Respiratory Flashcards

(163 cards)

1
Q

What are the two broad types of lung cancer?

A

Small cell (20%)
Non-small cell (80%)

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2
Q

Name 3 types of non-small cell lung cancers

A

Adenocarcinoma
squamous cell carcinoma
Large-cell carcinoma

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3
Q

What is mesothelioma

A

Lung malignancy affecting mesothelial cells of the pleura
associated with asbestos inhalation

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4
Q

What are some presenting features of lung cancer?

A

Shortness of breath
Cough
Haemoptysis
Finger clubbing
Recurrent pneumonia
Weight loss
Lymphadenopathy – often supraclavicular nodes are the first to be found on examination

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5
Q

What are some extrapulmonary manifestations of lung cancer?

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
Phrenic nerve palsy
Superior vena cava obstruction
Horner’s syndrome
SIADH
Cushing’s
Hypercalcaemia
Limbic encephalitis
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

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6
Q

How does superior vena cava obstruction present?

A

facial swelling
difficulty breathing
distended neck and upper chest veins

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7
Q

What is Pemberton’s sign?

A

raising the hands over the head causes facial congestion and cyanosis - sign of SVC obstruction

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8
Q

What is the triad of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Ptosis
Anhidrosis
Miosis

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9
Q

What are the referral criteria for offering a CXR within two weeks?

A

over 40
Clubbing
Lymphadenopathy (supraclavicular)
recurrent or persistent chest infections
Thrombocytosis
Chest signs of lung cancer

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10
Q

What findings on x-ray are suggestive of lung cancer?

A

Hilar enlargement
Peripheral opacity (a visible lesion in the lung field)
Pleural effusion (usually unilateral in cancer)
Collapse

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11
Q

When is pneumonia classed as hospital acquired?

A

develops after more than 48 hours in a hospital

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12
Q

What type of bacteria is associated with aspiration pneumonia

A

Anaerobic bacteria

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13
Q

What are some presenting symptoms of pneumonia?

A

Cough
Sputum production
Shortness of breath
Fever
Feeling generally unwell
Haemoptysis
Pleuritic chest pain
Delirium

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14
Q

What are some characteristic chest signs of pneumonia on auscultation?

A

Bronchial breath sounds
Focal coarse crackles
Dullness to percussion

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15
Q

What are the aspects of CURB-65?

A

C – Confusion
U – Urea > 7 mmol/L
R – Respiratory rate ≥ 30
B – Blood pressure < 90 systolic or ≤ 60 diastolic.]
65 – Age ≥ 65

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16
Q

How should you interpret a CURB-65 score?

A

Score 0/1: Consider treatment at home
Score ≥ 2: Consider hospital admission
Score ≥ 3: Consider intensive care

Predicts mortality. NICE state 0/1 is low risk (under 3%), 2 is intermediate risk (3-15%), and 3-5 is high risk (above 15%)

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17
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of bacterial pneumonia?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae (most common)
Haemophilus influenzae

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18
Q

What rarer cause of pneumonia is more common in patients with cystic fibrosis or bronchiectasis?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (both)
(Staphylococcus aureus in patients with cystic fibrosis)

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19
Q

What is a rarer cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised or those with chronic pulmonary disease?

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

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20
Q

How can Legionnaires’ disease present and how is it investigated?

A

symptoms of pneumonia + hyponatraemia (due to SIADH)
urine antigen test

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21
Q

What is the rash that mycoplasma pneumoniae may cause?

A

erythema multiforme

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22
Q

What type of atypical pneumonia is associated with exposure to bodily fluids of animals?

A

Coxiella burnetii

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23
Q

What atypical pneumonia is contracted through contact with infected birds?

A

Chlamydia psittaci

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24
Q

Name 4 causes of atypical pneumonia

A

Legions – Legionella pneumophila
Psittaci – Chlamydia psittaci
M – Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C – Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Qs – Q fever (coxiella burnetii)

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25
What type of fungal pneumonia is more common in patients with HIV and how is it treated?
Pneumocystis jirovecii co-trimoxazole
26
What investigations may be done in a patient admitted to hospital with pneumonia?
Chest x-ray Full blood count (raised white cell count) Renal profile (urea level for the CURB-65 score and acute kidney injury) C-reactive protein (raised in inflammation and infection) Patients with moderate or severe infection will also have: Sputum cultures Blood cultures Pneumococcal and Legionella urinary antigen tests
27
How is mild community-acquired pneumonia treated?
5 days of oral antibiotics refer to local guidelines e.g. amoxicillin, doxycycline, clarithromycin
28
State 5 complications of pneumonia
Sepsis Acute respiratory distress syndrome Pleural effusion Empyema Lung abscess Death
29
What are the normal paO2 values?
10.7-13.3 kPa
30
What are the normal PaCO2 values?
4.7-6.0 kPa
31
What is a normal pH?
7.35-7.45
32
What is a normal lactate?
0.5-1
33
What is the FiO2 of room air?
21%
34
What is the approximate FiO2 with 2L via nasal cannula?
28%
35
What would a ABG show in type 1 respiratory failure?
Low PaO2 Normal PaCO2
36
What would a ABG show in type 2 respiratory failure?
Low PaO2 Raised PaCO2
37
What would an ABG show in respiratory acidosis?
pH below 7.35 raised PaCO2
38
What does a raised bicarbonate level suggest?
Patient is chronically retaining CO2
39
What would an ABG show in respiratory alkalosis?
raised pH low PaCO2
40
Name 2 conditions that would cause respiratory alkalosis
Hyperventilation syndrome Pulmonary embolism
41
What would an ABG show in metabolic acidosis?
low pH low HCO3
42
What is the normal range of HCO3 (bicarbonate) ?
22-26 mmol/L
43
State some possible causes of metabolic acidosis
DKA Renal failure Rhabdomyolysis Diarrhoea Renal tubular acidosis
44
What would an ABG show in metabolic alkalosis?
raised pH raised HCO
45
State some causes of metabolic alkalosis
Vomiting Conn's syndrome Liver cirrhosis heart failure loop diuretics thiazide diuretics
46
order the different types of respiratory support from least to most intensive
Oxygen therapy High-flow nasal cannula Non-invasive ventilation Intubation and mechanical ventilation Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
47
Acute respiratory distress syndrome presents as an acute onset of:
Collapse of the alveoli and lung tissue (atelectasis) Pulmonary oedema (not related to heart failure or fluid overload) Decreased lung compliance (reduced lung inflation when ventilated with a given pressure) Fibrosis of the lung tissue (typically after 10 days or more)
48
What are the clinical signs of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
Acute respiratory distress Hypoxia with an inadequate response to oxygen therapy Bilateral infiltrates on a chest x-ray
49
How is acute respiratory distress syndrome managed?
Respiratory support Prone positioning (lying on their front) Careful fluid management to avoid excess fluid collecting in the lungs
50
Positive end-expiratory pressure is added by:
High-flow nasal cannula Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) Mechanical ventilation
51
What is IPAP and EPAP in NIV?
IPAP (inspiratory positive airway pressure) is the pressure during inspiration – where air is forced into the lungs EPAP (expiratory positive airway pressure) is the pressure during expiration – stopping the airways from collapsing
52
When is FEV1 reduced?
airflow obstruction
53
When is FVC reduced ?
Restricted lung capacity
54
What spirometry value can be used to diagnose obstructive lung disease?
FEV1:FVC ratio of less than 70%
55
What will spirometry show in restrictive lung disease?
FEV1 and FVC are equally reduced FEV1:FVC ratio greater than 70%
56
State 4 types of restrictive lung disease
Interstitial lung disease, such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis Sarcoidosis Obesity Motor neurone disease Scoliosis
57
Describe the technique needed for peak flow tests
stand tall, take a deep breath in, make a good seal around the device with the lips and blow as fast and hard as possible into the device. Take three attempts and record the best result.
58
What are some symptoms of asthma?
Shortness of breath Chest tightness Dry cough Wheeze
59
What is a key finding on auscultation of asthma?
widespread “polyphonic” expiratory wheeze
60
State 4 triggers that can exacerbate the symptoms of asthma
Infection Nighttime or early morning Exercise Animals Cold, damp or dusty air Strong emotions
61
Name 2 medications that can worsen asthma
beta-blockers NSAIDs
62
What investigations can be done for asthma and what would they show?
Spirometry (FEV1:FVC <70%) with bronchodilator reversibility Fractional exhaled nitric oxide others: Peak flow (variability >20%) Direct bronchial challenge testing
63
What are the steps for long term asthma management?
1. SABA 2. + ICS 3. + LABA (or MART) 4. increase ICS or add leukotriene receptor antagonist (montelukast)
64
What is the peak flow in a moderate asthma exacerbation
50 – 75% best or predicted
65
What are the clinical features of a severe asthma exacerbation?
Peak flow 33-50% best or predicted Respiratory rate above 25 Heart rate above 110 Unable to complete sentences
66
What are the clinical features of a life-threatening asthma exacerbation?
Peak flow less than 33% Oxygen saturations less than 92% PaO2 less than 8 kPa Becoming tired Confusion or agitation No wheeze or silent chest Haemodynamic instability (shock)
67
How would you manage a mild asthma exacerbation?
Inhaled beta-2 agonists (e.g., salbutamol) via a spacer Quadrupled dose of their inhaled corticosteroid (for up to 2 weeks) Oral steroids (prednisolone) if the higher ICS is inadequate Antibiotics only if there is convincing evidence of bacterial infection Follow-up within 48 hours
68
How would you manage a moderate asthma exacerbation?
Consider hospital admission Nebulised beta-2 agonists (e.g., salbutamol) Steroids (e.g., oral prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone)
69
How would you manage a severe asthma exacerbation?
Hospital admission Oxygen to maintain sats 94-98% nebulised salbutamol steroids Nebulised ipratropium bromide IV magnesium sulphate IV salbutamol IV aminophylline
70
What electrolyte requires monitoring with salbutamol?
potassium
71
After an acute asthma attack what management/advice may be given ?
Optimising long-term asthma management Individual written asthma self-management plan Considering a rescue pack of oral steroids to start early in an exacerbation NICE suggest referral to a specialist after 2 attacks in 12 month
72
What are the presenting symptoms of COPD?
long-term smoker persistent symptoms: Shortness of breath Cough Sputum production Wheeze Recurrent respiratory infections, particularly in winter
73
Describe the grades of the MRC Dyspnoea scale
Grade 1: Breathless on strenuous exercise Grade 2: Breathless on walking uphill Grade 3: Breathlessness that slows walking on the flat Grade 4: Breathlessness stops them from walking more than 100 meters on the flat Grade 5: Unable to leave the house due to breathlessness
74
How is COPD diagnosed?
Clinical presentation + Spirometry (FEV1:FVC<70%)
75
How is the severity of COPD measured?
Stage 1 (mild): FEV1 more than 80% of predicted Stage 2 (moderate): FEV1 50-79% of predicted Stage 3 (severe): FEV1 30-49% of predicted Stage 4 (very severe): FEV1 less than 30% of predicted
76
What 2 vaccines should be offered to patients with COPD?
pneumococcal flu
77
What is the long term management of COPD?
conservative = stop smoking, pulmonary rehab 1. SABA/SAMA 2. LABA + LAMA (if no asthmatic or steroid-responsive features, if are then LABA+ICS) 3. LABA + LAMA + ICS
78
When would long-term oxygen therapy be offered to a patient with COPD?
Chronic hypoxia (<92%) polycythaemia cyanosis cor pulmonale
79
State 4 causes of Cor pulmonale
COPD (the most common cause) Pulmonary embolism Interstitial lung disease Cystic fibrosis Primary pulmonary hypertension
80
What is Cor Pulmonale?
right-sided heart failure caused by respiratory disease. The increased pressure and resistance in the pulmonary arteries (pulmonary hypertension) limits the right ventricle pumping blood into the pulmonary arteries. This causes back-pressure into the right atrium, vena cava and systemic venous system
81
What are some symptoms of Cor Pulmonale?
Shortness of breath Peripheral oedema Breathlessness of exertion Syncope (dizziness and fainting) Chest pain
82
What are some signs of Cor Pulmonale ?
Hypoxia Cyanosis Raised JVP Peripheral oedema Parasternal heave Loud second heart sound Murmurs Hepatomegaly due to back pressure in the hepatic vein
83
What is the first line medical treatment of an acute exacerbation of COPD?
Regular inhalers or nebulisers (e.g., salbutamol and ipratropium) Steroids (e.g., prednisolone 30 mg once daily for 5 days) Antibiotics if there is evidence of infection if severe: IV aminophylline Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) Intubation and ventilation with admission to intensive care
84
What are some causes of bronchiectasis?
Idiopathic (no apparent cause) Pneumonia Whooping cough (pertussis) Tuberculosis Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency Connective tissue disorders (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis) Cystic fibrosis Yellow nail syndrome
85
What is the characteristic triad of yellow nail syndrome?
yellow fingernails Bronchiectasis lymphoedema
86
What are the key presenting symptoms of bronchiectasis?
Shortness of breath Chronic productive cough Recurrent chest infections Weight loss
87
What are some signs of bronchiectasis on examination?
Sputum pot by the bedside Oxygen therapy (if needed) Weight loss (cachexia) Finger clubbing Signs of cor pulmonale (e.g., raised JVP and peripheral oedema) Scattered crackles throughout the chest that change or clear with coughing Scattered wheezes and squeaks
88
What are the most common infective organisms in bronchiectasis?
Haemophilus influenza Pseudomonas aeruginosa
89
What are the x-ray findings in bronchiectasis?
Tram-track opacities (parallel markings of a side-view of the dilated airway) Ring shadows (dilated airways seen end-on)
90
What is the test of choice for establishing a diagnosis of bronchiectasis?
High-resolution CT
91
What is the general management of bronchiectasis?
Vaccines (e.g., pneumococcal and influenza) Respiratory physiotherapy Pulmonary rehabilitation Long-term antibiotics (e.g., azithromycin) for frequent exacerbations (e.g., 3 or more per year) Inhaled colistin for Pseudomonas aeruginosa colonisation Long-acting bronchodilators may be considered for breathlessness Long-term oxygen therapy in patients with reduced oxygen saturation Surgical lung resection may be considered for specific areas of disease Lung transplant is an option for end-stage disease
92
How should an infective exacerbation of bronchiectasis be managed?
Sputum culture (before antibiotics) Extended courses of antibiotics, usually 7–14 days Ciprofloxacin is the usual choice for exacerbations caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa
93
Name 4 types of interstitial lung disease
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (the most important to remember) Secondary pulmonary fibrosis Hypersensitivity pneumonitis Cryptogenic organising pneumonia Asbestosis
94
What are they key presenting features of interstitial lung disease?
Shortness of breath on exertion Dry cough Fatigue
95
What are the 2 typical findings on examination of a patient with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
Bibasal fine end-inspiratory crackles Finger clubbing
96
What does diagnosis of interstitial lung disease involve?
Clinical features High-resolution CT scan (HRCT) of the thorax (showing a typical “ground glass” appearance) Spirometry
97
What are the general management options for interstitial lung disease?
Remove or treat the underlying cause Home oxygen where there is hypoxia Stop smoking Physiotherapy and pulmonary rehabilitation Pneumococcal and flu vaccine Advanced care planning and palliative care where appropriate Lung transplant is an option, but the risks and benefits need careful consideration
98
What is the prognosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
2-5 years
99
What are the management options for pulmonary fibrosis?
Pirfenidone Nintedanib
100
what drugs can cause secondary pulmonary fibrosis?
Amiodarone (also causes grey/blue skin) Cyclophosphamide Methotrexate Nitrofurantoin
101
What conditions can lead to pulmonary fibrosis?
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Rheumatoid arthritis Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Systemic sclerosis Sarcoidosis
102
What type of hypersensitivity reaction causes hypersensitivity pneumonitis?
III + IV
103
How is Hypersensitivity pneumonitis diagnosed?
Bronchoalveolar lavage
104
What are the 2 categories of pleural effusion?
Exudative – a high protein content (more than 30g/L) Transudative – a lower protein content (less than 30g/L)
105
What is Light's criteria used for?
establishing an exudative effusion using protein or lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): Pleural fluid protein / serum protein greater than 0.5 Pleural fluid LDH / serum LDH greater than 0.6 Pleural fluid LDH greater than 2/3 of the normal upper limit of the serum LDH
106
State 3 causes of exudative pleural effusion
Cancer (e.g., lung cancer or mesothelioma) Infection (e.g., pneumonia or tuberculosis) Rheumatoid arthritis
107
State 3 transudative causes of pleural effusion
Congestive cardiac failure Hypoalbuminaemia Hypothyroidism Meigs syndrome
108
What is the main presenting symptom of pleural effusion?
shortness of breath
109
What are the examination findings of a pleural effusion?
Dullness to percussion over the effusion Reduced breath sounds Tracheal deviation away from the effusion in very large effusions
110
What are the CXR findings with a pleural effusion?
Blunting of the costophrenic angle Fluid in the lung fissures Larger effusions will have a meniscus (a curving upwards where it meets the chest wall and mediastinum) Tracheal and mediastinal deviation away from the effusion in very large effusions
111
What are the treatment options for a pleural effusion?
Conservative = small effusions Pleural aspiration Chest drain
112
What is an empyema?
infected pleural effusion
113
What will a pleural aspiration of an empyema show?
pus, low pH, low glucose and high LDH
114
What is a pneumothorax?
air in the pleural space
115
state 4 causes of a pneumothorax
Spontaneous Trauma Iatrogenic, for example, due to lung biopsy, mechanical ventilation or central line insertion Lung pathologies such as infection, asthma or COPD
116
What is the diagnostic investigation for a pneumothorax ?
Erect chest xray
117
How is a pneumothorax managed?
high risk = chest drain lower risk (<2cm) = conservative lower risk (>2cm) = pleural vent ambulatory device, needle aspiration/chest drain
118
Where is a chest drain inserted?
triangle of safety 5th intercostal space (or the inferior nipple line) Midaxillary line (or the lateral edge of the latissimus dorsi) Anterior axillary line (or the lateral edge of the pectoralis major)
119
state 2 key complications of a chest drain
Air leaks Surgical emphysema
120
What are some signs of a tension pneumothorax?
Tracheal deviation away from the side of the pneumothorax Reduced air entry on the affected side Increased resonance to percussion on the affected side Tachycardia Hypotension
121
How is a tension pneumothorax managed?
Insert a large bore cannula into the second intercostal space in the midclavicular line
122
State 5 risk factors for a DVT/PE
Immobility Recent surgery Long-haul travel Pregnancy Hormone therapy with oestrogen Malignancy Polycythaemia Systemic lupus erythematosus Thrombophilia
123
What is used for VTE prophylaxis in hospital?
LMWH anti-embolic compression stockings
124
state 2 contraindications to VTE prophylaxis with LMWH
active bleeding existing anticoagulation e.g. warfarin or DOAC
125
What are some presenting features of a pulmonary embolism?
Shortness of breath Cough Haemoptysis Pleuritic chest pain Hypoxia Tachycardia Raised respiratory rate Low-grade fever Haemodynamic instability causing hypotension
126
How is a pulmonary embolism diagnosed?
Wells score - likelihood CT pulmonary angiogram if likely if unlikely then d dimer followed by CTPA if +ve
127
Apart form PE state 3 other causes of a raised d dimer
Pneumonia Malignancy Heart failure Surgery Pregnancy
128
In patients with contraindication to a CTPA for a suspected PE what other investigation can be carried out?
Ventilation-perfusion (VQ) scan
129
What is the 1st line medical management of a PE?
1st: apixaban or rivaroxaban
130
How is a massive PE treated?
continuous infusion of unfractionated heparin and consider thrombolysis
131
What are the options for long term anticoagulation is patients who have had a PE?
DOAC (e.g. apixaban) Warfarin (1st line in pts with antiphospholipid syndrome) LMWH (1st line in pregnancy) Continue anticoagulation for: 3 months with a reversible cause (then review) Beyond 3 months with unprovoked PE, recurrent VTE or an irreversible underlying cause (e.g., thrombophilia) 3-6 months in active cancer (then review)
132
pulmonary hypertension is defined as what?
a mean pulmonary arterial pressure of more than 20  mmHg
133
What are the 5 causes of pulmonary hypertension?
Group 1 – Idiopathic pulmonary hypertension or connective tissue disease (e.g. SLE) Group 2 – Left heart failure, usually due to myocardial infarction or systemic hypertension Group 3 – Chronic lung disease (e.g., COPD or pulmonary fibrosis) Group 4 – Pulmonary vascular disease (e.g., pulmonary embolism) Group 5 – Miscellaneous causes such as sarcoidosis, glycogen storage disease and haematological disorders
134
What are some signs and symptoms of pulmonary hypertension ?
Shortness of breath Syncope Tachycardia Raised JVP Hepatomegaly Peripheral oedema
135
What are the ECG changes seen in pulmonary hypertension?
P pulmonale (peaked P waves) Right ventricular hypertrophy (tall R waves in V1 and V2 and deep S waves in V5 and V6) Right axis deviation Right bundle branch block
136
What are the xray changes seen in pulmonary hypertension?
Dilated pulmonary arteries Right ventricular hypertrophy
137
What are the treatment options for idiopathic pulmonary hypertension?
Calcium channel blockers Intravenous prostaglandins (e.g., epoprostenol) Endothelin receptor antagonists (e.g., macitentan) Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (e.g., sildenafil)
138
What is the epidemiology of sarcoidosis?
Aged 20-39 or around 60 Women Black ethnic origin
139
What are the skin features of sarcoidosis?
erythema nodosum Lupus pernio (raised purple skin lesion often on cheeks and nose)
140
How can sarcoidosis affect the lungs?
Mediastinal lymphadenopathy Pulmonary fibrosis Pulmonary nodules
141
What are some systemic features of sarcoidosis?
Fever Fatigue Weight loss
142
What are some liver features of sarcoidosis ?
Liver nodules Cirrhosis Cholestasis
143
What are some eye features of sarcoidosis?
Uveitis Conjunctivitis Optic neuritis
144
What are some heart features of sarcoidosis?
Bundle branch block Heart block Myocardial muscle involvement
145
What are some kidney symptoms of sarcoidosis?
Kidney stones (due to hypercalcaemia) Nephrocalcinosis Interstitial nephritis
146
What are some neurological symptoms of sarcoidosis?
Central nervous system: Nodules Pituitary involvement (diabetes insipidus) Encephalopathy Peripheral Nervous System: Facial nerve palsy Mononeuritis multiplex
147
What are some bone features of sarcoidosis?
Arthralgia Arthritis Myopathy
148
What is Lofgren's syndrome?
specific presentation of sarcoidosis with a classic triad of symptoms: Erythema nodosum Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy Polyarthralgia (joint pain in multiple joints)
149
State 4 differential diagnosis for sarcoidosis
Tuberculosis Lymphoma Hypersensitivity pneumonitis HIV Toxoplasmosis Histoplasmosis
150
What is the gold standard for diagnosing sarcoidosis
Biopsy with histology
151
What does histology show in sarcoidosis?
non-caseating granulomas with epithelioid cells.
152
What two blood tests findings may be raised in sarcoidosis?
Raised angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) (often used as a screening test) Raised calcium (hypercalcaemia)
153
What is the first line treatment if required for sarcoidosis?
Oral steroids (for 6-24 months) are usually first-line where treatment is required. Bisphosphonates protect against osteoporosis whilst on long-term steroids 2nd: methotrexate
154
What is the prognosis of sarcoidosis?
Sarcoidosis spontaneously resolves in around half of patients, usually within two years. In some patients, it progresses to pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary hypertension. Overall mortality is less than 10%.
155
What causes obstructive sleep apnoea?
collapse of the pharyngeal airway
156
State 4 risk factors of obstructive sleep apnoea
Middle age Male Obesity Alcohol Smoking
157
How does obstructive sleep apnoea present?
Episodes of apnoea during sleep (reported by a partner) Snoring Morning headache Waking up unrefreshed from sleep Daytime sleepiness Concentration problems Reduced oxygen saturation during sleep
158
What scale is used to assess symptoms of sleepiness associated with obstructive sleep apnoea.
Epworth sleepiness scale
159
What investigation is used to diagnose obstructive sleep apnoea?
sleep study
160
What is the management of obstructive sleep apnoea?
manage risk factors CPAP Surgery
161
What is the most common causative organism of an infective exacerbation of COPD?
Haemophilus influenzae
162
What organism can commonly cause a cavitating pneumonia following an influenza infection?
Staphylococcus aureus
163
patient presenting with dry cough, erythema multiforme and bilateral consolidation on x-ray - what is the most likely causative organism?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae