Retake Flashcards

(73 cards)

1
Q

Angiotensin II directly increases water reabsorption in which tubule?

A

the proximal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Aldosterone directly increases water reabsorption in which tubule?

A

the distal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Aldosterone is produced by which organ?

A

the adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Aldosterone acts to increase the expression and activity of which transporters?

A

ENaCs and Na/K-ATPases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What kind of transporter is the Na/H transporter?

A

an antiport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bicarb reabsorption from the tubular lumen requires what transporter activity?

A

Na/H antiport to supply protons for carbonic anhydrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ca-ATPases are located on which surface of tubular epithelial cells?

A

the basolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which tubular epithelial cells are primarily responsible for regulating pH?

A

intercalated cells in the distal and collecting tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe proton and bicarb movement across the tubular epithelim in a state of acidosis.

A
  • protons derived from CO2 by intracellular carbonic anhydrase are pumped into the tubular lumen by H-ATPases and H/K-ATPases
  • the bicarb produced by carbonic anhydrase is reabsorbed through the Cl/3HCO3- antiport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe proton and bicarb movement across the tubular epithelium in a state of alkalosis.

A
  • carbonic anhydrase splits CO2 in intercalated cells
  • protons are reabsorbed by H-ATPases and H/K-ATPases on the basolateral surface
  • bicarb is excreted via Cl/3HCO2- antiports no the apical surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What three compounds are used to buffer urine?

A

bicarb, ammonia, and phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give the equation for the UAG. What is considered normal?

A

Na + K - Cl with a negative value being normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is furosemide?

A

a loop diurective that blocks NKCC transporters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are thiazides?

A

Na/Cl transport inhibitors that function in the distal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Thiazides are best used for what clinical purposes?

A

long-term use of a diurectic given their limited SEs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is spironolactone?

A

a K-sparing diuretic that acts on aldosterone and Na/K-ATPases in the collecting tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is acetazolamide?

A

a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where does acetazolamide fucntion?

A

the proximal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Acetazolamide blocks reabsorption of what molecule?

A

bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is mannitol?

A

an osmotic diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In which clinical scenario would you use mannitol?

A

the acute treatment of severe edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Clearance of a substance that is subject to reabsorption ___ as the concentration of that substance increases?

A

clearance increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Give the equation for estimating tubular reabsorption.

A

GFR x P - U x V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give the equation for estimating tubular secretion.

A

U x V - GFR x P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How do we estimate renal plasma flow?
using the clearance of PAH
26
How do we estimate renal blood flow?
RPF/1-hematocrit
27
Which renal neoplasia is often exacerbated by pregnancy?
angiomyolipomas
28
What is the primary risk factor for RCC?
smoking
29
Stallate scars are a feature of which renal neoplasia?
oncocytomas
30
Oncocytomas arise from which renal structure?
collecting duct
31
Clear cell RCCs are derived from which renal structure?
proximal tubules
32
A cancer of the renal pelvis is like a ____
urothelial carcinoma
33
What are the components of nephrotic syndrome?
- proteinuria - hypoalbuminemia - edema - hyperlipidemia
34
What are the components of nephritis?
- hematuria - proteinuria - hypertension - urine sediment
35
Hypocomplementemia and history of recent infection are characteristic of which glomerular disorder?
PIGN
36
Subepithelial humps are a histological features of what glomerular disorder?
PIGN
37
What is the histopathology of primary IgAN?
mesangial expansion and cellular proliferation
38
What is the main cause of secondary IgAN?
cirrhosis and liver disease
39
Which glomerular disorder is morphologically indistinguishable from IgAN?
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
40
How do we differentiate IgAN from Henoch-Schonlein purpura?
Henoch-schonlein purpura is accompanied by systemic vasculitis and skin pain
41
Which nephritis-causing disorder shows linear IgG in the GBM?
goodpasture syndrome
42
Describe the histopathologic featuers of diabetic nephropathy.
- GBM thickening - diffuse mesangial expansion - KW nodules
43
Congo red staining will show what sort of glomerular disorder?
amyloidosis
44
Minimal change disease primarily affects which age group?
children
45
Damage to foot processes is a characteristic of what glomerular disease?
minimal change disease and FSGN
46
Minimal change disease is responsive to what treatment?
steroids
47
How can we differentitate minimal change disease from FSGN?
FSGN does not respond to steroids while minimal change disease does, additionally, sclerosis is not a feature of minimal change disease
48
What is collapsing glomerulopathy?
a subtype of FSGS related to HIV, drug use, and itiopathic causes
49
What is the characteristic histopathologic feature of membranous glomerulopathy?
diffuse global thickening of teh GBM
50
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is caused by what?
abnormal complement activation
51
HCV and HBV are causes of what secondary nephritis?
membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
52
The pineal gland secretes ____.
melatonin
53
C cells are part of which endocrine gland?
the thyroid
54
Three layers of the adrenal cortex
glomerulosa, fasciculata, reticularis
55
Where are chromaffin cells located?
the adrenal medulla
56
Which neoplasia is related to heightened epinephrine release?
pheochromocytoma
57
Elevated PTHrp is indicative of what cause of hypercalcemia?
a malignancy
58
A ___ carcinoma is indistinguishable from an adenoma until it metastasizes.
pituitary
59
Rathke's pouch remnants can give rise to what pituitary neoplasia?
craniopharyngioma
60
What is bromocryptine?
a DA antagonist used to treat acromegaly
61
What is Addison's disease?
primary hypoadrenalism
62
What is CRH?
the hypothalamic mediator that triggers ACTH release
63
What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
a 21-OH deficiency
64
What is Sheehan's syndrome?
diminished pituitary functioning due to reduction in perfusion, commonly during and after birth
65
How does metformin function?
stimulate increased insulin production
66
Which drugs sensitize the periphery to insulin naturally secreted by the pancreas?
thiazolidinedines
67
Which diabetic drug is contraindicated for those with renal disease?
metformin
68
How do sulfonylureas treat diabetes?
by stimulating extra production
69
Which thyroid cancer is highly associated with MEN1?
medullary carcinoma of thryoid
70
Which thyroid carcinoma invades the trachea?
anaplastic
71
Where does leptin come from?
adipocytes
72
Leptin does what to apetite?
decrease apetite
73
What is the long-acting form of insulin?
glargine