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NAVOSH > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

what date was OSHA established

A

April 28th 1971

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2
Q

what year was OSHACT enacted

A

1970

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3
Q

who is responsible for creating OSHA

A

Department of Labor

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4
Q

NIOSH stands for

A

National Institute of Occupational safety and Health

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5
Q

SECNAVINST 5100.10

A

Department of the Navy Policy for safety, Mishap Prevention, Occupational Health and FIRE PREVENTION

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6
Q

OPNAVINST 5100.23

A

Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program Manual

- covers 30 topics

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7
Q

OPNAVINST 5100.19

A

Navy Occupational Safety and Health Program Afloat

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8
Q

what instruction has 4 sections?

A

OPNAVINST 5100.19

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9
Q

what are the 4 sections in OPNAVNST 5100.19?

A

A. SOH Program Admin
B. Major Hazard Specific Chapters
C. Surface ship Safety Standards
D. Sub Safety Standards

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10
Q

NAVMED P-5010 Ch 3

A

Prevention of heat and cold stress

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11
Q

What is the Coast Guard Heat stress instruction?

A

COMDTINST M5100.47

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12
Q

who is responsible for Energy instillations and environmental?

A

Assistant Secretary of the Navy

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13
Q

who is the designated health and safety officer for the DON?

A

Assistant Secretary of the Navy

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14
Q

Who is responsible for planning, programming, staffing and budgeting for NAVOSH programs?

A

CNO

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15
Q

how often must TYCOM conduct oversight on subordinate commands?

A

Every 3 years

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16
Q

who ensures afloat commands complete required safety surveys and IH surveys?

A

ISICs

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17
Q

who conducts periodic NAVOSH inspections on subordinate commands?

A

ISICs

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18
Q

Who manages engineering controls of significant occupational health problems?

A

NAVSEASYSCOM

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19
Q

Who Provides support to the CNO/CMC in all aspects of Occ Health, IH, and environmental health?

A

BUMED

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20
Q

Who Conducts Afloat operational safety assessment (AOSA)

A

Commander Naval Safety Center

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21
Q

Whos Responsibility is it to designate the Command safety officer and ensure their training?

A

CO

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22
Q

Who Ensures that all workplace safety inspections are conducted annually and IH surveys occur at least during each operational cycle?

A

CO

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23
Q

What is required for a CPO to be a collateral duty safety office?

A

Waiver from TYCOM

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24
Q

who prepares and submits requests for outside OSH support?

A

Safety officer

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25
Q

what 4 NAVOSH documents must be maintained and by who?

A
  1. Inspections
  2. Surveys
  3. Injury reports
  4. Mishap stats
    By the Safety Officer
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26
Q

who ensures all personnel are properly trained and have all PPE?

A

Dept Head / DivO / work center sup

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27
Q

Who can submit a safety hazard report?

A

Division Safety PO

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28
Q

who is on both the safety council and the enlisted safety committee?

A

Safety Officer

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29
Q

how often are workplace safety inspections required?

A

Annually

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30
Q

How long must the Safety O retain the workplace safety inspections?

A

2 years

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31
Q

who may conduct a walkthrough inspection?

A
  • CO
  • XO
  • Dept Head
  • Div O
  • Work Center sup
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32
Q

what report stays at the ships level and does not require a follow up?

A

AOSA

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33
Q

How often must an AOSA be conducted?

A

Every 6 Years

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34
Q

Purpose of the medical surveillance program

A

To monitor the heath of individuals exposed to hazards in the fleet

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35
Q

Safety Hazard Report Form number

A

OPNAV 3120/5

- submitted when supervisor fails to take action

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36
Q

Hazard Abatement Program Description

A

Process by which identified hazards that are not able to be immediately corrected are recorded and tracked until completion

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37
Q

Who assigns a RAC?

A

Safety Officer

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38
Q

Hazard Severity is measured by?

A

The worst reasonable expected consequence

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39
Q

Hazard severity categories are assigned with what symbol?

A

Roman numerals

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40
Q

Hazard severity Category I

A

Catastrophic - Hazard may cause death or loss of facility

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41
Q

Hazard severity Category II

A

Critical - May cause severe injury/illness

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42
Q

Hazard severity category III

A

Marginal - Hazard may cause minor injury/illness

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43
Q

Hazard severity Category IV

A

Negligible - Hazard presents minimal threat to personnel safety or health

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44
Q

Mishap probability

A

the Likelihood that a hazard will result in a mishap

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45
Q

Mishap probability code A

A

likely to occur immediately or very near future

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46
Q

Mishap Probability code B

A

Probably will occur in time

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47
Q

Mishap probability code C

A

May occur in time

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48
Q

Mishap Probability code D

A

Unlikely to occur

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49
Q

three methods of controlling hazards

A
  • prevent the hazard at the design stage
  • eliminate the hazard
  • reduce the severity and likelihood of the hazard
50
Q

what hazard control is achieved with design and advance planning?

A

Engineering control

51
Q

4 types of hazard control

A
  • substitution
  • engineering control
  • administrative
  • PPE
52
Q

definition of ventilation

A

the control of potentially hazardous airborne particles through the movement of air

53
Q

3 main characteristics of Asbestos

A
  • Fireproof
  • Acid resistant
  • high tinsel strength
54
Q

what does Friable mean?

A

able to be crushed, pulverized or reduced to powder with hand pressure

55
Q

examples of friable asbestos

A
  • pipe lagging
  • sheet gaskets
  • acoustic insulation
56
Q

examples of non-friable asbestos

A
  • floor tiles
  • brake and clutch linings
  • gaskets
57
Q

what can cause non-friable materials to become hazardous?

A
  • Punching
  • sanding
  • grinding
  • machining
58
Q

what illnesses can be caused by asbestos?

A
  • Cancer (mesothelioma)

- Asbestosis

59
Q

what illness is a tumor that lines the inside of the chest and abdominal cavity?

A

Malignant Mesothelioma

60
Q

how long can mesothelioma take to develop?

A

10 - 45 years

61
Q

what condition is a progressively worsening disease of the lung?

A

Asbestosis

62
Q

when does a ship require an EART?

A

when the keel was laid prior to 1980

63
Q

Ships force protocol responsibilities of the Safety O:

A
  • ensure ship personnel are trained to perform the job

- no asbestos containing material enters the ship

64
Q

Ships force protocol responsibilities of the Eng O

A

properly collect and store materials awaiting disposal

65
Q

Ships force protocol responsibilities of the Div O

A

Ensure all training is conducted

66
Q

Eng O responsibility for EART protocol

A

Provide a list of all personnel involved to medical

67
Q

two types of engineering controls:

A
  • isolation

- ventilation

68
Q

when to put a member on AMSP

A
  • past history
  • current exposure
  • potential exposure
69
Q

Training required for everyone on the EART

A
  • 2 day formal course (A-760-2166)

- Respirator fit testing and maintenance

70
Q

Permissible exposure limit (PEL)

A

.1 fiber per cubic CM

- calculated over 8 hour time weighted average

71
Q

Excursion limit (EL)

A

1.0 f/cc averaged over 30 minute sampling period

72
Q

what is required for a notification of exposure?

A

Physician written opinion

73
Q

where are member asbestos records kept?

A

as a shore facility near the ship that they where exposed on

- BUMED when ship is DECOMed

74
Q

Documents the put in the AMSP

A
  • SF 600
  • NAVMED 6260/5 (Periodic health evaluation, history and physical exam)
  • Physician written opinion
75
Q

who is responsible for establishing an effective hearing conservation program within the command?

A

CO

76
Q

who acts as a liaison to IH and occupational audiologist?

A

Safety Officer

77
Q

Safety O must maintain what audio records?

A
  • noise hazardous areas
  • noise hazardous equipment
  • baseline and subsequent
78
Q

who conducts all training for the crew and when is it done for hearing conservation?

A

MDR

- at indoc and annually

79
Q

what must the MDR include on their training for hearing conservation?

A
  • Effects of hazardous noise
  • designated noise hazardous areas and equipment
  • proper use and maintenance of HPDs
  • the necessity for hearing tests
  • mandatory requirement to wear assigned hearing protection
  • off duty hearing health hazards
  • effects of hearing loss on your career
  • communication in high noise environments
80
Q

who consults the command IH survey to determine the type of hearing protective equipment device to be used

A

MDR

81
Q

how do you label spaces that require hearing protection?

A

NAVMED 6260/2

- Hazardous noise warning Decal 8”x10”

82
Q

how do you mark a space that requires hearing protection from the weather deck

A

place the NAVMED 6260/2 inside the door

83
Q

how do you mark noise hazardous equipment?

A

NAVMED 6260/2A

- Hazardous noise label 2”x2”

84
Q

what is noise abatement?

A

Reduction of noise at the source

85
Q

you need single hearing protection when?

A
  • 85-95db

- 140db peak

86
Q

when do you need double hearing protection?

A
  • 96 + db

- 165db peak

87
Q

Types hearing testing

A
  • Reference
  • Monitoring
  • Termination
88
Q

Reference audiogram form

A

DD 2215

89
Q

Monitoring audiogram form

A

DD 2216

90
Q

Record of noise measurements shall be kept for how long?

A

50 years

91
Q

what is considered a significant threshold shift? (STS)

A

10 db shift in either direction at 2000, 3000, 4000hz in either ear

92
Q

If someone has an STS how long do you send them to a quiet place for?

A

14 hours of Auditory rest

93
Q

if an annual test shows NO STS then what do you do?

A

Return to annual monitoring

94
Q

what is an example of engineering control for hearing conservation?

A

Noise barriers or acoustic enclosures

95
Q

types of hearing protection devices

A
  • ear plugs
  • disposable
  • single flange
  • double flange
  • triple flange
  • straightaway muff
  • circumaural muff
96
Q

How often must training be required?

A

Annually

97
Q

what must be done at the beginning of a hearing device fitting?

A

well-lit visual inspection of the ear canal

97
Q

what must be done at the beginning of a hearing device fitting?

A

Well-lit visual inspection of ear canal

- size each ear separate

98
Q

Who appoints the RPPM

A

CO (in writing)

99
Q

how soon does the RPPM need to complete the training?

A

3 months from being appointed

100
Q

how often must the RPPM evaluate the program?

A

annually

101
Q

who assists the RPPM with identifying, evaluating hazards and selecting the appropriate respirator.

A

MDR

102
Q

what are two requirements for a SM to be qualified for a respirator?

A
  • must not have any deployment limiting conditions

- have a current PHA

103
Q

what is filled out if there is no current IMR for respiratory fit testing?

A

Respirator User Certification Exam 716

104
Q

Aerosol

A

any material dispensed from a pressurized container using a gas propellant

105
Q

Dust

A

small solid particles created by breaking up a larger particle by crushing grinding or expulsion

106
Q

Gas

A

A material that under normal conditions of temperatures and pressure tends to occupy the entire space uniformly

107
Q

Mist

A

Finely divided liquid droplets suspended in air and generated by condensation or atomization

108
Q

how much oxygen must be in a space to use an air-purifying respirator?

A

19.5%

109
Q

Atmosphere Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH)

A

the concentration of a contaminant which can produce an immediate irreversible debilitating effect on health, or which can cause death

110
Q

two types of engineering controls in respiratory protection

A
  • ventilation

- exhaust

111
Q

examples of exhaust in respiration protection

A
  • Damage Control Gear (Red Devil)

- forced air systems (medical exhaust hoods)

112
Q

who ensures that the gas free engineering program is evaluated annually?

A

Safety Officer

113
Q

How do air-purifying respirators function?

A

Removing air contaminates by filtering, or absorbing them as the air passes through the cartage.

114
Q

what type of respirator provides a higher degree of protection?

A

Full face

115
Q

Can military gas masks be used for air purifying?

A

No

116
Q

what is an EEBD

A

Emergency Escape Breathing Device

117
Q

how hot should water be for cleaning AND sanitizing yr respirator?

A

no hotter than 43 degrees C (110F)

118
Q

how do you sanitize a respirator?

A

Submerge for 2 minutes in 50ppm iodine solution (15Ml of iodine in 1.5L of water)

119
Q

Qualitative fit testing

A

fit testing performed with irritant smoke

120
Q

Quantitative fit testing

A

This type can only be done at shore commands

NAVOSH (3 decks)

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