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Atlas PC Question Bank > Rev 3 > Flashcards

Rev 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Wingspan of 400/-8

A

213’/64.9M
224.5’/68.4M

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2
Q

With body gear steering, what is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?

A

153’/46.6M
172’/52.4M

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3
Q

What happens when you rotate the oxygen mask emergency/test selector to emergency?

A

Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes and protects against smoke and harmful vapors.

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4
Q

With the emergency lights switch armed, when do the emergency lights illuminate?

A

If airplane DC power fails or is turned off

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5
Q

What is the electrical power source for the emergency lighting system and how long does it last?

A

Remote batteries, 15 minutes

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6
Q

Where is the portable ELT located on the -400 freighter?

A

Upper deck lavatory exterior wall (OSHA wall)

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7
Q

What are the immediate action item checklists?

A

CABIN ALTITUDE / Rapid depressurization
ENG 1, 2, 3, 4 AUTOSTART / Aborted Engine Start
Engine Limit or Surge or Stall
IAS DISAGREE / Airspeed Unreliable
FIRE ENG 1, 2, 3, 4 / Engine Severe Damage or Separation
Multiple Engine Flameout or Stall

Evacuation

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8
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?

A

15 kts (10 kts for LCF)

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9
Q

What is the maximum headwind component for autoland?

A

25 kts

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10
Q

What are the maximum and minimum glideslope angles for ILS autoland?

A

2.5 - 3.25 degrees

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11
Q

What VNAV limitation applies to level-off within 2,000’ after changing the altimeter setting from QNE to QNH or QNH to QNE?

A

Do not use VNAV for level-off if the QNH is less than 29.70”/1006hPa

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12
Q

Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged below what RA altitude?

A

100’ RA

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13
Q

What is the turbulent air penetration speed?

A

400: 290-310 kts / 0.82 - 0.85 Mach
-8: 310 kts / 0.83 Mach

Whichever is lower

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14
Q

What is the minimum in flight fuel temperature for the -8?

A

-48C

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15
Q

What is the maximum altitude for flap extension?

A

20,000’

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16
Q

Are operations allowed when the reported braking action is NIL?

A

No

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17
Q

Where can the maximum takeoff and landing weights be found?

A
  • Page one of the OFP
  • FCOM Vol 1 Limitations
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18
Q

What is the difference in the basic operating weight (BOW) on the OFP versus the Sable load sheet? Is there a difference between the Sable and OFP final calculated ZFW and TOGW?

A

OFP BOW includes all cockpit and cabin crew
Sable BOW only includes 2 crew, adds more via additional crew members (ACM)

Final ZFW and TOGW are the same

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19
Q

Performance in flight: pitch and N1 at designated altitude and weight

A

QRH: PI.20.5

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20
Q

What BTMS number on the GEAR synoptic display will cause an EICAS advisory message of BRAKE TEMP?

A

5 or more, hottest brake indication 10-15 minutes after airplane has come to a complete stop

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21
Q

Performance in flight: VREF for flaps and weight combination

A

QRH: PI.20.1

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22
Q

Performance in flight: flap maneuvering speed for flap setting and weight

A

QRH: PI.20.1

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23
Q

On the 400F, 400C, and -8, the final upper deck/cockpit procedure requires the FO to do what with the smoke barrier door?

A

Ensure the door is closed and all three securing locks are moved to the locked position

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24
Q

In the normal mode, what does the EEC use as the controlling parameter for the GE engines? For PW engines?

A

GE: N1
PW: EPR

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25
Q

What protection features are provided in the EEC normal mode?

A

Thrust limiting
Constant thrust
Overspeed protection

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26
Q

What occurs with the autothrottle system when any EEC control is switched to alternate mode?

A

The autothrottles disconnect, but can be reconnected when all EECs have been switched to alternate mode

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27
Q

What EEC normal mode protection feature is not available in EEC alternate mode?

A

Thrust limiting at maximum N1 (max thrust can be achieved prior to thrust lever position at full forward)

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28
Q

When does the EEC select approach idle?

A

Nacelle anti-ice is ON
Flaps in a landing position
Continuous ignition switch is ON
During thrust reverser operation

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29
Q

What action should be taken prior to manual selection of EEC alternate mode?

A

Decrease thrust lever position
Note: Thrust does not change when the EEC auto transfers control from normal mode to alternate mode

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30
Q

What happens when you turn the continuous ignition switch (CON) ON?

A

Selected igniters operate continuously
Commands approach idle minimum

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31
Q

What two engine indications are displayed full time on the primary EICAS on a GE?

A

N1
EGT

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32
Q

What color does the EGT change to if the EGT start or takeoff limit is reached?

A

Red

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33
Q

If the airborne vibration monitoring system cannot determine the source of the vibration (FAN, LPT, NT) it will display “BB.” What does this mean?

A

Broadband. Broadband vibration is the average vibration detected.

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34
Q

What three items will the autostart system protect the engine from during an engine start that will also result in an ENG 1, 2, 3, 4 AUTOSTART EICAS message?

A

Hot start
Hung start
No start (no EGT rise)

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35
Q

How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on the GE engine

A

Pneumatically actuated fan air

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36
Q

How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on the PW engine?

A

Powered by hydraulic pressure from the related hydraulic system to actuate the fan air thrust reversers

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37
Q

How is the engine thrust reverser actuated on the GEnx B747-8?

A

Hydraulically actuated fan air

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38
Q

With an engine shut down, what does “X-BLD” indicate when displayed next to the N2 indication?

A

Cross bleed air is recommended for in-flight start

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39
Q

When is ignition selected for all engines?

A

Trailing edge flaps out of the up position
Continuous ignition switch is ON

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40
Q

How many igniters are selected for ground start and how many for in-flight start?

A

One for ground start
Two for in-flight start

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41
Q

What are the PW engine warm up requirements for oil temperature before takeoff?

A

Above the lower amber band

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42
Q

The GENX2B67 engine EECs command ice crystal icing ant-icing when ice crystal icing conditions are detected at altitudes higher than ______

A

30,000’

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43
Q

The GENX2B67 ice crystal anti-icing cycle continues for ___ minutes as long as ICI conditions are detected or the airplane descends below _____ feet.

A

15 minutes
28,000’

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44
Q

When does the GENX2B67 engine select minimum or approach idle?

A

Engine anti-ice ON
Landing gear down
Flaps 20 selected
Flaps in a landing position
Thrust reverser operation

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45
Q

Under what conditions on the ground will the GEnx EEC shut down an engine to provide protection against thrust asymmetry due to a control malfunction?

A

Thrust lever at/near idle AND engine above commanded N1 speed and not decelerating normally

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46
Q

During engine start, when will the GEnx engine provide an additional 40 seconds of motoring at ~20% N2?

A

Engine has been shut down between 30-360 minutes
EGT is greater than 30C

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47
Q

During engine start, the GEnx engine EEC will attempt corrective action for the following conditions:

A

Hot start
Hung start
No start (no EGT rise)
Compressor stall

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48
Q

GEnx engine in-flight start attempts will increase EGT limit by 25C after four start attempts and will repeat this action on subsequent re-attempts until?

A

Start is achieved or EGT limit is reached

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49
Q

When does the EICAS memo message APU RUNNING display?

A

When the APU selector is ON and APU N1 RPM exceeds 95% N1

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50
Q

Is electrical power available from the APU in flight?

A

No

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51
Q

Can the APU be operated in flight?

A

Yes
When left running for takeoff, it can be operated in flight up to 20,000’

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52
Q

How long should you wait before turning the battery switch OFF after the APU selector is rotated to OFF and why?

A

2 minutes
Allows a complete shutdown sequence with fire detection capability

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53
Q

What are the main AC electrical power sources on the LCF?

A

Four IDGs
Two external power sources

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54
Q

What is the function of the Standby Power switch AUTO position?

A

Allows the main and APU standby busses to be powered from available sources

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55
Q

What does the AVAIL light indicate on the external and APU power switches?

A

The related power source (APU or EXT) is plugged in/available and the power quality is acceptable

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56
Q

When is the main cargo deck handling bus powered?

A

When the AVAIL light is displayed on the APU 2 or EXT 2 switches

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57
Q

What electrical power source provides power for the lower lobe cargo handling, fueling panel, and AUX 4 hydraulic pump?

A

EXT PWR 1 or APU GEN 1 is AVAIL or selected ON (powering the ground handling bus)

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58
Q

What are some of the equipment items powered by the utility busses?

A

5 fuel pumps (FUEL PUMP/OVRD 2/3 FWD, FUEL OVRD CTR L)
Galley equipment

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59
Q

What happens when you push a generator drive disconnect switch (DRIVE DISC)?

A

Disconnects IDG from engine when above idle speed
Opens related generator control breaker (GCB)

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60
Q

What condition would automatically disconnect the IDG if not manually disconnected by the flight crew?

A

Excessively high drive oil temperature

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61
Q

What does a bus isolation (ISLN) light indicate?

A

Bus tie breaker (BTB) open
AC bus isolated from the synchronous bus

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62
Q

How do you reconnect an IDG that has been disconnected?

A

You don’t
Maintenance action required
The IDG cannot be restored by flight crew action

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63
Q

How is the electrical system configured during an automatic ILS approach (autoland)?

A

AC and DC busses 1, 2, and 3 are isolated from the synch bus
AC bus 4 continues to power the synch bus

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64
Q

What are the main AC electrical power sources?

A

Four IDGs
Two auxiliary power sources (APU generators)
Two external power sources

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65
Q

What does the hydraulic system fault light (SYS FAULT) indicate?

A

Low hydraulic system pressure
Low hydraulic reservoir quantity
Excessive (high) hydraulic fluid temperature

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66
Q

What does a hydraulic demand pump low pressure (PRESS) light indicate?

A

Demand pump selector positioned to OFF or AUX
Demand pump operates and output pressure is low

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67
Q

When will the demand pumps be commanded to operate if the hydraulic demand pump selector is in the AUTO position?

A

Demand pumps operate when the respective engine pump output pressure is low or when the respective fuel control switch is in CUTOFF
Demand pumps 1 and 4 operate automatically when trailing edge flaps are in transit on the ground or continuously when flaps are extended past 1 in flight

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68
Q

On GE -400 aircraft, which demand pumps are air driven and which ones are electric motor driven?

A

1 and 4 are pneumatic
2 and 3 are electric

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69
Q

On N480MC, N445MC, and N446MC, which demand pumps are pneumatic and which are electric?

A

All four are pneumatic

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70
Q

What does a magenta “RF” displayed next to a hydraulic quantity indicator on the secondary EICAS mean?

A

The reservoir requires refill (only displays on the ground)

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71
Q

What is the purpose of the auxiliary pump?

A

Used for ground handling operations

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72
Q

When is the engine driven pump pressurized?

A

The engine is running
The engine pump switch is ON

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73
Q

What does a hydraulic reservoir quantity indication of 0.95 mean as displayed on the secondary EICAS?

A

Percent of normal level (95%)

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74
Q

What degraded or inoperative systems can you expect from a loss of hydraulic system 1

A

Center autopilot
Left outboard elevator inop, left inboard elevator degraded
Inboard trailing edge flaps hydraulic operation inop (move in secondary mode)
Nose and body gear hydraulic extension and retraction inop
Nose and body gear steering
Alternate brakes degraded (sys 1)

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75
Q

What degraded or inoperative systems can you expect from a loss of hydraulic system 4?

A

Right outboard elevator inop, right inboard elevator degraded
Outboard trailing edge flaps hydraulic operation inop
Two inboard spoiler panels on each wing inop
Wing gear hydraulic extension and retraction inop
System 4 normal brake source inop
Auto brake inop

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76
Q

How many engine fire extinguishers are provided?

A

Two on each wing (four total)

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77
Q

FIRE CARGO FWD: Pressing the FWD cargo fire ARM switch causes what actions?

A

Two packs shut down
Arms lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers
Configures equipment cooling to override mode and turns off all airflow and heat to lower cargo compartments
Closes master trim air valve

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78
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the forward and aft lower cargo compartments?

A

Four fire extinguisher bottles
Pushing the cargo fire discharge switch discharges two bottles immediately. The other two bottles discharge after a brief delay or upon touchdown.

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79
Q

How many APU fire bottles are provided?

A

One

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80
Q

What action discharges the APU fire extinguisher?

A

Rotate - discharges APU fire extinguisher into APU compartment.
- On the ground, the APU extinguisher automatically discharges on 408, 418, N-PA, 475 - 477, 489, 492-499, 850-859

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81
Q

Can you shut down the APU from outside the airplane?

A

Yes
Right body gear well is the APU ground control fire protection panel. This panel has an APU stop switch and an APU extinguisher discharge switch.

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82
Q

Is there smoke detection provided for the crew rest areas?

A

Yes
Smoke detectors are installed in the crew rest areas. An aural warning sounds in the crew rest compartment when smoke is detected there.

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83
Q

What happens when you push the CARGO FIRE depressurization switch with the main deck fire switch armed?

A

Initiates airplane depressurization
MAIN selected to ARMED:
- Enables main deck fire suppression
- Turns off two packs
- Configures equipment cooling to closed loop
- Turns off all airflow to the main deck and heat into lower cargo compartments
- Closes master trim air valve

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84
Q

What unlocks an engine fire switch?

A

Fire warning
FUEL CONTROL switch in CUTOFF
Pushing the fire override switch

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85
Q

Is the engine fire/overheat detection system a single loop or dual loop system?

A

Dual loop
A dual loop fire detector is installed in each engine nacelle. In addition, each engine has a dual loop overheat detector. In normal operation, both loops in a detector must detect a fire or overheat condition to cause an engine fire warning or overheat caution unless configured for single loop operation.

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86
Q

What does arming the FWD CARGO fire switch do on the passenger aircraft?

A

Arms cargo fire extinguisher
Configures equipment cooling to override mode
Turns off airflow and heat to forward compartment
Turns off pack 3
Turns of nitrogen generation system

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87
Q

How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the lower lobes of the 747-8?

A

Six

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88
Q

How is the center wing tank fuel scavenged?

A

CWT fuel is scavenged by 4 jet pumps pushing fuel into main tanks 2 and 3.
Scavenge begins when main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to approximately 27,200 kgs

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89
Q

Which cross feed valves are controlled by Fuel System Management logic when setting T/O flaps?

A

Crossfeed valves 2 and 3

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90
Q

During the before start procedure, at what center wing tank quantity are you required to select the center wing pumps on? In lbs for the LCF?

A

> 7,700 kgs in the center wing tank
17,000 lbs in the center wing tank

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91
Q

Main tank 2 and 3 override/jettison pumps can operate to a standpipe level of approximately ____ kgs (-400), ____ lbs (LCF), ____ kgs (-8) of fuel remaining in each tank.

A

-400: 3,200 kgs
LCF: 7,000 lbs
-8: 3,450 kgs

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92
Q

Describe how the fuel quantity indication changes upon the termination of fuel jettison.

A

The fuel to remain quantity indication changes from magenta to white
The fuel to remain quantity flashes for five seconds

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93
Q

How does center wing tank fuel scavenge in the -400/-8?

A

CWT fuel is scavenged by four jet pumps pumping into main tanks 2 and 3
Scavenge begins when main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to approximately 27,200 kg

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94
Q

How does center wing tank fuel scavenge in the LCF?

A

CWT electric pump into main tank 2 when CWT override/jettison pump has low pressure OR fuel quantity in main tank 2 or 3 is below 40,200 lbs.
Pump will operate for approximately two hours or until scavenge pump pressure is low, whichever occurs first)

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95
Q

State what occurs when you select the fuel jettison switch to A or B.

A

Arms jettison selector
Displays preselected fuel to remain on EICAS

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96
Q

What is the impact on the aircraft with excessive fuel imbalance?

A

Adversely affects CG
Aerodynamic drag
Degraded fuel economy

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97
Q

When do the FSMCs open the reserve transfer valves on the -400, LCF, and -8?

A

-400: When main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to approximately 18,200 kg (reserve tanks transfer to Main 2 and 3)
LCF: When main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to approximately 40,200 lbs (reserve tanks transfer to Main 2 and 3)
-8: When main tank 1 or 4 fuel quantity decreases to approximately 6,100 kg (reserve tanks transfer to Main 1 and 4)

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98
Q

In which tank is fuel temperature measured?

A

Main tank 1

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99
Q

In general, how would you handle an excessive fuel imbalance situation?

A

By opening or closing cross feed valves and turning fuel pump switches on or off in accordance with QRH/supplementary procedures

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100
Q

Which fuel tanks do reserve tanks 1 and 4 transfer into on the 747-8

A

Main tanks 1 and 4

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101
Q

On the 747-8, at what fuel quantity will the fuel jettison complete jettison operations with the selector in the MLW position?

A

Maximum landing weight plus 3,000 kg

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102
Q

During fuel jettison on the LCF, transfer valves open when fuel quantity in tanks 2 or 3 decrease to how many pounds?

A

20,000 lbs

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103
Q

Describe what happens when nacelle anti-ice is commanded on.

A

NAI valve opens
Selected engine igniters operate continuously
Engine PRV opens when the NAI valve is open

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104
Q

The 747-8 EICAS message BLD LOW TEMP indicates what?

A

Engine bleed air too low for sufficient wing anti-icing

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105
Q

Does the nacelle anti-ice AUTO position function on the ground?

A

No, the auto function only works in flight

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106
Q

How many ice detection probes are there and where are they located?

A

Two probes are located on the forward fuselage

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107
Q

How many angle of attack probes are provided and when are they heated?

A

Two angle of attack probes
Electrically heated when any engine is operating

108
Q

How many pitot-static probes are provided and when are they heated?

A

Four pitot-static probes
Electrically heated when any engine is operating

109
Q

Window heat ON switches provide both anti-icing and anti-fogging protections to which flight deck windows?

A

Forward left and right windshields only

110
Q

On the -400 what indications are displayed on the primary EICAS when the nacelle anti-ice and/or wing anti-ice valves are open?

A

NAI for nacelle anti-ice
WAI for wing anti-ice

111
Q

On the -8, what indications are displayed on the primary EICAS when the nacelle anti-ice and/or wing anti-ice valves are open?

A

EAI for engine anti-ice
WAI for wing anti-ice

112
Q

Is wing anti-ice effective with the leading edge flaps extended?

A

No, wing anti-ice is ineffective when the LEF are not retracted

113
Q

Can you operate the wing anti-ice system on the ground?

A

No, the WAI system is inhibited on the ground

114
Q

When does the equipment cooling system configure for flight?

A

One or more engines on each wing operating

115
Q

On the ground, when is warm equipment cooling air ducted overboard?

A

Engines not operating
Equipment cooling selector in NORM
Ambient temperature moderate or high

116
Q

Equipment cooling provides cooling air for what compartment and systems?

A

Flight deck equipment
Electrical and equipment racks (E&E bay)

117
Q

How can you manually configure the equipment cooling system for flight?

A

Positioning the equipment cooling selector to STBY

118
Q

What is the function of the lower lobe cargo conditioned air flow rate selector?

A

Provides forward and aft cargo lobe conditioned air

119
Q

What happens if a pack temperature controller (PTC) detects a fault in a pack channel?

A

Control of the respective pack switches to the PTC

120
Q

How many pack temperature controllers (PTC) are provided?

A

Two - A and B

121
Q

On the 747-8 with main deck and FWD/AFT lower lobe temperature selector in the OFF position, what is the temperature zone target?

A

68F/20C

122
Q

On the 747-8, the nitrogen generation system converts bleed air to nitrogen enriched air for what purpose?

A

Reduce flammability of the center wing tank ullage

123
Q

On the 747-8, what does the alternate ventilation system provide with all packs shut down and the airplane depressurized?

A

Outside air to the flight deck

124
Q

On the 747-8, what position are the MAIN DECK FWD and AFT TEMP selectors normally placed during preflight?

A

OFF

125
Q

On the 747-8, what position is the LOWER LOBE AFT CARGO HT selector normally placed in during preflight?

A

LOW

126
Q

On the 747-8, the TEMP DEV CGO advisory message HI or LO respectively indicate what?

A

HI: 9F/5C higher than selected temperature
LO: 9F/5C lower than selected temperature

127
Q

The 747-8 lower lobe aft cargo heat selector regulates the temperature control valve to maintain what temperatures in the LOW and HIGH positions?

A

Low: 40F/4C
High: 50F/10C

128
Q

The 747-8 ECS left and right trim air is provided to which temperature zones?

A

Left:
- Flight deck
- Upper deck
- Crew rest
- Aft main deck

Right:
- Forward main deck
- Lower lobes

129
Q

When in the descent mode, will the cabin altitude controllers program a positive or a negative pressurization at touchdown?

A

Small positive pressurization at touchdown

130
Q

What action would allow manual operation of the pressurization system?

A

Turn both outflow manual switches to ON
All automatic cabin altitude control functions are bypassed

131
Q

When does the cabin altitude controller switch controllers (e.g. A to B)?

A

Automatically selects A or B on alternating flights
Will switch automatically if the active controller fails

132
Q

How many cabin altitude controllers are provided?

A

Two controllers, A and B
Each controller controls both outflow valves

133
Q

How can you gain manual control of the landing altitude?

A

By pushing the LDG ALT switch
- Landing altitude set by rotating the landing altitude selector
- Landing altitude followed by MAN displayed on the primary EICAS
The EICAS advisory message LANDING ALTITUDE is displayed

134
Q

What does the zone system fault light indicate?

A

Temperature zone duct over heat or zone temperature controller fault has occurred
Master trim air valve has failed closed
Master trim air valve closed and pack air continues to flow

135
Q

Under what conditions would high pressure air be used?

A

Descent
Other low power setting operations

136
Q

How would you isolate a bleed air duct section in the event of a bleed duct leak?

A

Close the respective isolation valve
Close the engine bleed air valves

137
Q

What does a bleed duct isolation (ISLN) valve light indicate?

A

Isolation valve position disagrees with switch position

138
Q

When bleed air pressure is available, the engine bleed air switches control which valves by system logic?

A

PRV
HP bleed valve
Engine bleed air valve

139
Q

Describe the general function of the pressure regulating valve (PRV)

A

Prevents damage to ducting and equipment downstream by limiting bleed air pressure

140
Q

Under what conditions would intermediate pressure air be used?

A

High power setting operations

141
Q

With a right duct isolated, how will this affect the hydraulic systems?

A

Hydraulic demand pump 4 off/unavailable
No hydraulic system 3 or 4 reservoir pressure

142
Q

With the EICAS message STARTER CUTOUT 1, 2, 3, 4 shown, will nacelle anti-ice be available for the related engine?

A

No

143
Q

With a right duct isolated, how will the affected leading edge flaps extend?

A

The right wing leading edge flaps operate electrically in secondary mode
Expect EICAS message FLAPS PRIMARY

144
Q

The outer BANK LIMIT selector applies to which roll mode?

A

HDG SEL

145
Q

How do you re-engage the autothrottles when the pitch mode is ALT, V/S, or G/S?

A

Push the SPD switch

146
Q

How do you re-engage the autothrottles when the pitch mode is VNAV ___ or FLCH SPD

A

Cycle the A/T ARM switch to OFF and back to ARM

147
Q

How can you manually select climb thrust after takeoff or a go-around?

A

Push the thrust (THR) switch

148
Q

What function is reflected if the THR switch light remains extinguished or is illuminated?

A

Extinguished: Thrust limit function
Illuminated: A/T mode function

149
Q

How can you de-select the approach mode after localizer and glide slope have captured?

A

Select TO/GA or disengage autopilot and position both F/D switches off

150
Q

Can the glide slope be captured prior to localizer intercept?

A

No, glide slope capture is inhibited until localizer capture and the intercept angle is less than 80 degrees of the localizer course

151
Q

What does an amber horizontal line displayed through the affected active pitch or roll mode indicate?

A

A flight mode fault is detected

152
Q

Will the autothrottles engage if TO/GA is not selected prior to 50 kts during takeoff?

A

No; however, they will automatically engage above 400’ when VNAV captures

153
Q

When will VNAV activate during takeoff?

A

VNAV activates at 400’ above runway elevation

154
Q

Which pitch mode does not provide autothrottles speed protection with the autothrottles and autopilot engaged?

A

Vertical speed (V/S)

155
Q

When is TO/GA mode terminated after takeoff?

A

By selecting any other pitch and roll mode or by the activation of LNAV/VNAV modes

156
Q

How can you disarm LNAV, LOC, VNAV, and APP modes when armed and prior to capture?

A

Push the mode switch a second time

157
Q

In flight, when is TO/GA armed?

A

Flaps out of up or glide slop captured

158
Q

For autoland, what controls are used by the AFDS to steer the airplane on the localizer course centerline after touchdown?

A

Rudder and nose wheel steering

159
Q

On approach, with the first push of TO/GA, what active autothrottle mode would the FMA display with the A/T armed?

A

THR

160
Q

What autothrottles mode is activated with the second push of the TO/GA switch?

A

THR REF, at full go-around thrust

161
Q

When does the autothrottles annunciation change to HOLD during takeoff?

A

65 kts

162
Q

What climb rate is achieved during a go-around with one push of the TO/GA switches?

A

2,000’/min of climb

163
Q

With the APP switch selected, at what altitude will the electrical busses isolate, allowing multiple autopilot engagement for autoland operations?

A

Below 1,500’ RA

164
Q

When will the FLARE mode activate during autoland?

A

~50’ RA

165
Q

What pitch is commanded by the AFDS when TO/GA is selected in a wind shear recovery?

A

15 degrees pitch up or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is lower

166
Q

Describe the condition that would cause VNAV ALT to display as the pitch mode.

A

A conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude

167
Q

What is the maximum intercept angle that the localizer will capture with APP or LOC armed?

A

<120 degrees

168
Q

During autoland, what action normally disconnects the autothrottles?

A

A reverse thrust lever is raised to the reverse idle detent

169
Q

When does the ROLLOUT mode activate?

A

Below 5’

170
Q

How are the autothrottles, roll, or pitch mode changes emphasized on the FMAs?

A

Green box around the mode for 10 seconds

171
Q

On the 747-8, how would you deactivate LOC or FAC mode once they have captured?

A

Selecting a roll mode other than LNAV
Pushing TO/GA
Disengaging the autopilot and positioning both F/D switches to OFF

172
Q

NO AUTOLAND displays on the PFD when a multichannel approach (MCA) is selected but MCA engage status (LAND 2/3) has not been annunciated by what altitude?

A

600’ AGL

173
Q

On the 747-8, what does the FAC (armed) as a roll mode FMA indicate?

A

APP switch selected and AFDS is set for conduct of integrated approach navigation (IAN) procedure

174
Q

What minimum maneuver capability is provided at the top of the amber bar on the PFD airspeed display?

A

1.3g

175
Q

If the display selector panel fails, how can you select the synoptic displays for the lower EICAS?

A

Through the respective CDU
Menu -> EICAS CP (R2) -> MODES/SYNOPTICS

176
Q

What indicates you are 1/3 of a dot of deviation from the localizer?

A

The localizer pointer is just touching the rectangle in the expanded localizer deviation scale.
At low radio altitudes, with autopilot or F/D engaged, the scale turns amber and flashes to indicate excessive LOC deviation

177
Q

How can you control your displays if the EFIS control panel fails?

A

Through the related CDU
MENU -> EFIS CP (R1)

178
Q

What source selector switch would you likely move in the event of an ALT or SPD flag in view on the PFD?

A

Air Data Source Selector

179
Q

When is the pitch limit indication (PLI) displayed?

A

Flaps are not up

180
Q

On the 747-8, how is the airspeed range for acceptable VNAV path indicated on the PFD airspeed display (flaps up or down)?

A

VNAV speed band (magenta line)

181
Q

On the 747-8, actual navigation performance (ANP) bars change colors to _____ if the navigation path pointer moves into the bar area for ____ seconds

A

Amber
5

182
Q

On the 747-8, when do the vertical anticipation cues display?

A

Within 25 NM of the missed approach point
Within 60 degrees of final approach course
Track within 90 degrees of FAC
Less than 6000’ above field elevation

183
Q

On the 747-8, when do the IAN scales display?

A

LNAV/VNAV are not active modes
Approach is in the active flight plan
<150 NM from destination
<50 NM from T/D
FMC is in the descent mode

184
Q

On the 747-8, what will display if the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) initialization is not complete within six minutes?

A

ATT:RST initialization message

185
Q

On the 747-8, what does the vertical situation display (VSD) represent?

A

A profile view of the airplane and its environment along the current track

186
Q

On the 747-8, VSD en route swath is inhibited on takeoff and approach when the airplane is within ___ NM of the runway and less than ____ above field elevation.

A

6 NM
3,000’

187
Q

On the 747-8, what do electronic checklist open loop action items require?

A

Flight crew to manually confirm completion with the cursor control

188
Q

What does the IRS ON BAT light indicate on the overhead maintenance panel?

A

IRS operating on backup electrical power (APU hot battery bus)

189
Q

When is full alignment of the IRS required?

A

When the time from the last full alignment to the next expected arrival time exceeds 18 hours

190
Q

Which CDU pages are available during alternate navigation?

A

LEGS
PROGRESS
RADIO

191
Q

Can clear air turbulence be sensed by weather radar?

A

No, turbulence can only be sensed when there is sufficient precipitation

192
Q

How many FMCs are provided?

A

Two, L and R

193
Q

What factor determines ECON speed?

A

Cost index

194
Q

What VNAV pitch mode would you expect on a SID on a climbing leg? On an altitude restricted leg?

A

VNAV SPD
VNAV PTH

195
Q

If you are flying an approach with the FMC in “on approach” logic, and the airplane rises more than 150’ about the path, the FMA pitch mode will change from VNAV PTH to which pitch mode?

A

VNAV SPD

196
Q

On the -400 legacy FMC, when does the approach phase of the FMS start, also known as “on approach logic”

A

When the initial fix of an approach sequences
When the runway is the active waypoint and within 25NM

197
Q

On the NG FMC, “on approach logic” occurs under any of the following conditions:

A

Descent phase, flaps out of up
First waypoint sequenced of active nav database
Aircraft less than 12NM from destination airport, direct to or on an intercept course to the active waypoint, and a manually entered end of descent altitude constraint is lower the destination airport elevation plus 500’
The runway or missed approach point is the active waypoint and the airplane is within 25NM of the runway

198
Q

Are there VMCG issues when applying additional thrust manually during an assumed temperature thrust takeoff?

A

No. The assumed temperature thrust setting is not considered a limitation and VMCG is calculated from the full engine rated thrust.

199
Q

What could happen if you advance the thrust levers further than TO 1 or TO 2 fixed derate following an engine failure?

A

Loss of directional control

200
Q

When does the CDU message INSUFFICIENT FUEL display?

A

Estimated fuel at destination is less than the fuel reserve (FMC RSV) entered on the PERF INIT page

201
Q

Can ATC monitor airplane position on the ground when the transponder is in STBY?

A

Not via the airplane’s systems, no.

202
Q

Are LNAV and VNAV available in alternate navigation?

A

No

203
Q

What happens when an active database expires in flight?

A

The expired database is used until the active date is changed after landing

204
Q

How is the reference thrust changed from TO (D-TO, TO 1, or TO 2) on upper EICAS following an engine failure in flight?

A

Automatically when airspeed exceeds VREF+98 and the flaps are up
Pushing the THR switch on the MCP changes the thrust limit to CON
Accessing THRUST LIM page in the CDU and manually selecting CON

205
Q

What databases are contained in the FMC?

A

Aero Engine (AEDB-performance)
Navigation
Operational program configuration (OPC)
MAGVAR tables

206
Q

When will the FMC fail to sequence the active waypoint?

A

When more than 21 NM from the active route and not on an offset route

207
Q

On the 747-8, which modes of operation are available for the MultiScan weather radar?

A

Manual mode - operates like traditional radar with full control over tilt and gain settings

Automatic mode - collects data from multiple scans and merges information into a total weather picture

208
Q

On the 747-8, does the MultiScan weather radar provide turbulence detection capability?

A

Yes. Displayes magenta for moderate to severe turbulence when there is sufficient precipitation (clear air turbulence cannot be sensed by the radar)

209
Q

When armed for takeoff, when does VNAV activate?

A

400’

210
Q

If the FMC cruise altitude is FL 250 and the clearance altitude of FL190 is set in the MCP, which pitch mode FMA will display when FL190 is captured?

A

VNAV ALT

211
Q

Which VNAV FMA would display on the PFD during departure waypoint altitude constraints?

A

VNAV PTH

212
Q

What is the difference between RNP and “ACTUAL” and where is it displayed?

A

RNP is required for navigation perfomance
ACTUAL is the actual aircraft navigation performance
Displayed on the FMC POS REF page

213
Q

What is a conditional waypoint ?

A

A conditional waypoint is based on a time or altitude requirement and not based on a land reference. Indicated when an event occurs and not a geographically fixed position. I.e. “when reaching 500’”

214
Q

How many groups of leading edge flaps are provided and how are they normally powered?

A

Three groups on each wing: outboard, midspan, and inboard
Normally pneumatically powered from the bleed air duct.

215
Q

What are the two groups of trailing edge flaps and how are they powered?

A

Inboard and outboard
Inboard powered by hyd 1
Outboard powered by hyd 4

216
Q

Is there any asymmetry protection in alternate flap mode?

A

No
The FCUs are locked out in alternate mode, hence no protections

217
Q

How are the trailing edge flaps driven in primary mode?

A

Hydraulically

218
Q

How long does the flap indication on the primary EICAS remain displayed after all flaps are up?

A

10 seconds

219
Q

What protection features do FCUs provide for trailing edge flaps in primary mode?

A

Asymmetry protection
Flap load relief
Flap position information to EICAS and other systems

220
Q

How many flap control units (FCUs) are provided?

A

Three

221
Q

What is the maximum extension of the trailing edge flaps in alternate mode?

A

Flaps 25

222
Q

What EICAS advisory message displays if all three FCUs fail in their control function?

A

FLAPS CONTROL

223
Q

How does the flap alternate control mode work?

A

Bypasses the FCUs
Manually selected
All flaps extend or retract by electric motors

224
Q

Is there any asymmetry protection in the alternate flap mode?

A

No
The FCUs provide asymmetry protection in the normal mode

225
Q

What happens if a primary control failure occurs in either the inboard or midspan leading edge flap group?

A

Both groups switch to secondary mode

226
Q

When do the spoiler panels extend to the up position during landing if the speedbrake lever is NOT armed?

A

Thrust levers 1 AND 3 near the idle position
Main landing gear on the ground
Reverse thrust levers 2 OR 4 pulled up to the idle detent

227
Q

On the 747-8, to improve takeoff performance and reduce noise, outboard ailerons deflect down at which flap settings?
Outboard ailerons return to the neutral position at which flap settings?
Inboard flaps droop at which flap settings?

A

10 or 20 - The downward deflection is removed if the angle of attack is above the stick shaker limit
25 or 30
10 or greater

228
Q

Describe the function of the stabilizer trim cutout switches AUTO position

A

Supplies hydraulic power for stabilizer trim
Shuts off related system hydraulic power if unscheduled trim is detected

229
Q

What is the effect on the flap system during engine reverse thrust operation?

A

Inboard and midspan leading edge flaps retract automatically

230
Q

What surface component is moved when stabilizer trim inputs are made?

A

The leading edge of the moveable horizontal stabilizer
Stabilizer trim varies the angle of incidence of the horizontal stabilizer

231
Q

What is the purpose of the yaw dampers?

A

To improve airplane lateral and directional stability and to provide turn coordination

232
Q

How does the aileron lockout system work and what is its purpose?

A

Locks outboard ailerons in the neutral position at high airspeeds
Permits full travel of the outboard ailerons at low airspeeds
Prevents over-controlling at high airspeeds

233
Q

What system assists the 747-8 in pitch stability and landing flare?

A

Pitch augmentation control system (PACS)
During the landing flare, this system provides a small amount of nose up elevator as the airplane approaches the runway.
Does not move the control column

234
Q

When does the 747-8 takeoff and landing tail strike protection activate?

A

PACS senses imminent tail strike and decreases elevator deflection
Activation of tail strike protection does not move the control column

235
Q

Takeoff trim setting is calculated based on what factors?

A

Gross weight
CG
Takeoff thrust derate selection
Takeoff flap selection (-8 only)

236
Q

Will manipulating the control wheel stabilizer trim switches with multiple autopilots engaged cause the autopilot to disconnect?

A

No
Stabilizer trim switches are inhibited with multiple autopilots engaged

237
Q

Describe the OFF position of the landing gear.

A

Landing gear hydraulic system is depressurized.

238
Q

How many degrees can the nose wheel steering system turn the nose gear with the tiller and how many degrees with the rudder pedals?

A

70 degrees in either direction with the tiller and 7 degrees with the rudder pedals

239
Q

What does the BRAKE SOURCE amber light indicate when illuminated?

A

Active brake hydraulic sources (hyd 4, 1, and 2) have low pressure

240
Q

How are the landing gear held in position after retraction?

A

Main gear are held in the up position by uplocks
The nose gear is mechanically locked in the up position

241
Q

When does RTO apply maximum braking?

A

Airplane on the ground
Wheel speed above 85 kts
Thrust levers closed

242
Q

What is the purpose of the brake accumulator?

A

Provides for parking brake application

243
Q

What does a white, crosshatched expanded gear position indication mean?

A

Related landing gear in transit

244
Q

What conditions must be satisfied in order for the landing gear lever lock to release?

A

Main gear are tilted
Body gear centered

245
Q

Which hydraulic system pressurizes the brake accumulator?

A

Hyd 4

246
Q

Which value on the brake temperature monitoring system causes the BRAKE TEMP advisory EICAS message to appear?

A

5

247
Q

How does the landing gear extend with the alternate gear extension system?

A

By pushing the alternate gear extend switches, the gear uplocks and door latches are electrically released and the gear free falls

Gravity and air loads extend the gear
Springs pull the downlocks into the locked position

248
Q

Why is it necessary to pressurize hyd 4 before pressuring the other systems?

A

Precludes hyd fluid migration from hyd 1 or 2 into hyd 4. When the parking brake is set and released, the hyd fluid is dumped into hyd 4

249
Q

What does an EICAS message LIMITER indicate?

A

Brake torque limiter failure on more than one wheel per truck
The parking brake lever is released and the parking brake valve is not fully open
Brake system control unit power loss occurs

250
Q

What is the highest priority alert message?

A

Warning messages (red)

251
Q

What are the four types of EICAS messages?

A

Warning messages
Caution messages
Advisory messages
Memo messages

252
Q

Which red alert displays are shown or displayed on the PFD?

A

Wind shear
Pull up

253
Q

Can warning messages be canceled by pushing the CANC switch?

A

No

254
Q

What does the STATUS cue mean?

A

A new status message exists on the secondary EICAS
Displayed in cyan below the message list

255
Q

Which type of EICAS messages are listed in the DDG and provide for dispatch capability?

A

EICAS status messages

256
Q

Can amber alert messages be canceled or recalled?

A

Yes, by pushing the CANC or RCL switch(es)

257
Q

When you receive a TCAS RA, where do you position the center of the airplane symbol on the PFD?

A

Outside the red outlined RA pitch regions

258
Q

List some of the configuration conditions that will cause the CONFIG message to display during takeoff.

A

Flaps not in a takeoff position
Body gear not centered
Parking brake set
Speedbrake lever not in DN detent
Stabilizer trim not in takeoff range

259
Q

On the 747-8, what PFD message would you receive during a rejected takeoff if the speedbrakes are not deployed?

A

Red PFD message: SPEEDBRAKE

260
Q

On the 747-8, during takeoff and landing a BANK ANGLE alert sounds for bank angles as small as ___

A

10 degrees

261
Q

What conditions will cause the CONFIG GEAR EICAS warning message in flight

A

Any landing gear not down and locked AND
- Any thrust lever closed and the RA is less than 800’
OR
-Flaps in a landing position (25 or 30)

262
Q

When are master caution lights and beeper inhibited during a takeoff?

A

80 kts

263
Q

New predictive wind shear warnings are inhibited at what airspeed during takeoff?

A

100 kts

264
Q

Safety is best defined as ______

A

Managed risk
This acknowledges that “zero risk” is an impossibility, but striving for it is not

265
Q

When faced with competing objectives, what must always remain the highest priority?

A

Safety

Atlas PC Question Bank (1 decks)

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