantine: Phosphodiesterase III and IV inhibitor (increased cAMP) Adenosine inhibitor Increased catecholamine release Inhibits prostaglandin
61
What is hypertrophic osteopathy?
Periostial proliferative disease secondary to infectious or neoplastic disease in thoracic (or abdominal) cavity
62
What are treatments for hypertrophic osteopathy?
Surgical removal of mass, tx of infection and/or unilateral vagotomy
63
What are 5 mechanisms on how PTE leads to respiratory failure?
1. High V/Q mismatch 2. Vasoconstriction/bronchoconstriction (PLT degranulation) 3. Decreased surfactant protection 4. Pulmonary edema 5. Ischemic necrosis
64
What are histopathological changes observed in bronchiectasis?
1. Dilation of the airways 2. Airway lumen filled with neutrophilic/MOs mucus 3. Reserve cell hyperplasia/squamous metaplasia with inflammation 4. Loss of fibromuscular tissues 5. Peribronchial fibrosis
65
The pneumotaxic center inhibits what?
Inspiration
66
Dogs with pyruvate kinase deficiency have (high/low) 2,3 DGP?
High
67
How is Oslerus osleri diagnosed?
Baermann or BAL cytology
68
What organism can be found on a BAL that is secondary to oral contamination?
Simonsiella spp.
69
What is the most common isolate of community acquired pneumonia in cats?
Streptococcus
70
Where are the J receptors located?
Alveoli
71
What breeds are predisposed to congenital laryngeal paralysis?
**Bouvier de Flandres, Siberian Huskies**, Bull Terriers, German Shepherd Dogs, Dalmatian, Rottweilers
72
What are the three components of Kartagener's syndrome?
1. Situs inversus; 2. Bronchiectasis; 3. Chronic rhinosinusitis Associated with primary ciliary diskenisia
73
How is bradykinin metabolized?
In the lungs by ACE