Review Flashcards

(121 cards)

1
Q

what date was OSHA established

A

April 28th 1971

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2
Q

what year was OSHACT enacted

A

1970

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3
Q

who is responsible for creating OSHA

A

Department of Labor

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4
Q

NIOSH stands for

A

National Institute of Occupational safety and Health

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5
Q

SECNAVINST 5100.10

A

Department of the Navy Policy for safety, Mishap Prevention, Occupational Health and FIRE PREVENTION

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6
Q

OPNAVINST 5100.23

A

Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program Manual

- covers 30 topics

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7
Q

OPNAVINST 5100.19

A

Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program Afloat

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8
Q

what instruction has 4 sections?

A

OPNAVINST 5100.19

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9
Q

what are the 4 sections in OPNAVNST 5100.19?

A

A. SOH Program Admin
B. Major Hazard Specific Chapters
C. Surface ship Safety Standards
D. Sub Safety Standards

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10
Q

NAVMED P-5010 Ch 3

A

Prevention of heat and cold stress

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11
Q

What is the Coast Guard Heat stress instruction?

A

COMDTINST M5100.47

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12
Q

who is responsible for Energy instillations and environmental?

A

Assistant Secretary of the Navy

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13
Q

who is the designated health and safety officer for the DON?

A

Assistant Secretary of the Navy

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14
Q

Who is responsible for planning, programming, staffing and budgeting for NAVOSH programs?

A

CNO

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15
Q

how often must TYCOM conduct oversight on subordinate commands?

A

Every 3 years

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16
Q

who ensures afloat commands complete required safety surveys and IH surveys?

A

ISICs

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17
Q

who conducts periodic NAVOSH inspections on subordinate commands?

A

ISICs

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18
Q

Who manages engineering controls of significant occupational health problems?

A

NAVSEASYSCOM

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19
Q

Who Provides support to the CNO/CMC in all aspects of Occ Health, IH, and environmental health?

A

BUMED

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20
Q

Who Conducts Afloat operational safety assessment (AOSA)

A

Commander Naval Safety Center

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21
Q

Whos Responsibility is it to designate the Command safety officer and ensure their training?

A

CO

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22
Q

Who Ensures that all workplace safety inspections are conducted annually and IH surveys occur at least during each operational cycle?

A

CO

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23
Q

What is required for a CPO to be a collateral duty safety office?

A

Waiver from TYCOM

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24
Q

who prepares and submits requests for outside OSH support?

A

Safety officer

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25
what 4 NAVOSH documents must be maintained and by who?
1. Inspections 2. Surveys 3. Injury reports 4. Mishap stats By the Safety Officer
26
who ensures all personnel are properly trained and have all PPE?
Dept Head / DivO / work center sup
27
Who can submit a safety hazard report?
Division Safety PO
28
who is on both the safety council and the enlisted safety committee?
Safety Officer
29
how often are workplace safety inspections required?
Annually
30
How long must the Safety O retain the workplace safety inspections?
2 years
31
who may conduct a walkthrough inspection?
- CO - XO - Dept Head - Div O - Work Center sup
32
what report stays at the ships level and does not require a follow up?
AOSA
33
How often must an AOSA be conducted?
Every 6 Years
34
Purpose of the medical surveillance program
To monitor the heath of individuals exposed to hazards in the fleet
35
Safety Hazard Report Form number
OPNAV 3120/5 | - submitted when supervisor fails to take action
36
Hazard Abatement Program Description
Process by which identified hazards that are not able to be immediately corrected are recorded and tracked until completion
37
Who assigns a RAC?
Safety Officer
38
Hazard Severity is measured by?
The worst reasonable expected consequence
39
Hazard severity categories are assigned with what symbol?
Roman numerals
40
Hazard severity Category I
Catastrophic - Hazard may cause death or loss of facility
41
Hazard severity Category II
Critical - May cause severe injury/illness
42
Hazard severity category III
Marginal - Hazard may cause minor injury/illness
43
Hazard severity Category IV
Negligible - Hazard presents minimal threat to personnel safety or health
44
Mishap probability
the Likelihood that a hazard will result in a mishap
45
Mishap probability code A
likely to occur immediately or very near future
46
Mishap Probability code B
Probably will occur in time
47
Mishap probability code C
May occur in time
48
Mishap Probability code D
Unlikely to occur
49
three methods of controlling hazards
- prevent the hazard at the design stage - eliminate the hazard - reduce the severity and likelihood of the hazard
50
what hazard control is achieved with design and advance planning?
Engineering control
51
4 types of hazard control
- substitution - engineering control - administrative - PPE
52
definition of ventilation
the control of potentially hazardous airborne particles through the movement of air
53
3 main characteristics of Asbestos
- Fireproof - Acid resistant - high tinsel strength
54
what does Friable mean?
able to be crushed, pulverized or reduced to powder with hand pressure
55
examples of friable asbestos
- pipe lagging - sheet gaskets - acoustic insulation
56
examples of non-friable asbestos
- floor tiles - brake and clutch linings - gaskets
57
what can cause non-friable materials to become hazardous?
- Punching - sanding - grinding - machining
58
what illnesses can be caused by asbestos?
- Cancer (mesothelioma) | - Asbestosis
59
what illness is a tumor that lines the inside of the chest and abdominal cavity?
Malignant Mesothelioma
60
how long can mesothelioma take to develop?
10 - 45 years
61
what condition is a progressively worsening disease of the lung?
Asbestosis
62
when does a ship require an EART?
when the keel was laid prior to 1980
63
Ships force protocol responsibilities of the Safety O:
- ensure ship personnel are trained to perform the job | - no asbestos containing material enters the ship
64
Ships force protocol responsibilities of the Eng O
properly collect and store materials awaiting disposal
65
Ships force protocol responsibilities of the Div O
Ensure all training is conducted
66
Eng O responsibility for EART protocol
Provide a list of all personnel involved to medical
67
two types of engineering controls:
- isolation | - ventilation
68
when to put a member on AMSP
- past history - current exposure - potential exposure
69
Training required for everyone on the EART
- 2 day formal course (A-760-2166) | - Respirator fit testing and maintenance
70
Permissible exposure limit (PEL)
.1 fiber per cubic CM | - calculated over 8 hour time weighted average
71
Excursion limit (EL)
1.0 f/cc averaged over 30 minute sampling period
72
what is required for a notification of exposure?
Physician written opinion
73
where are member asbestos records kept?
as a shore facility near the ship that they where exposed on | - BUMED when ship is DECOMed
74
Documents the put in the AMSP
- SF 600 - NAVMED 6260/5 (Periodic health evaluation, history and physical exam) - Physician written opinion
75
who is responsible for establishing an effective hearing conservation program within the command?
CO
76
who acts as a liaison to IH and occupational audiologist?
Safety Officer
77
Safety O must maintain what audio records?
- noise hazardous areas - noise hazardous equipment - baseline and subsequent
78
who conducts all training for the crew and when is it done for hearing conservation?
MDR | - at indoc and annually
79
what must the MDR include on their training for hearing conservation?
- Effects of hazardous noise - designated noise hazardous areas and equipment - proper use and maintenance of HPDs - the necessity for hearing tests - mandatory requirement to wear assigned hearing protection - off duty hearing health hazards - effects of hearing loss on your career - communication in high noise environments
80
who consults the command IH survey to determine the type of hearing protective equipment device to be used
MDR
81
how do you label spaces that require hearing protection?
NAVMED 6260/2 | - Hazardous noise warning Decal 8"x10"
82
how do you mark a space that requires hearing protection from the weather deck
place the NAVMED 6260/2 inside the door
83
how do you mark noise hazardous equipment?
NAVMED 6260/2A | - Hazardous noise label 2"x2"
84
what is noise abatement?
Reduction of noise at the source
85
you need single hearing protection when?
- 85-95db | - 140db peak
86
when do you need double hearing protection?
- 96 + db | - 165db peak
87
Types hearing testing
- Reference - Monitoring - Termination
88
Reference audiogram form
DD 2215
89
Monitoring audiogram form
DD 2216
90
Record of noise measurements shall be kept for how long?
50 years
91
what is considered a significant threshold shift? (STS)
10 db shift in either direction at 2000, 3000, 4000hz in either ear
92
If someone has an STS how long do you send them to a quiet place for?
14 hours of Auditory rest
93
if an annual test shows NO STS then what do you do?
Return to annual monitoring
94
what is an example of engineering control for hearing conservation?
Noise barriers or acoustic enclosures
95
types of hearing protection devices
- ear plugs - disposable - single flange - double flange - triple flange - straightaway muff - circumaural muff
96
How often must training be required?
Annually
97
what must be done at the beginning of a hearing device fitting?
well-lit visual inspection of the ear canal
97
what must be done at the beginning of a hearing device fitting?
Well-lit visual inspection of ear canal | - size each ear separate
98
Who appoints the RPPM
CO (in writing)
99
how soon does the RPPM need to complete the training?
3 months from being appointed
100
how often must the RPPM evaluate the program?
annually
101
who assists the RPPM with identifying, evaluating hazards and selecting the appropriate respirator.
MDR
102
what are two requirements for a SM to be qualified for a respirator?
- must not have any deployment limiting conditions | - have a current PHA
103
what is filled out if there is no current IMR for respiratory fit testing?
Respirator User Certification Exam 716
104
Aerosol
any material dispensed from a pressurized container using a gas propellant
105
Dust
small solid particles created by breaking up a larger particle by crushing grinding or expulsion
106
Gas
A material that under normal conditions of temperatures and pressure tends to occupy the entire space uniformly
107
Mist
Finely divided liquid droplets suspended in air and generated by condensation or atomization
108
how much oxygen must be in a space to use an air-purifying respirator?
19.5%
109
Atmosphere Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH)
the concentration of a contaminant which can produce an immediate irreversible debilitating effect on health, or which can cause death
110
two types of engineering controls in respiratory protection
- ventilation | - exhaust
111
examples of exhaust in respiration protection
- Damage Control Gear (Red Devil) | - forced air systems (medical exhaust hoods)
112
who ensures that the gas free engineering program is evaluated annually?
Safety Officer
113
How do air-purifying respirators function?
Removing air contaminates by filtering, or absorbing them as the air passes through the cartage.
114
what type of respirator provides a higher degree of protection?
Full face
115
Can military gas masks be used for air purifying?
No
116
what is an EEBD
Emergency Escape Breathing Device
117
how hot should water be for cleaning AND sanitizing yr respirator?
no hotter than 43 degrees C (110F)
118
how do you sanitize a respirator?
Submerge for 2 minutes in 50ppm iodine solution (15Ml of iodine in 1.5L of water)
119
Qualitative fit testing
fit testing performed with irritant smoke
120
Quantitative fit testing
This type can only be done at shore commands