Respiratory (COPD, bronchiectasis, pulmonary fibrosis) Flashcards

1
Q

COPD

A

a progressive lung disease characterised by airflow obstruction that is not fully reversible

Umbrella term
- Chronic bronhcitis
- Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

COPD Risk Factors

A
  • Cigarette smoking is associated with around 90% of cases
  • Occupational exposure e.g. coal, grains, silica
  • Air pollution
  • Genetics e.g. alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
  • Asthma
  • Problems with lung growth and development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

presentation of COOD

A

Cough – this is usually the initial presenting complaint

  • This often starts off being worse in the morning but becomes constant as COPD gets worse
  • Usually productive

Shortness of breath

  • This is usually with exercise initially but can progress to shortness of breath at rest

Features of hyperinflation may be seen

  • Hyperinflation occurs when air is trapped in the lungs due to blockages and reduced elasticity leading to the lungs overinflating.
  • Hyper-resonance on percussion
  • Barrel chest
  • Distant breath sounds on auscultation

Wheeze on auscultation

Coarse crackles – often seen in exacerbations

Features of cor pulmonale:
* Distended neck veins
* Lower limb oedema
* Hepatosplenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does COPD not cause

A

CLUBBING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

investigations for COPD

A
  • Spirometry <0.70
  • FBC (secondary polycythaemia)
  • CXR (rule out lung cancer, may show bullae, flattened diaphragm)

Other investigations
- Alpha-1-antitrypsin (if early onset)
- ECG and echocardiography (pulmonary hypertension)
- Sputum culture
- ABG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

NICE classification of the severity of COPD

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

General management in all COPD patients

A
  • Smoking cessation – the single most important measure to reduce progression
  • Annual influenza vaccination and one-off pneumococcal vaccination
  • Pulmonary rehabilitation – if COPD is limiting functional ability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

medical therapy for COPD

A

First line

  • short-acting beta2 agonist (SABA) or short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)

Second line determine if the patient has asthmatic/steroid-responsive features

  • If asthmatic/steroid responsive features: add long-acting beta2 agonist (LABA) + inhaled corticosteroid (ICS):
  • If non-asthmatic and no steroid-responsive features: LABA + long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)
  • If the patient is already taking a SAMA, stop this and replace it with a SABA

Third line add whichever option was not added in the second-line step i.e. SABA + LABA + LAMA + ICS

  • Consider adding theophylline
  • Consider mucolytics in all patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

COPD atntibiotic prophylaxis

A

Antibiotic prophylaxis

In some patients, specialists may consider antibiotic prophylaxis. The antibiotic of choice is azithromycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) considered in COPD patients when

A
  • PaO2 <7.3 kPa when stable or <8 kPa when stable + peripheral oedema
  • Secondary polycythaemia
  • Pulmonary hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how can COPD cause heart failure

A

Cor pulmonale:
Chronic hypoxia can lead to vasoconstriction in the pulmonary arteries (in an attempt to increase oxygenation of the blood) leading to pulmonary hypertension. This leads to more strain on the right side of the heart leading to right ventricular hypertrophy and cor pulmonale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

single biggest factor which can reduce rate of decline

A

Smoking cessation can reduce the rate of decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin (α1AT) is a glycoprotein produced in the liver and plays a role in inhibiting the action of protease enzymes released from neutrophils, such as neutrophil elastase released in inflammation, infection, or smoking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

pathophysiology of Alpha-1 antitrypsin (α1AT) deficiency

A

α1AT deficiency is an inherited condition in which the α1AT protein’s structure is modified.

  • This can lead to excess elastin breakdown leading to the destruction of alveolar walls and COPD.
  • The α1AT can accumulate in the liver, leading to liver cell destruction and cirrhosis. In exams, α1AT deficiency classically causes COPD in young people and non-smokers.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

presentation of α1AT deficiency

A

α1AT deficiency should be considered in any young patient presenting with features consistent with COPD, or any patient with severe and aggressive COPD. Features may be:

  • Early presentation of COPD symptoms
  • Imaging shows emphysema in the lower lobes of the lung
  • Cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma may be present, even in the absence of alcohol consumption
  • Not every patient with α1AT deficiency will develop liver disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

investigations for a1AT deficiency

A

Serum α1AT levels:

  • All patients with COPD, non-responsive asthmatic adults/adolescents, and people with liver disease of unknown aetiology should be screened using this test

Spirometry:

  • FEV1: significantly reduced
  • FVC: significantly reduced
  • FEV1/FVC: significantly reduced

Chest x-ray:

  • Usually shows emphysematous changes – particularly in the lower lobes

Liver function tests (LFTs):

  • ALT, bilirubin, and ALP may be raised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

management of a1AT def

A
  • STOP smoking
  • supportuve therapies such as bronchodilators and pulmonary rehab
  • lung volume reduction surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

is a sudden worsening of COPD symptoms beyond normal day-to-day variations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

causes of COPD exacerbation

A

Bacterial causes

  • Haemophilus influenzae – most common
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Moraxella catarrhalis

Other causes

  • Pollution
  • Viruses – rhinoviruses, influenza, parainfluenza etc.
  • Swallowing dysfunction
  • Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

presentation of acute COPD exacerbation

A
  • Increased shortness of breath, cough, and wheezing
  • Increased sputum production which may suggest an infection
  • Purulent (green/pus-filled) sputum is suggestive of a bacterial infection
  • Malaise
  • Signs of respiratory failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Signs of respiratory failure:

A
  • Changes in mental status e.g. confusion
  • Morning headaches and increased daytime sleepiness suggest worsening hypercapnia
  • Accessory muscle use and pursed lip breathing
  • Cyanosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

investigations for acute exacerbation of COPD

A
  • CXR
  • ABG Used to detect chronic hypercapnia and acute respiratory acidosis- guides oxygen therapy
  • FBC - infections and anaemia
  • U&Es
  • ECGs
  • Sputum culture - bacterial infection
  • Blood culture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when pt with COPD should be referred to hospital

A
  • Significantly worsened dyspnoea
  • Tachypnoea
  • Oxygen saturations <90%
  • Pursed-lip breathing
  • Use of accessory muscles
  • Mental status changes e.g. confusion or impaired levels of consciousness
  • New-onset cyanosis
  • Worsening peripheral oedema
  • Rapid onset
  • Significant reduction in activities of daily living
  • Inability to cope at home
  • Poor or worsening general condition
  • Already receiving home oxygen therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

why do we look for CO2 retention in patients with COPD

A

Excessive oxygen administration can lead to type 2 respiratory failure in patients with chronic hypercapnia (CO2 retainers). It was previously thought that over-administering oxygen would cause a loss of hypoxic drive and lead to type 2 respiratory failure. This is not true and patients suffering an acute COPD exacerbation generally have a near-normal respiratory drive, regardless of if they are CO2 retainers or not.

The true reasons for this phenomenon are due to two factors:

Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) mismatches:

  • In patients with COPD, hypoxia leads to vasoconstriction in the lungs leading to changes in alveolar V/Q ratios. This is to optimise their gas exchange.
  • Over-administering oxygen undoes this and increases blood flow to damaged parts of the lung, leading to an increased V/Q mismatch and more dead space (regions of the lung that are not involved in gas exchange)

The Haldane Effect

  • Deoxygenated haemoglobin binds to CO2 with greater affinity than oxygenated haemoglobin.
  • Over-oxygenation causes a shift of the CO2 dissociation curve to the right – this is the Haldane effect.
  • Patients with COPD may not be able to increase their respiratory rate to compensate for the increased amounts of dissolved CO2.
25
Q

management of COPD exacerbation in primary care

A

First line increase dose/frequency of short-acting bronchodilators + 30 mg oral prednisolone for 5 days

+- Give antibiotics if there are clinical signs of pneumonia or the sputum is purulent:
Options are: amoxicillin, clarithromycin, or doxycycline

26
Q

Medical treatment of COPD exacerbation

A

First line

  • Salbutamol and ipratropium nebulisers and Hydrocortisone (IV) or prednisolone (PO)
  • Antibiotics: If sputum purulent/clinical signs of infection
    Chest physiotherapy to help sputum

Second line

  • IV aminophylline

Third line:

  • if pH is between 7.25-7.35: BiPAP
  • if pH is below 7.25: intubationand ventilation

All patients given 30mg of pred for 5 days

27
Q

Bronchiectasis

A

Bronchiectasis is a persistent or progressive chronic lung condition characterised by the permanent dilation of the bronchi due to permanent damage to the bronchial wall elastic and muscular tissue. This leads to copious sputum production, bacterial colonisation, and recurrent infections.

28
Q

Pathophysiology of bronchiectasis

A

Bronchiectasis is caused by chronic inflammation of the airways and may develop after lung infections in childhood and in association with other conditions such as immunodeficiency or cystic fibrosis.

  • TB
  • Pertussis
  • HIV
  • Conenctiev tissue disorder e.g. SL
  • CF
  • Kartageners syndrome (primary ciliary dyskinesia- think infertility)
  • Alpha-1- antitrypsin def
  • Brocnhial obsturction e.g. tumours
29
Q

Presentation of bronchiectasis

A

Patients typically have a chronic cough with copious amounts of purulent sputum. Features are:

  • Cough – associated with large amounts of purulent sputum. There may be mild haemoptysis (small flecks of blood)
  • Crackles on auscultation: Low-pitched crackles (rhonchi) are heard which are often cleared with coughing
  • Shortness of breath
  • Recurrent episodes of fever
  • Weight loss
  • Finger clubbing – this is rare in bronchiectasis

Features of an acute exacerbation:

  • Recurrence of fever
  • Increased sputum production
  • Change in colour of sputum
30
Q

investigations for bronchiectasis

A

Chest x-ray: Should be done in all patients as a baseline

  • Ring or tubular opacities
  • Tramlines

High-resolution CT chest: Gold-standard for diagnosis

  • Thickened and dilated airways
  • A ‘signet ring’ sign

Sputum culture and sensitivity:

  • Haemophilus influenzae – most common
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
31
Q

management of bronchiectasis

A

The damage to the lungs cannot be reversed. Management involves preventing or slowing down further deterioration.

  • Regular follow-up in secondary care
  • Chest physio
  • Lifestyle changes and measures (see patient advice)
  • Influenza and pneumococcal vaccination
  • Postural drainage and airway clearance physiotherapy techniques
  • Antibiotics in acute exacerbations
  • Consider surgery if there are areas of localised disease
32
Q

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

A

Lung fibrosis is where the interstitium of the lungs is replaced with scar tissue, leading to less elasticity and expandability in the lungs (reduced compliance), giving rise to the signs and symptoms seen.

It can happen secondary to lung damage (e.g. an acute infection such as pneumonia or tuberculosis), exposure to irritants (e.g. coal dust), or it can be idiopathic (IPF).

33
Q

causes of lung fibrosis mnemonic

A

Upper zone fibrosis: CHAARTSS

Lower zone fibrosis: RASIO

34
Q

Upper zone fibrosis causes

A

Can be remembered using the mnemonic CHAARTSS:

Coal worker’s pneumonoconiosis
Histiocytosis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Radiation
Tuberculosis
Sarcoidosis
Silicosis

35
Q

Lower zone fibrosis causes

A

Can be remembered using the mnemonic RASIO:

  • Rheumatoid arthritis and similar connective tissue disorders (e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus)
  • Asbestosis
  • Scleroderma
  • Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)
  • Others – (drugs such as bleomycin, nitrofurantoin, amiodarone, methotrexate)
36
Q

IPF RF

A

Risk Factors

Increased age
Smoking
Family history
Occupational exposure e.g. silica or asbestos exposure, and raising livestock/birds

37
Q

Presentation IPF

A
  • Progressively worsening shortness of breath, particularly on exertion:
  • Usually, the most prominent symptom and usually worsens insidiously
  • Dry cough
  • Bibasal end-inspiratory fine crackles on auscultation
  • Finger clubbing
  • Weight loss, fatigue, and malaise
38
Q

IPF investigations

A

Chest x-ray:
* May show basilar reticular opacification

Spirometry and lung function tests: restrictive picture:
* FEV1 normal or decreased
* FVC decreased
* FEV1/FVC ratio >0.7 (increased)
* Transfer factor (TLCO): decreased

High-resolution CT chest:
* Shows ground-glass or opacification or honeycombing

39
Q

management of IPF

A
  • Most patients have pulmonary rehabilitation
  • Some medications may be used e.g. pirfenidone
  • Supportive care such as oxygen and physiotherapy
40
Q

Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis

A

Formerly called extrinsic allergic alveolitis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP) is characterised by non-IgE-mediated immune inflammation leading to inflammation of the lung tissue in people who have been sensitised by repeated inhalation of triggering antigens (e.g. dust, animal dander etc.).
Chronic HP can lead to lung fibrosis.

41
Q

causes of hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

Risk Factors and Associations

  • Farmer’s lung – due to exposure to mouldy hay and Saccharopolyspora rectivirgula
  • Bird fancier’s lung – due to exposure to avian proteins e.g. pigeons and parrots
  • Cheese-worker’s lung – due to exposure to cheese mould
  • Chemical worker’s lung – due to exposure to compounds used in the manufacture of plastics and rubber
  • Some drugs – nitrofurantoin and methotrexate
42
Q

Presentation of hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

Acute hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Symptoms usually start 4-8 hours after exposure and resolve quickly, usually within days.
* Shortness of breath
* Dry cough
* Fever

Chronic hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Symptoms usually start weeks to months after exposure. Features are:
* Shortness of breath
* Productive cough
* Weight loss
* Clubbing

43
Q

investigations for hypersensitivity pnuemonitis

A

Chest x-ray:
* May show infiltrates or fibrosis

CT chest:
* May show ground-glass shadowing

Spirometry and lung function testing:
* Usually shows a restrictive pattern
* Transfer factor (TLCO): reduced

Blood serology testing to causative antigen:
* Usually shows the presence of IgG to specific antigen

Full blood count (FBC) and differential:
* Normal, and as this is a non-IgE-mediated process, there is no eosinophilia

44
Q

hypersensitvity pneumonitis management

A

1st-line: avoid precipitating factor
Consider using corticosteroids

45
Q

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

A

is characterised by sudden-onset widespread inflammation of the lungs leading to non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema (oedema of the lungs secondary to acute damage to the alveoli, and not heart failure).

46
Q

pathophysiology of ARDS

A

The inflammation leads to increased capillary permeability within the lungs, allowing fluid to leak out, leading to oedema.

47
Q

RF for ARDS

A
  • Sepsis
  • Trauma with shock
  • Multiple transfusions
  • Acute pancreatitis
  • Hypovolaemic shock
  • Pneumonia
  • Gastric aspiration
  • Burns and smoke inhalation
  • Vaping
48
Q

ARDS presentation

A
  • Dyspnoea
  • Low O2 saturation
  • Hypotension (think TALI)
  • Tachypnoea
  • Tachycardia
  • Cough
  • Bilateral lung crackles
49
Q

ARDS investigations

A

Chest x-ray:
* Show bilateral infiltrates

Arterial blood gases:
* PaO2/FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) ratio ≤300

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure:
* If there is diagnostic doubt, this can be performed to exclude a cardiogenic cause for the pulmonary oedema
* In ARDS, the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is not elevated

50
Q

management of ARDS

A

1st-line: admit to ITU + manage underlying cause + supportive therapy
Intubation and ventilation may need to be considered

51
Q

sarcoidosis is a

A

multisystem condition of unknown aetiology

characterised by:
- non-caseating (without necrotic centre) granulomas

52
Q

sarcoidosis RF

A

Risk Factors
* Age 20-40 years
* Family history
* Female sex
* African-American ethnicity

53
Q

sarcoidosis presentation

A

The presentation can vary widely depending on what sites are affected.

Classical presentations in exams are:

  • Cough + erythema nodosum (tender, erythematous nodules on the lower limbs)
  • Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and hypercalcaemia

Some features seen may be:

  • Cough – usually dry
  • Dyspnoea – gradual in onset
  • Wheeze on auscultation
  • Lymphadenopathy – usually axillary, cervical, inguinal, and submandibular
  • Symptoms of uveitis:
  • Red, painful eye
  • Blurred vision
  • Photophobia
  • Erythema nodosum
  • Lupus pernio – hardened, raised, purple lesions on the nose, cheeks, lips, and ears

Other possible features can be:

  • Arthralgia
  • Hepato- and/or splenomegaly
  • Heart failure
  • Facial nerve palsy
  • Arrhythmia
  • Heart block
  • Headaches
  • Seizures
54
Q

sarcoidosis investigations

A

Chest x-ray:

  • Can be normal
  • May show bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

Serum calcium:

  • Hypercalcaemia is often present due to the cells in the granulomas producing calcitriol

Serum ACE:

  • Usually elevated

Urea and electrolytes (U&Es):

  • May be deranged

Tuberculin skin test (Mantoux):

  • Usually negative

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR):

  • Usually raised

Tissue biopsy:

  • Shows non-caseating granulomas
55
Q

Pulmonary sarcoidosis radiographic staging

A
  • Stage 0: normal chest x-ray
  • Stage I: bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
  • Stage 2: bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy + pulmonary infiltrates
  • Stage 3: pulmonary infiltrates only
  • Stage 4: pulmonary fibrosis
56
Q

management of sarcoidosis

A

steroids - mild lung function does not need treatment

57
Q

when are oral steroids are indicated in patients with sarcoidosis:

A
  • Parenchymal lung disease (stage 2 or 3 + symptomatic)
  • Uveitis (eye involvement)
  • Neurological involvement
  • Cardiac involvement
  • Hypercalcaemia
58
Q

Complications of sarcoidosis

A

Complications occur depending on what organs are affected:

Respiratory:

  • Infection
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Pulmonary hypertension

Cardiac:

  • Arrhythmia
  • Cardiac failure

Ophthalmological:

  • Uveitis

Dermatological:

  • Chronic refractory skin disease

Neurological:

  • Neuropsychiatric problems
  • Cranial and peripheral nerve damage
  • Strokes and transient ischaemic attacks

Other:

  • Hypercalcaemia
  • Nephrolithiasis
  • Arthritis