Respiratory Flashcards

(114 cards)

1
Q

3 key features of asthma?

A
  1. airflow limitation which is reversible
  2. airway hyper-responsiveness to a wide range of stimuli
  3. inflammation of the bronchi
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2
Q

symptoms of asthma

A

cough often worse at night
dyspnoea
wheeze
chest tightness

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3
Q

signs on spirometry of asthma

A

FEV1 significantly reduced
FVC normal
therefore FEV1/FVC <70%
shows bronchoconstriction

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4
Q

Mx of asthma

A

SABA e.g. salbutamol

SABA + ICS e.g. budenoside 400mcg OD or beclomethasone

SABA + ICS + LTRA (leukotriene receptor antagonist) e.g. Montelukast

SABA + ICS + LABA e.g. salmeterol (can continue LTRA)

SABA +/- LTRA + MART (maintenance and reliever therapy- contains low dose ICS and LABA)

Trial of long-acting muscarinic antagonist or theophylline
increase ICS

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5
Q

SEs of ICS?

A

oral candidiasis and stunted growth in children

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6
Q

when should children with asthma be given a paediatric ICS?

A

Not controlled with SABA
OR
Newly-diagnosed asthma with symptoms >= 3 / week or night-time waking

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7
Q

what are the steps after SABA + pICS for childhood asthma?

A
  • add leukotriene receptor antagonist
  • then stop LTRA and add LABA (different to adult guidance)
  • SABA + MART
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8
Q

What is MART

A

a form of combined ICS and LABA

used for both daily maintenance therapy and the relief of symptoms as required

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9
Q

signs of life-threatening of acute asthma?

A
PEFR <33%
O2 sats <92%
Silent chest, cyanosis or feeble respiratory effort
bradycardia, dysrhythmia, hypotension
exhaustion, confusion, coma
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10
Q

signs of severe acute asthma?

A

PEFR 33-50%
Can’t complete sentences
RR >25/min
Pulse >110 bpm

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11
Q

mx of acute severe asthma?

A
salbutamol nebs
prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone
magnesium sulphate 1.2-2g IV over 20 mins
IV aminophylline 
IV salbutamol
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12
Q

causes of COPD?

A

Smoking

alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

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13
Q

causes of IECOPD?

A

H.influenza
Strep pneumoniae
Moraxella catarrhalis

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14
Q

features of COPD?

A

Cough: often production
dyspnoea
wheeze
Right heart failure

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15
Q

Ix of COPD?

A

airflow obstruction- FEV1/FVC ratio <70%
CXR
FBC-exclude polycythaemia

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16
Q

FEV1 severity of COPD?

A
>80%= stage 1- mild
50-79%= stage 2- moderate
30-49%= stage 3- severe
<30%= stage 4- very severe
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17
Q

general management of COPD?

A

stop smoking
annual influenza vaccination
one-off pneumococcal vaccine
pulmonary rehab

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18
Q

drug management of COPD

A
  • SABA or SAMA is first line
  • if not steroid responsiveness- LAMA (tiotropium)+ LABA
  • if steroid responsiveness- LABA (salmeterol) + ICS (beclomethasone 200mcg BD)
  • Consider adding theophylline

others- azithromycin (oral prophylactic antibiotic therapy), mucolytics

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19
Q

who shouldn’t you offer LTOT for COPD?

A

If people continue to smoke

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20
Q

who should get LTOT?

A

Long-term O2 therapy- >15 hours a day. Used in patients with pO2 <7.3kPa or 7.3-8kPa and one of:

  • very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 <30%)
  • cyanosis
  • polycythaemia
  • peripheral oedema
  • raised JVP
  • O2 sats <92%
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21
Q

What is a well’s score?

A

Shows likelihood of DVT

Active cancer (treatment ongoing, within 6 months, or palliative)

  • Paralysis, paresis or recent plaster immobilisation of the lower extremities
  • Recently bedridden for 3 days or more or major surgery within 12 weeks requiring general or regional anaesthesia
  • Localised tenderness along the distribution of the deep venous system
  • Entire leg swollen
  • Calf swelling at least 3 cm larger than asymptomatic side
  • Pitting oedema confined to the symptomatic leg
  • Collateral superficial veins (non-varicose)
  • Previously documented DVT (-2)

> 2= DVT likely
1 or less= unlikely

An alternative diagnosis is at least as likely as DVT

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22
Q

what to do if DVT is likely?

A

proximal leg vein USS

if negative-> D-dimer

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23
Q

what to do if DVT unlikely?

A

D-dimer
if positive -> arrange USS asap
if can’t do USS in 4 hours -> LMWH

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24
Q

Mx of DVT?

A

LMWH or fondaparinux- continued until INR >2 for at least 24 hours
Give a vitamin K antagonist i.e. warfarin for 3 months
At 3 months clinicians should assess the risks and benefits of extending treatment.

If unprovoked DVT- full physical examination, CXR, bloods (FBC, serum calcium, LFTs) and urinalysis

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25
what needs doing in patients over 40 with first unprovoked DVT/PE?
investigate for malignancy with abdo-pelvic CT scan
26
features of PE?
``` Chest pain (pleuritic) dyspnoea haemoptysis tachycardia tachypnoea ```
27
mx of PE?
Same as DVT thrombolysis if massive PE where there is circulatory behaviour IVC filters if repeat PE
28
causes of upper zone fibrosis
``` CHARTS Coal worker's pneumoconiosis Hypersensitivity pneumonitis Ankylosing spondylitis Radiation TB Silicosis/sarcoidosis ```
29
diagnosis of lung fibrosis
restrictive picture: FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, FEV1/FVC increased CXR- ground-glass appearance, progresses to opacities CT-diagnostic
30
what is coal-workers' pneumoconiosis?
caused by long term exposure to coal dust particles, can be a long lead time 1st exposure and development of disease caused by accumulation of macrophages in the alveoli which starts an immune response, causing damage to the lung tissue
31
what can coal-workers' pneumoconiosis lead to?
Simple pneumoconiosis- opacities in lungs, can be asymptomatic Progressive massive fibrosis- dust exposure causes patients to develop round fibrotic masses which can be several cms. Symptomatic with SOB, cough, black sputum
32
What are the effects of asbestos on the lung?
1. pleural plaques 2. pleural thickening 3. asbestosis- lower lobe fibrosis 4. mesothelioma- malignant disease of the pleura 5. lung cancer
33
which type of lung cancer has the worst prognosis?
SCLC
34
What are the main types of non small cell LC?
squamous (35%) adenocarcinoma (30%) large cell (10%)
35
features of SCLC?
Arises from APUD cells Associated with ectopic ADH, ACTH secretion ADH-> hyponatraemia ACTH -> cushing's syndrome, bilateral adrenal hyperplasia Lambert-Eaton syndrome: antibodies to voltage gated calcium channels causing myasthenic like syndrome
36
mx of SCLC?
usually mets at time of diagnosis surgery chemoradiotherapy
37
features of NSCLC?
SCC- typically central, associated with PTHrP secretion -> hypercalcaemia + finger clubbing HPOA- hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy Adenocarcinoma- typically peripheral most common type in non-smokers, can cause HPOA and gynaecomastia large cell- typically peripheral, poorly differentiated tumours with a poor prognosis, may secrete bHCG
38
mx of NSCLC?
Only 20% suitable for surgery | curative or palliative radiotherapy
39
2 week wait criteria for lung cancer
``` CXR features that suggest lung cancer over 40 with unexplained haemoptysis over 40 with 2 of the following: - cough - fatigue - SOB -chest pain - weight loss - appetite loss ``` Consider if over 40 and persistent chest infections, clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, thrombocytosis
40
what is bronchiectasis?
a permanent dilatation of the airways secondary to chronic infection or inflammation
41
causes of bronchiectasis?
post-infective- TB, measles, pertussis, pneumonia CF Bronchial obstruction Immune deficiency- selective IgA, hypogammaglobulinaemia ABPA
42
What is a transudate and exudate?
``` transudate= <30g/L of protein exudate= >30g/L of protein ```
43
causes of transudate pleural effusion?
heart failure hypoalbuminaemia (liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, malabsorption) Meig's syndrome
44
causes or exudate pleural effusion?
``` Infection e.g. pneumonia. TB subphrenic abscess connective tissue disease- RA, SLE neoplastic pancreatitis PE Dressler's syndrome yellow nail syndrome ```
45
features of pleural effusion?
dyspnoea | non-productive cough or chest pain
46
Ix of pleural effusion?
CXR Pleural aspiration- USS guided contrast CT
47
How to distinguish between transudate and exudate pleural effusion?
Light's criteria if the protein level is between 25-35g/L an exudate is likely if at least one of the following criteria are met: - pleural fluid protein/ serum protein >0.5 - pleural fluid LDH/ serum LDH >0.6 - pleural fluid LDH more than 2/3 the upper limits of normal serum LDH
48
what diagnosis is likely if pleural effusion has blood staining?
Mespthelioma PE TB
49
what diagnosis is likely if pleural effusion is purulent or turbid/cloudy?
infection (needs chest drain)
50
how to manage a recurring pleural effusion?
recurrent aspiration pleurodesis indwelling pleural catheter opioids to relieve dyspnoea
51
what is sarcoidosis?
a multisystem disorder of unknown aetiology characterised by non-caseating granuloma
52
RFs of sarcoidosis?
young adults | African descent
53
features of sarcoidosis?
Acute- erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, swinging fever, polyarthralgia Insidious- dyspnoea, non-productive cough, malaise, weight loss Skin- lupus pernio Hypercalcaemia
54
Ix of sarcoidosis
``` clinical Dx ACE levels- 60% sensitive and 70% specific high calcium, high ESR CXR Spirometry- restrictive defect tissue biopsy- non-caseating granuloma ```
55
mx of sarcoidosis?
steroids if CXR stage 2 or 3, hypercalcaemia, eye, heart or neuro involvement
56
common organisms for aspiration pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae staph aureus H. influenzae pseudomonas aeruginosa
57
Common organisms causing pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae H.influenzae (esp if COPD) Staph aureus Mycoplasma pneumoniae- atypical pneumonia- presents as dry cough and atypical chest signs/CXR Legionella pneumophilia- secondary to air conditioning units. Hyponatraemia and lymphopenia common Klebsiella pneumoniae PCP- HIV patients
58
how does PCP present
HIV patients | dry cough, exercise-induced desaturations and the absence of chest signs
59
S+S of pneumonia?
cough, sputum, dyspnoea, chest pain, fever reduced breath sounds, bronchial breathing reduced O2 sats
60
Ix for pneumonia?
``` CXR Bloods- FBC, U&Es, CRP ABG Blood and sputum cultures Pneumococcal and legionella urinary antigen tests ```
61
how are patients assessed for pneumonia?
``` CURB65 Confusion (AMT <8) Urea (>7mmol/L) Resp rate >30/min Blood pressure: SBP <90 or DBP <60 65 years plus ``` 0- manage in community 1- SaO2 assessed which should be >92% to be safely managed in the community and CXR performed 2- manage in hospital
62
mx of low severity CAP?
Amoxicillin- 5 days | if allergic macrolide or tetracycline
63
mx of moderate and high severity CAP?
Dual abx therapy with amoxicillin and a macrolide -7-10 day course if high severity- use co-amoxiclav instead
64
what is FEV1?
volume of air exhaled in 1 second
65
what is FVC?
Maximum volume of air a person can exhale
66
What spirometry readings does thoracic kyphosis produce?
restrictive disease | means air can leave the lungs quickly but due to poor lung expansion FVC is low so ratio is higher
67
what is TLCO?
Total gas transfer an overall measure of gas transfer for the lungs from the alveoli into the capillaries and reflects how much O2 is taken up into the red cells
68
what medications are given to help smoking cessation?
nicotine replacement therapy varenicline- nicotine receptor partial agonist (start 1 week before stop date) bupropion- NA and DA reuptake inhibitors target stop date needed
69
SEs of NRT?
n&v, headaches, flu-like symptoms
70
SEs of varenicline?
nausea, headaches, insomnia, abnormal dreams | CI- pregnancy and breast feeding
71
SEs of bupropion?
risk of seizures | CI- epilepsy, pregnancy and breast feeding
72
S&S of pneumothorax?
``` dyspnoea chest pain: often pleuritic sweating tachypnoea tachycardia ```
73
what is a tension pneumothorax?
lung parenchymal flap is formed following trauma | trachea shift and hyper-resonance on affected side
74
tx of tension pneumothorax?
needle decompression and chest tube
75
mx of pneumothorax?
if the rim of air is <2cm and the patient is not SOB -> discharge otherwise, aspiration chest drain if not successful
76
RFs for pneumothorax?
pre-existing lung disease connective tissue disease- marfan's, RA ventilation catamenial pneumothorax (spontaneous in menstruating women)
77
what meds to give in hospital acquired pneumonia of <5 days?
co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime
78
what meds to give in hospital acquired pneumonia of >5 days?
piperacillin with tazobactam or broad spec cephalosporin e.g. ceftazidime
79
what is ARDS?
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is caused by the increased permeability of alveolar capillaries leading to fluid accumulation in the alveoli, i.e. non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
80
causes of ARDS?
``` infection: sepsis, pneumonia massive blood transfusion trauma smoke inhalation acute pancreatitis cardio-pulmonary bypass ```
81
features of ARDS?
dyspnoea elevated respiratory rate bilateral lung crackles low oxygen saturations
82
Ix of ARDS?
CXR | ABG
83
mx of ARDS?
due to the severity of the condition patients are generally managed in ITU oxygenation/ventilation to treat the hypoxaemia general organ support e.g. vasopressors as needed treatment of the underlying cause e.g. antibiotics for sepsis certain strategies such as prone positioning and muscle relaxation have been shown to improve outcome in ARDS
84
What are the key indications for non-invasive ventilation?
COPD with respiratory acidosis pH 7.25-7.35* type II respiratory failure secondary to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease or obstructive sleep apnoea cardiogenic pulmonary oedema unresponsive to CPAP weaning from tracheal intubation
85
what is tidal volume?
volume inspired or expired with each breath at rest | 500ml in males, 350ml in females
86
causes of respiratory acidosis?
COPD decompensation in other respiratory conditions e.g. life-threatening asthma / pulmonary oedema neuromuscular disease obesity hypoventilation syndrome sedative drugs: benzodiazepines, opiate overdose
87
causes of respiratory alkalosis?
``` anxiety leading to hyperventilation pulmonary embolism salicylate poisoning* CNS disorders: stroke, subarachnoid haemorrhage, encephalitis altitude pregnancy ```
88
criteria for steroid-responsiveness in COPD (asthmatic features)
prev diagnosis of asthma higher blood eosinophil count sustainable variation in FEV1 over time substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%)
89
what type of asbestos is the most serious form?
crocidolite (blue)
90
what is mesothelioma and symptoms?
malignant disease of the pleura - progressive SOB - chest pain - pleural effusion
91
mx of mesothelioma?
palliative chemo
92
review areas in a CXR?
behind the heart under diaphragm apices costophrenic angles
93
predisposing factors for pneumothorax?
``` COPD asthma pulmonary fibrosis cystic fibrosis trauma iatrogenic- central venous line obstruction, mechanical ventilation ```
94
description of pulmonary fibrosis on CXR?
diffuse reticulonodular shadowing
95
causes of upper lobe fibrosis?
``` BREAST Berylliosis Radiation fibrosis EAA AS Sarcoidosis TB ```
96
causes of lower lobe fibrosis?
connective tissue disease asbestosis cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis drug-induced- amiodarone, methotrexate
97
causes of unilateral pleural effusions?
``` malignant tumours parapneumonic PE infarction rheumatoid disease ```
98
3 most common causes of left lower lobe collapse (sail sign)
1. central hilar or endobronchial mass 2. endobronchial foreign body esp children 3. endobronchial mucus plug e.g. asthma Ix= bronchoscopy and CT thorax
99
scenario: acute on chronic SOB in a young person?
cystic fibrosis with new pneumothorax
100
what does pulmonary oedema look like on CXR?
bat wing sign
101
causes of pulmonary oedema with and without cardiomegaly?
with CM- HF | without CM- acute renal failure, ARDS, after aggressive fluid resuscitation, massive acute PE, SAH
102
differentials for a large globular heart and what to ask about in history?
congenital cardiac disease cardiomyopathy pericardial effusion (ask about childhood illness and FH cardiac disease)
103
signs of mitral valve disease on CXR?
moderately enlarged heart prominence of left atrial appendage double RHB- enlargement of left atrium
104
causes of clubbing?
resp- pulmonary fibrosis, LC, abscess, bronchiectasis, CF cardio- IE, cyanotic heart diseases GI- IBD, coeliac, cirrhosis thyroid- hyperthyroidism
105
causes of interstitial lung disease?
occupational- asbestosis, sarcoidosis, coal dust, birds, hay, fungus meds- radiation, methotrexate, amiodarone, nitrofurantoin idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis connective tissue disease- RA, systemic sclerosis, AS, dermatomyositis/polymyositis others but learn these main ones!
106
differential diagnosis of unilateral hilar enlargement vs bilateral hilar enlargement?
``` Unilateral: bronchial carcinoma TB lymphoma metastatic mediastinal lymph node disease ``` ``` Bilateral: Sarcoidosis Lymphoma Pulmonary hypertension Metastatic nodal disease ```
107
differential for a cavitating lung lesion?
``` bronchial carcinoma TB cavitating pneumonia lung abscess rheumatoid nodule vasculitic disease e.g. Wegener's granulomatosis ```
108
signs of left upper lobe collapse on CXR?
volume loss of left hemithorax (lung) with veil sign (opacification over whole lung) may have increased density indicating a mass around the left hilum trachea and mediastinum may be deviated to the left
109
if there is lobe collapse, is the trachea deviated towards or away?
towards
110
If there is a 'white-out' of a hemithorax it is useful to assess the position of the trachea - what does central, pushed or pulled tell you?
1. Towards- Pneumonectomy, complete lung collapse e.g. endobronchial intubation, Pulmonary hypoplasia 2. Central- Consolidation, Pulmonary oedema (usually bilateral), Mesothelioma 3. Away- Pleural effusion, Diaphragmatic hernia, Large thoracic mass
111
differentials for an anterior mediastinal mass?
trachea deviated away thyroid enlargement, thymoma, teratoma, lymphoma CT- guided biopsy
112
what cancer can causes cannon-ball mets in a CXR?
renal cell carcinoma others inc testicular malignancy and choriocarcinoma do CT chest, abdo, pelvis
113
if the R heart border is not visible, what lobe is affected?
right middle lobe
114
what follow up to do after a lobar pneumonia?
CXR 6 weeks after Abx treatment | could be an underlying carcinoma