respiratory emergencies Flashcards

(151 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for CPAP/BiPAP therapy? A. Vomiting B. SPO2 < 90% C. Respiratory rate > 25 D. Accessory muscle use

A

A. Vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the minimum age for CPAP/BiPAP therapy? A. 8 years B. 12 years C. 16 years D. 18 years

A

B. 12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When should BiPAP be considered for a COPD patient? A. Any respiratory complaint B. Mild distress C. Severe respiratory distress with intact airway and able to follow commands D. After one albuterol treatment

A

C. Severe respiratory distress with intact airway and able to follow commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the appropriate oxygen flow for BiPAP in CHF? A. 10L/min B. 5L/min C. 15L/min D. 6L/min

A

A. 10L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

For CHF with moderate distress and BP > 100/S, which drug should be administered? A. Epinephrine B. Atrovent C. Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg SL D. Albuterol

A

C. Nitroglycerin 0.4 mg SL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In patients with asthma or COPD, which two drugs are given together via SVN? A. Albuterol and Nitroglycerin B. Albuterol 2.5 mg and Atrovent 0.5 mg C. Albuterol and Solu-Medrol D. Atrovent and Epinephrine

A

B. Albuterol 2.5 mg and Atrovent 0.5 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When using CPAP/BiPAP for asthma, what should IPAP be set to? A. 8–10 cm H2O B. 10–12 cm H2O C. 5–8 cm H2O D. 12–15 cm H2O

A

D. 12–15 cm H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What position should patients be placed in if no trauma is suspected? A. Recovery or position of comfort B. Supine only C. Trendelenburg D. Left lateral recumbent

A

A. Recovery or position of comfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For patients unable to swallow or protect airway, what should be avoided? A. Oxygen B. Suctioning C. Oral intake D. BVM ventilation

A

C. Oral intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which condition warrants use of Delayed Sequence Intubation (DSI)? A. Mild asthma B. Agitated hypoxic patients who cannot tolerate pre-oxygenation C. Hyperventilation D. Stable COPD

A

B. Agitated hypoxic patients who cannot tolerate pre-oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In adult patients, when is ventilation indicated using BVM and high flow O2? A. RR <10 or >30 or labored/shallow B. RR of 12–20 C. When BP is low D. After CPAP

A

A. RR <10 or >30 or labored/shallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the recommended RR for pediatric BVM ventilation in distress? A. 10/min B. 30/min C. 20 breaths/minute (1 every 3 seconds) D. 15 breaths/minute

A

C. 20 breaths/minute (1 every 3 seconds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What medication may be given continuously via SVN for asthma? A. Albuterol 2.5 mg B. Atrovent 0.5 mg C. Epinephrine D. Solu-Medrol

A

A. Albuterol 2.5 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the dosage of Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) for adults in severe asthma/COPD? A. 250 mg IV B. 100 mg IM C. 125 mg IV/IO D. 60 mg IV

A

C. 125 mg IV/IO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In COPD with mild/moderate distress, which medication route is used first? A. IM steroids B. SVN with albuterol and Atrovent C. IV magnesium D. Subcutaneous epinephrine

A

B. SVN with albuterol and Atrovent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which is NOT a sign of severe respiratory distress? A. Tripod positioning B. One-word sentences C. AMS D. Speaking in full sentences

A

D. Speaking in full sentences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When using CPAP/BiPAP, when should the therapy be stopped? A. If patient coughs B. If patient vomits or has respiratory arrest C. After 5 minutes D. If patient’s SpO2 is over 90%

A

B. If patient vomits or has respiratory arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which vital signs should be monitored during respiratory emergencies? A. Temperature only B. Pulse ox and HR C. ECG, pulse oximetry, EtCO2, temperature D. Blood glucose only

A

C. ECG, pulse oximetry, EtCO2, temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which BP threshold is used before initiating nitroglycerin? A. Systolic > 100 mmHg B. Diastolic < 90 mmHg C. MAP > 65 D. Systolic < 90 mmHg

A

A. Systolic > 100 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the albuterol dose in continuous SVN administration for adults? A. 1.25 mg in 3 mL NS B. 2.5 mg in 3 mL NS C. 5 mg in 6 mL NS D. 0.5 mg in 1 mL NS

A

B. 2.5 mg in 3 mL NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In pediatric respiratory distress (<2 yrs), when should BVM be used? A. RR of 20 B. RR of 30 C. RR <15 or >60 D. RR = 40

A

C. RR <15 or >60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the standard EtCO2 range to monitor during respiratory distress? A. 20–30 mmHg B. 25–35 mmHg C. 35–45 mmHg D. 45–55 mmHg

A

C. 35–45 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the pediatric dose of Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)? A. 1 mg/kg up to 125 mg B. 5 mg/kg IV C. 0.5 mg/kg IM D. 2 mg/kg IV/IO up to 60 mg

A

D. 2 mg/kg IV/IO up to 60 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following patients should NOT receive CPAP/BiPAP? A. Asthma B. CHF C. COPD D. Tracheostomy patients

A

D. Tracheostomy patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which indicator suggests severe respiratory distress? A. One-word sentences and AMS B. Mild wheezing only C. Clear lung sounds D. BP within normal range
A. One-word sentences and AMS
26
What is the dose of Epinephrine 1:1,000 IM for an adult in respiratory distress from suspected anaphylaxis? A. 0.15 mg IM B. 0.01 mg/kg C. 0.3 mg IM D. 1 mg IV
C. 0.3 mg IM
27
What is the pediatric Epinephrine 1:1,000 IM dose for anaphylaxis? A. 0.5 mg B. 0.3 mg C. 0.01 mg/kg up to 0.3 mg D. 1 mg/kg
C. 0.01 mg/kg up to 0.3 mg
28
Which respiratory condition is an indication for needle cricothyrotomy? A. Mild asthma B. Severe upper airway obstruction unrelieved by other means C. COPD D. CHF
B. Severe upper airway obstruction unrelieved by other means
29
When is Mag Sulfate indicated in respiratory emergencies? A. Severe asthma with poor response to albuterol B. COPD with wheezing C. Anaphylaxis D. CHF with rales
A. Severe asthma with poor response to albuterol
30
What is the adult dose of Magnesium Sulfate for severe asthma? A. 1 gram IV B. 2 grams IV over 10–20 minutes C. 500 mg IV D. 4 grams IV
B. 2 grams IV over 10–20 minutes
31
Which airway intervention is contraindicated in children under 8 years old? A. Oral airway B. Nasal intubation C. Suction D. BVM
B. Nasal intubation
32
What should be done if BVM ventilation is difficult or intubation fails? A. Try another BVM B. Use a supraglottic airway C. Stop treatment D. Wait and observe
B. Use a supraglottic airway
33
Which respiratory condition may present with pursed-lip breathing and barrel chest? A. Asthma B. CHF C. COPD D. Pneumonia
C. COPD
34
What is a sign of upper airway obstruction in children? A. Wheezing B. Rales C. Stridor D. Rhonchi
C. Stridor
35
What drug is recommended for bronchospasm unresponsive to albuterol? A. Epinephrine B. Magnesium C. Ipratropium (Atrovent) D. Dextrose
C. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
36
What is the purpose of waveform capnography in intubation? A. Measure SpO2 B. Confirm and monitor tube placement C. Deliver oxygen D. Reduce respiratory rate
B. Confirm and monitor tube placement
37
In which case is CPAP/BiPAP contraindicated? A. Severe asthma B. COPD C. Active vomiting or upper GI bleeding D. CHF
C. Active vomiting or upper GI bleeding
38
When can oral/nasal airways be considered? A. When patient is awake B. If patient is unconscious and lacks gag reflex C. With intact airway reflexes D. For nasal bleeding
B. If patient is unconscious and lacks gag reflex
39
Which respiratory condition is treated with subcutaneous Epinephrine 1:1,000 in severe cases? A. Asthma B. Anaphylaxis C. COPD D. CHF
B. Anaphylaxis
40
What is the maximum pediatric dose for IM Epinephrine in anaphylaxis? A. 0.15 mg B. 0.5 mg C. 0.3 mg D. 1 mg
C. 0.3 mg
41
Which finding indicates the need for intubation? A. Wheezing B. Normal BP C. Inability to protect airway and poor respiratory effort D. Speaking in full sentences
C. Inability to protect airway and poor respiratory effort
42
Which route may be used for albuterol delivery in EMS? A. IM B. Oral C. SVN (Small Volume Nebulizer) D. SubQ
C. SVN (Small Volume Nebulizer)
43
What is the correct response if a CPAP patient becomes apneic? A. Continue CPAP B. Discontinue CPAP and begin BVM ventilation C. Give Atrovent D. Apply nasal cannula
B. Discontinue CPAP and begin BVM ventilation
44
When should EtCO2 be used in respiratory cases? A. Only for trauma B. Only in hospitals C. Continuously for intubated patients and as a monitoring tool D. Rarely
C. Continuously for intubated patients and as a monitoring tool
45
What is the primary goal in treating a respiratory emergency? A. Lower heart rate B. Maintain airway, oxygenation, and ventilation C. Raise BP D. Administer steroids
B. Maintain airway, oxygenation, and ventilation
46
In pediatric patients, how is respiratory rate interpreted? A. <30 or >50 normal B. <20 or >40 normal C. <15 or >60 indicates need for intervention D. <10 or >20 is normal
C. <15 or >60 indicates need for intervention
47
What is a common side effect of beta-agonists like albuterol? A. Bradycardia B. Hypertension C. Tachycardia D. Drowsiness
C. Tachycardia
48
When is needle or surgical cricothyrotomy indicated? A. Mild distress B. Complete upper airway obstruction not resolved by other means C. Epistaxis D. Normal breathing
B. Complete upper airway obstruction not resolved by other means
49
What is the role of glucocorticoids in respiratory emergencies? A. Bronchodilation B. Reduce airway inflammation in asthma/COPD C. Raise blood pressure D. Increase heart rate
B. Reduce airway inflammation in asthma/COPD
50
What equipment is required for effective CPAP therapy? A. BVM and oral airway B. CPAP mask, O2 source, and PEEP valve C. NRB and tubing D. Nasal cannula and oxygen bag
B. CPAP mask, O2 source, and PEEP valve
51
Which respiratory condition is best treated with both bronchodilators and steroids? A. COPD B. CHF C. Asthma exacerbation D. Hyperventilation
C. Asthma exacerbation
52
What is the first step in managing a patient with severe respiratory distress? A. Administer albuterol B. Ensure airway is patent and provide oxygen C. Give steroids D. Start IV fluids
B. Ensure airway is patent and provide oxygen
53
What is the minimum SpO2 target in respiratory emergencies? A. 88% B. 92% C. 94% D. 90%
C. 94%
54
When is ventilatory support indicated even if RR is normal? A. Cyanosis without dyspnea B. Normal vitals C. Signs of inadequate breathing or fatigue D. Loud wheezing
C. Signs of inadequate breathing or fatigue
55
What is the EtCO2 threshold for initiating CPAP? A. > 30 mmHg B. > 50 mmHg C. > 45 mmHg D. > 40 mmHg
B. > 50 mmHg
56
Which sign best indicates impending respiratory failure? A. Tripod positioning B. Audible wheezing C. Inability to speak full sentences D. Increased respiratory rate
C. Inability to speak full sentences
57
What is the function of EPAP in BiPAP settings? A. Improves oxygenation B. Reduces secretions C. Maintains airway patency during exhalation D. Decreases RR
C. Maintains airway patency during exhalation
58
When is Albuterol via SVN contraindicated? A. Patient with CHF B. Hypoxia C. Known hypersensitivity to drug components D. Mild asthma
C. Known hypersensitivity to drug components
59
What should be done if a patient using CPAP suddenly becomes hypotensive? A. Increase CPAP pressure B. Remove CPAP and reassess airway and breathing C. Start IV fluids D. Administer Atrovent
B. Remove CPAP and reassess airway and breathing
60
What is the adult dose of Atrovent (Ipratropium) via SVN? A. 1 mg B. 0.25 mg C. 0.5 mg D. 0.2 mg
C. 0.5 mg
61
What must be continuously monitored in patients receiving CPAP? A. HR only B. Blood glucose C. SpO2, EtCO2, and respiratory effort D. Temperature only
C. SpO2, EtCO2, and respiratory effort
62
How often should vitals be reassessed in critical respiratory patients? A. Every 10 minutes B. Every 15 minutes C. Every 5 minutes D. Every 20 minutes
C. Every 5 minutes
63
What does a 'shark-fin' waveform on EtCO2 most commonly indicate? A. CHF B. Bronchospasm C. Pulmonary embolism D. Metabolic acidosis
B. Bronchospasm
64
Which respiratory pattern suggests hypoxia or hypercapnia? A. Normal breathing B. Kussmaul respirations C. Agonal or irregular breathing D. Apnea
C. Agonal or irregular breathing
65
When should intubation be attempted in respiratory emergencies? A. When O2 drops below 96% B. After 1 albuterol dose C. When airway cannot be maintained and patient decompensates D. After steroids are given
C. When airway cannot be maintained and patient decompensates
66
What device is preferred for delivering high concentration O2 to a breathing patient? A. Nasal cannula B. Venturi mask C. Non-rebreather mask D. CPAP
C. Non-rebreather mask
67
What is the first line treatment for pediatric asthma with moderate distress? A. Epinephrine IM B. Albuterol via SVN C. Steroids IM D. Oxygen via nasal cannula
B. Albuterol via SVN
68
What should be considered if pediatric respiratory distress does not improve after initial albuterol? A. Increase O2 B. Add Atrovent and administer corticosteroid C. Intubate immediately D. Call base station
B. Add Atrovent and administer corticosteroid
69
In pediatric patients, when is Solu-Medrol indicated? A. Severe trauma B. Mild asthma C. Moderate to severe asthma with inadequate improvement D. All cases of fever
C. Moderate to severe asthma with inadequate improvement
70
Which setting change may improve ventilation in COPD on BiPAP? A. Lower oxygen B. Increase IPAP while maintaining EPAP C. Decrease EPAP D. Remove BiPAP
B. Increase IPAP while maintaining EPAP
71
What is the maximum IPAP setting for asthma/COPD on BiPAP? A. 10 cm H2O B. 8 cm H2O C. 12 cm H2O D. 15 cm H2O
D. 15 cm H2O
72
When should BiPAP be avoided in respiratory failure? A. If patient has hypertension B. If the patient cannot follow commands or protect airway C. If oxygen is needed D. If albuterol was used
B. If the patient cannot follow commands or protect airway
73
How should EMS manage a conscious choking adult unable to speak? A. Encourage to cough B. Back blows C. Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) D. Intubation
C. Abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver)
74
When should pulse oximetry be applied in respiratory cases? A. After transport B. As early as possible in assessment C. After albuterol D. At the hospital
B. As early as possible in assessment
75
What is the main reason to use EtCO2 in non-intubated patients? A. Administer oxygen B. Monitor for early signs of deterioration C. Confirm CPR quality D. Adjust oxygen mask
B. Monitor for early signs of deterioration
76
What is the appropriate position for a conscious patient in respiratory distress with no suspected trauma? A. Supine B. Trendelenburg C. Position of comfort D. Left lateral
C. Position of comfort
77
Which medication is indicated for severe allergic reaction with airway compromise? A. Diphenhydramine B. Epinephrine 1:1,000 IM C. Albuterol D. Atrovent
B. Epinephrine 1:1,000 IM
78
What is a common cause of wheezing in the lower airway? A. CHF B. COPD C. Asthma D. Epiglottitis
C. Asthma
79
Which breath sound is most associated with upper airway obstruction? A. Rhonchi B. Wheezing C. Crackles D. Stridor
D. Stridor
80
When managing a respiratory emergency, what is the priority before administering medications? A. Scene safety B. Airway management and oxygenation C. IV access D. Lung sounds
B. Airway management and oxygenation
81
What is a common side effect of Atrovent (Ipratropium)? A. Bradycardia B. Hypotension C. Dry mouth D. Hyperglycemia
C. Dry mouth
82
What is the primary mechanism of action of albuterol? A. Anticholinergic B. Beta-2 receptor stimulation leading to bronchodilation C. Vasoconstriction D. Beta-1 agonist effect
B. Beta-2 receptor stimulation leading to bronchodilation
83
Which condition would benefit most from CPAP? A. Asthma B. Pulmonary edema with respiratory distress C. Hyperventilation D. Epiglottitis
B. Pulmonary edema with respiratory distress
84
What is the recommended method of oxygen delivery for mild respiratory distress? A. NRB B. BVM C. Nasal cannula D. CPAP
C. Nasal cannula
85
In an adult patient, when is positive pressure ventilation indicated? A. Normal breathing B. RR 16 and alert C. Shallow breathing with signs of hypoxia D. Loud wheezing
C. Shallow breathing with signs of hypoxia
86
How often should albuterol be administered in continuous nebulization? A. Once every hour B. As needed based on patient condition C. Every 15 minutes D. Every 30 minutes
B. As needed based on patient condition
87
What is the primary goal when using BiPAP for a COPD patient? A. Increase BP B. Increase RR C. Reduce work of breathing and improve gas exchange D. Raise heart rate
C. Reduce work of breathing and improve gas exchange
88
When should an EMS provider discontinue CPAP therapy? A. When BP rises B. If the patient becomes unconscious or cannot maintain airway C. After 10 minutes D. After 1 albuterol treatment
B. If the patient becomes unconscious or cannot maintain airway
89
What type of medication is Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)? A. Antihistamine B. Corticosteroid C. Vasodilator D. Bronchodilator
B. Corticosteroid
90
What is a benefit of corticosteroids in respiratory emergencies? A. Increase airway resistance B. Decreases inflammation and improves airflow C. Increases SpO2 directly D. Acts as an antipyretic
B. Decreases inflammation and improves airflow
91
What is a contraindication for nebulized albuterol? A. Mild asthma B. CHF C. Known hypersensitivity D. COPD
C. Known hypersensitivity
92
In children, which symptom suggests severe respiratory distress? A. Snoring B. Nasal flaring and grunting C. Mild cough D. Clear speech
B. Nasal flaring and grunting
93
What action should be taken if a child presents with inspiratory stridor and drooling? A. Suction aggressively B. Lay flat C. Avoid agitation and transport in position of comfort D. Administer albuterol immediately
C. Avoid agitation and transport in position of comfort
94
What is the best intervention for a responsive child with a partial airway obstruction? A. Chest compressions B. Blind finger sweep C. Allow them to cough and monitor closely D. Back blows
C. Allow them to cough and monitor closely
95
In what situation should needle cricothyrotomy be considered? A. Severe epistaxis B. Stridor with oxygen above 95% C. Complete airway obstruction with no other option to ventilate D. COPD exacerbation
C. Complete airway obstruction with no other option to ventilate
96
What should EMS providers do if upper airway obstruction is suspected but not visualized? A. Intubate B. Administer steroids C. Attempt BVM and prepare for advanced airway D. Insert nasal airway immediately
C. Attempt BVM and prepare for advanced airway
97
What is the purpose of a PEEP valve in CPAP therapy? A. Reduce lung compliance B. Remove CO2 C. Keeps alveoli open during exhalation D. Increase CO2 output
C. Keeps alveoli open during exhalation
98
What equipment is essential for waveform capnography? A. IV tubing and monitor B. Nasal cannula only C. EtCO2 sensor and monitor D. ECG monitor only
C. EtCO2 sensor and monitor
99
Which finding indicates need for urgent airway management? A. Talking in full sentences B. Cyanosis with altered mental status C. Mild wheezing D. SpO2 of 96%
B. Cyanosis with altered mental status
100
When ventilating a pediatric patient with BVM, how fast should breaths be delivered? A. Every 10 seconds B. Every 6 seconds C. Every 3 seconds (20 breaths/min) D. Every 2 seconds
C. Every 3 seconds (20 breaths/min)
101
Question (Front)
Answer (Back)
102
What is the appropriate initial dose of nebulized albuterol for a child under 2 years? A. 2.5 mg B. 1.25 mg C. 0.5 mg D. 5 mg
B. 1.25 mg
103
Which setting on BiPAP controls oxygenation? A. FiO2 B. IPAP C. EPAP D. BPM
C. EPAP
104
What is the role of Ipratropium in asthma management? A. Anti-inflammatory B. Mucolytic C. Bronchodilation via anticholinergic effects D. Sedative
C. Bronchodilation via anticholinergic effects
105
Which of the following indicates need for advanced airway in an adult? A. SpO2 94% B. RR 20 C. GCS 7 with shallow breathing D. Patient alert and oriented
C. GCS 7 with shallow breathing
106
What is a late sign of respiratory failure in children? A. Retractions B. Nasal flaring C. Grunting D. Bradycardia
D. Bradycardia
107
When using a BVM, what volume is appropriate for adults? A. 200 mL B. 500 mL C. 800–1000 mL D. 1500 mL
C. 800–1000 mL
108
What should you do if you hear gurgling sounds during BVM ventilation? A. Apply more oxygen B. Reposition the mask C. Suction the airway D. Increase bagging rate
C. Suction the airway
109
Which condition typically presents with wheezing and is treated with bronchodilators? A. CHF B. Asthma C. Croup D. Pneumonia
B. Asthma
110
What is the best way to deliver oxygen to an apneic patient? A. Nasal cannula B. BVM with reservoir and high-flow O2 C. Simple face mask D. CPAP
B. BVM with reservoir and high-flow O2
111
What oxygen delivery device is used with nebulized albuterol? A. Nasal cannula B. Non-rebreather mask C. T-piece D. Small volume nebulizer
D. Small volume nebulizer
112
Which is a contraindication to using CPAP? A. Asthma B. Pneumonia C. Respiratory arrest D. COPD
C. Respiratory arrest
113
What should you assess first when managing a respiratory emergency? A. Skin color B. Pulse C. Airway patency D. Temperature
C. Airway patency
114
What lung sound is associated with fluid in the alveoli? A. Stridor B. Wheezes C. Crackles D. Rhonchi
C. Crackles
115
What condition is most commonly associated with stridor? A. Asthma B. Bronchitis C. Epiglottitis D. CHF
C. Epiglottitis
116
What is the purpose of PEEP in CPAP or BiPAP therapy? A. Improve circulation B. Improve alveolar recruitment C. Reduce anxiety D. Increase heart rate
B. Improve alveolar recruitment
117
Which of the following is NOT a sign of respiratory distress? A. Retractions B. Nasal flaring C. Clear speech D. Use of accessory muscles
C. Clear speech
118
In infants, what sign is most concerning for imminent respiratory failure? A. Grunting B. Crying C. Sneezing D. Normal breathing
A. Grunting
119
What is the initial action for a patient in tripod position and short of breath? A. Place in supine B. Assess airway and apply oxygen C. Give IV fluids D. Administer oral glucose
B. Assess airway and apply oxygen
120
Which medication should be used for bronchospasm in a COPD patient? A. Epinephrine B. Diphenhydramine C. Albuterol D. Lorazepam
C. Albuterol
121
Which finding indicates effective ventilation with BVM? A. Absence of chest rise B. Gurgling sounds C. Visible chest rise and fall D. Cyanosis persists
C. Visible chest rise and fall
122
What is the preferred oxygen device for moderate respiratory distress? A. Nasal cannula B. Venturi mask C. Non-rebreather mask D. Room air
C. Non-rebreather mask
123
Which of these best describes tidal volume? A. Pressure of oxygen B. Oxygen concentration C. Air displaced per breath D. Amount of CO2 exhaled
C. Air displaced per breath
124
What is a common cause of hypoxia in respiratory patients? A. Hypertension B. Hyperglycemia C. Airway obstruction D. Bradycardia
C. Airway obstruction
125
When administering nebulized medication, what is necessary for optimal delivery? A. Patient should lie flat B. Mouthpiece or mask C. Endotracheal tube only D. Pulse oximeter
B. Mouthpiece or mask
126
Which of the following is the most serious sign of respiratory compromise? A. Audible wheezing B. Oxygen sat of 92% C. Inability to speak D. Mild cough
C. Inability to speak
127
Which of the following best indicates effective CPAP therapy? A. Increased anxiety B. Decreased respiratory effort and improved SpO2 C. Bradycardia D. Dry mouth
B. Decreased respiratory effort and improved SpO2
128
What should you do if a patient develops a pneumothorax while on CPAP? A. Increase CPAP pressure B. Switch to nasal cannula C. Discontinue CPAP and provide supportive care D. Administer steroids
C. Discontinue CPAP and provide supportive care
129
What respiratory pattern is common in diabetic ketoacidosis? A. Apnea B. Cheyne-Stokes C. Kussmaul D. Agonal
C. Kussmaul
130
Which patient condition is a contraindication for BVM use without advanced airway? A. Unconscious with no gag reflex B. Conscious and alert C. Shallow breathing D. Apnea
B. Conscious and alert
131
What lung sounds are most common with fluid overload in CHF? A. Wheezing B. Crackles C. Stridor D. Clear
B. Crackles
132
What is the best indicator that a patient is tiring from respiratory distress? A. Restlessness B. Decreased respiratory rate and altered mental status C. Tachypnea D. SpO2 < 94%
B. Decreased respiratory rate and altered mental status
133
What is a sign of upper airway swelling? A. Rhonchi B. Stridor C. Rales D. Wheezing
B. Stridor
134
Which treatment is indicated for wheezing unresponsive to albuterol in a COPD patient? A. Dextrose B. Ipratropium C. Epinephrine D. Diphenhydramine
B. Ipratropium
135
What is the primary purpose of EtCO2 monitoring in sedated respiratory patients? A. Monitor oxygen saturation B. Assess ventilation status C. Assess blood pressure D. Evaluate perfusion
B. Assess ventilation status
136
What should you do if a respiratory patient becomes combative and is at risk of self-harm? A. Apply CPAP B. Begin rapid sequence intubation C. Apply restraints and consider sedation per protocol D. Leave patient alone
C. Apply restraints and consider sedation per protocol
137
What is the preferred method for oxygen delivery in suspected CO poisoning? A. Nasal cannula B. Venturi mask C. Non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM D. CPAP
C. Non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM
138
What is the key difference between CPAP and BiPAP? A. Oxygen flow rate B. BiPAP uses two pressure levels C. CPAP delivers bronchodilators D. BiPAP requires intubation
B. BiPAP uses two pressure levels
139
Which of the following best indicates adequate pediatric ventilation? A. Visible chest rise with BVM every 3 seconds B. Continuous BVM C. Loud wheezing D. Gasping
A. Visible chest rise with BVM every 3 seconds
140
Which patient would most benefit from CPAP? A. Patient with anxiety B. Alert patient with moderate pulmonary edema C. Child with epiglottitis D. Vomiting patient
B. Alert patient with moderate pulmonary edema
141
What should be done after intubation to verify placement? A. Suction airway B. Give oxygen C. Confirm with EtCO2 and auscultation D. Start IV line
C. Confirm with EtCO2 and auscultation
142
What is the maximum liter flow typically used with a non-rebreather mask? A. 6 L/min B. 8 L/min C. 10 L/min D. 15 L/min
D. 15 L/min
143
What is a key assessment finding in croup? A. Productive cough B. Barking cough C. Crackles D. Cyanosis
B. Barking cough
144
What respiratory sound is a hallmark of bronchospasm? A. Stridor B. Wheezing C. Rales D. Snoring
B. Wheezing
145
What sign suggests need for immediate intubation in an adult? A. Tachypnea B. Altered mental status and inability to protect airway C. Wheezing D. SpO2 of 94%
B. Altered mental status and inability to protect airway
146
What is the best method to treat mild hypoxia in a cooperative patient? A. NRB at 15 LPM B. BVM C. Nasal cannula at 2–6 LPM D. CPAP
C. Nasal cannula at 2–6 LPM
147
What should be done first for a seizing patient with suspected hypoxia? A. Restrain the patient B. Administer albuterol C. Open airway and provide oxygen D. Start IV fluids
C. Open airway and provide oxygen
148
What is a common cause of respiratory distress in pediatrics? A. Hypertension B. Upper airway obstruction C. Stroke D. Hyperglycemia
B. Upper airway obstruction
149
What is the best way to pre-oxygenate before intubation? A. Nasal cannula B. Bag-valve-mask with 100% O2 C. Room air D. Simple face mask
B. Bag-valve-mask with 100% O2
150
Which condition most commonly causes tripod positioning? A. CHF B. Pneumonia C. Severe respiratory distress D. Stroke
C. Severe respiratory distress
151
Which of the following is most important in preventing aspiration in a patient with a poor gag reflex? A. Supine positioning B. Oxygen mask C. Suction and airway positioning D. Albuterol
C. Suction and airway positioning