Respiratory Flashcards

(85 cards)

1
Q

Classification of ILD

A

ILD known cause

Granulomatous

Other forms (pLAM)

Idiopathic, interstitial pneumonias

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2
Q

Mosaic ventilation, segmental air trapping

Starry sky nodules

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

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3
Q

ILD Associated with tuberous sclerosis and cysts on CT chest

A

pLAM

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4
Q

Forms of ILD assocaited with smoking, and can be reversed by stopping smoking

A

RB-ILD
DIP (desquamative)

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5
Q

Idiopathic ILD most response to steroids

A

COP

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6
Q

ILD mimicking ARDS, worst prognosis

A

AIP

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7
Q

ILD with peri-bronchovascular cysts (cysts next to dilated bronchi)

A

LIP - lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia

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8
Q

Idiopathic ILD most commonly associated with autoimmune disease

A

NSIP

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9
Q

Features of UIP

A

Honeycombing
Subpleural reticulation
Basal predominance
Traction bronchiectasis

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10
Q

4 diffuse cystic lung diseases

A

pLAM
Langerhan’s cell histiocytosis
LIP
Birt Hogg Dube syndrome

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11
Q

Cystic lung disease associated with tuberous sclerosis

Often has FHx

A

pLAM

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12
Q

Cystic lung disease associated with smoking

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

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13
Q

Cystic lung disease with FHx and associated with CTD (particularly Sjogren’s)

A

LIP

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14
Q

Cystic lung disease with FHx of pneumothorax

A

Birt Hogg Dube syndrome

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15
Q

Nintedanib MoA and common A/E

A

MoA - blocks multiple TKI’s (VEGF, PDEGF

A/E - Diarrhoea

Contraindiacted in severe liver impairment

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16
Q

Pirfenidone MoA and common A/E

A

MoA - antifibrotic, inhibiting TGFb and fibroblast proliferation

A/E - Drug induced liver injury

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17
Q

UIP radiology features

A

Honeycombing
Subpleural reticulation
Basal predominance
Traction bronchiectasis

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18
Q

NSIP radiology features

A

Ground glass changes
Subpleural sparing

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19
Q

1st and 2nd line Treatment of OHS

A

OHS and OSA (90%) - CPAP

No OSA, and sleep hypoventilation - BiPAP

2nd line - BiPAP

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20
Q

Treats narcolepsy but not cataplexy

A

Modafanil - 1st line in narcolepsy

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21
Q

Good treatment of cataplexy

A

Sodium oxybate
Methylphenidate

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22
Q

REM sleep disorder features and significance

A

Intrusion of wakelfullness in REM –> lack of atonia in REM sleep

Predates dementia by 10 years, strongly associated with synucleiopathies

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23
Q

Hypersomnia
Hyperphagia
Hypersexuality

A

Klein Levin syndrome

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24
Q

Most common pattern ILD in RA

A

UIP

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25
A/E of nitrofurantoin
Pulmonary fibrosis
26
Diffuse pulmonary infiltrates Acute Eosinophilia Rapid response to steroids
Eosinophilic pneumonia
27
CFTR gene -which chromosome?
7
28
Severe CF characterised by? What classes of CFTR mutation fit this?
Reduce/absent production of CFTR, or reduced CFTR reaching membrane 1 - absent production 5 - reduced production 2 - reduce amount reaching membrane (FD508)
29
Most common CF allele
Delta F508
30
Ivakaftor - Moa - Uses
Binds to defective CFTR to increase function Use in class 3 (defective regulation) and class 4 (defective travel of ions).
31
1st line for CF with delta F508 (homozygote and heterozygote) - > 6 - < 6
> 6 - trikafta < 6 - orkambi
32
Mutation causing defective transport of CFTR protein to membrane - name - class
Delta F508 Class 2
33
MoA of Evusheld
Pre-exposure Ppx Recombinant IgG binds to S spike protein, prevents binding to ACE receptor and entry into host cell
34
CI to paxlovid
CPC cirrhosis eGFR < 30 On other medications metabolised by CYPS >5 days symptoms
35
Nirmeltravir MoA
Inhibits COVID protease - prevents polyprotein processing and viral replication
36
COVID therapy safe in pregnancy
Remdesevir
37
Timeline within to use remdes
< 7 days
38
MoA remdesevir
Inhibits RNA dependant RNA polymerase (forms adenosine triphoshates that competitively inhibit)
39
MoA of baricitinib
Janus kinase 1 and 2 inhibitor
40
Pulm HTN and pregnant - Which to use - What is CI
Sildenafil Bosentan and rociguat contraindicated
41
Most common form lung cancer
Adenocarcinoma
42
Upper lobe lung pathology
SET CAP Siicosis Extrinsice alveolitis TB CF Ank Spon PCP
43
Lung Tx patients with highest survival?
CF - as they are youngest
44
Warm ischaemic time - Higher in? - Outcomes?
Ischaemic time at normal termperature Higher in DCD (have to wait 60 minutes) High early graft dysfunction, same survival outcomes
45
FEV1 to refer for lung transplant in COPD?
< 25%
46
BODE score
BMI Obstruction (FEV1) Dyspnoea (mCRC) Excercise (6MWT) 3 for FEV1 < 35% 3 for stage 4 mCRC
47
When to refer for lung transpant based on BODE
BODE 5 or more
48
When to refer ILD for Lung Tx
UIP of fibrotic NSIp Any functional or O2 impairment
49
CI to lung reduction surgery
DLCO < 20 FEV1 < 20
50
Benefits of lung reduction volume surgery
Overall survival advantage Reduce hyperinflation
51
1st line management of CLAD (PPx also)
Azithromcyin
52
Management for CTEPH class 1/2 NYHA
ricoguat
53
Most common cause pulmonary hypertension
L heart disease
54
Rapidly progressive class I PAH
PVOD
55
CUrative treatment for CTEPH
Endarterctomy - first line if feasible (assess with CTPA)
56
mCR dyspnoea score
4 - can't leave house 3 - 100m 2 - Walks slower than someone same age
57
>50% VC drop when standing Dyspnoea when standing
Diaphragmatic palsy
58
Tests for unilateral diaphragamtic palsy
Sniff test - video fluoro, paradoxical rise Low MIP
59
Direct bronchoprovocation
Histamine, metacholine
60
Indirect bronchoprovocation
Hypertonic saline, mannitol
61
Benefit of bronchprovocation
High NPV Rule out asthma
62
High FeNO?
Measure of steroid hyperresponsiveness
63
Value of CPET
Can differentiate if dyspnoea is due to ventilation, pulmonary, cardiac or metabolic
64
Bronchiectasis - treatment to prevent exacerbations
Long term azithro
65
Aspergillus in sputum - when is it of consequence?
Any one immunosuppressed Immunocompetent - both fungal elements and hyphae on stain
66
Screening test for Kartegeners
Low NO exhalation
67
Diagnosis of CF
FHX of clinic features AND 1 of: - x2 positive sweat tests - 2 CF causing mutations - Nasal PD tracing typical for CF
68
Best way to test compliance with CFTR modulators
Nasal potential difference assessment
69
Differentiate between acute and chronic eosinophilic pneumonia
Both are rapidly responsive to steroids Acute will NOT have peripheral eosinophila because they are all in the lungs
70
Light's for exudative
Protein - pleural > 50% LDH - Pleural > 60% Pleural LDH > 0.45
71
Pleural fluid suggestive of empyema
ph < 7.2 Microorganism on gram stain Pleural glucose < 40
72
Decreased in O2 sats on CPET
Pulmonary vascular disease
73
Muscles of inspiration
External intercostals Diaphragm
74
Muscle of expiration - Passive - Forces
Recoil of lungs and diaphragam Abdominal muscles, internal intercostals
75
Which lung volume is PVR lowest?
FRC
76
When is D Dimer useful
If PE pre-test probability is low Can rule out diagnosis
77
MoA pirfenidone
Inhibits TGF-b
78
Main A/E pirfinedone
Rash, photosensitivity
79
MoA nintendanib
TKI for VEG/PDGF
80
A/E of nintendanib
LFT derangement, diarrhoea
81
CI to nintendanib
CPB and CPC cirrhosis CYP3A4 and p glycoprotein inducers
82
Which hormone stimulates respiration
Progesterone Methoprogesterone used for sleep disordered breathing
83
Most important peripheral chemoreceptor
Carotid bodies - detect PaO2 and increase ventilation
84
Central chemoreceptors detect?
pH as a product of CO2
85
Reason for improved excercise capacity in lung reduction
Improved elastic recoil