Review

Question 1

WHEN IS AN INSTRUMENT RATING
REQUIRED?

Answer 1

■ When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather
conditions less than prescribed for VFR.
(§61.3)

■ When carrying passengers for compensation or hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM or at night. (§61.133)

■ For flight in Class A airspace (§91.135)

■ For Special VFR between sunset and sunrise

Question 2

AIRPLANE-INSTRUMENT RATING MINIMUM
AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE

Answer 2

■ 50 hours X-Country PIC time
▷ Of which ,10 hours in airplanes.

■ 40 hours actual or simulated instrument time
▷ Of which, 15 hours with CFII.
□ Including one X-Country flight of:
□ 250 NM along airways or by directed ATC
routing.
□ An instrument approach at each airport.
□ 3 different kinds of approaches using
navigation systems.
□ With a filed IFR flight plan.
□ 3 Hours instrument flight training in last 2
Calendar months prior to practical test

■ Use of approved full flight simulator or FTD, if trained by authorized instructor:
▷ Max. 30 hours if instrument time
completed under part 142
▷ Max 20 hours if not completed under 142

■ Use of FAA approved Aviation Training Device, if trained by an authorized instructor:
▷ Max.10 hours of instrument time if Basic
ATD
▷ Max. 20 hours of instrument time if
Advanced ATD

■ No more than 20 hours of total instrument time can be credited in a full flight simulator, FTD or ATD, except the 30 hours exception under part 142 mentioned above.
(§61.65)

Question 3

RECENCY OF EXPERIENCE

Answer 3

To act as PIC (§61.56)
A Flight review is required since the beginning of the 24 calendar months before the month of the flight in an aircraft for which the pilot is rated. Consists of minimum 1 hour of flight training and 1 hour ground training.
Conducted by an authorized instructor.
The flight review can be substituted by:

■ A proficiency check or practical pilot test for a pilot certificate, rating or operating privilege. (conducted by an approved examiner, pilot check airman, or US Armed
Force).

■ A practical test, conducted by an examiner, for flight instructor certificate, additional rating, renewal or reinstatement.

■ Completion of one or more phases of the FAA sponsored pilot proficiency award program (WINGS).

■ Flight instructor renewal under part 61.197 exempts the pilot from the ground portion of the flight review.

Question 4

LOGGING INSTRUMENT TIME (§61.51)

Answer 4

A person may log instrument time
only for that flight time when the
person operates the aircraft solely
by reference to instruments under
actual or simulated instrument
flight conditions.

An authorized instructor
may log instrument time
when conducting
instrument flight instruction
in actual instrument flight
conditions.

Question 5

To carry passengers as PIC (§61.57)

Answer 5

■ 3 takeoffs & landings in category, class and type (if type rating req.) In the last 90 days.

■ At periods between 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise: 3 takeoffs & landings to full stop within 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

■ The takeoffs and landings may be accomplished in a FFS or FTD if it is approved for landings and used in a part 142 training center.

Question 6

To act as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than VFR minimums- “6 HITS” – (§61.57(c))

Answer 6

Within 6 calendar months preceding the month of flight:
■ 6 instrument approaches.

■ Holding procedures & tasks.

■ Intercepting & Tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems.

■ The above can be completed in a FFS, ATD, or FTD provided the device represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to be maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and iterations in simulated instrument conditions. A
flight instructor is not needed.

No “6 HITS” logged looking back six months?
You have an additional 6 months to regain currency by performing the “6 HITS” with a safety pilot.
■ Safety pilot requirements
▷ Holds at least a private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class.
▷ Have adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft.
▷ Aircraft must have a dual control system.

More than 6 months since IFR current?
■ An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required. Administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved person. Guidelines are in the ACS.

■ Some IPC tasks, but not all, can be conducted in a FTD or ATD. (See ACS)

Question 7

To meet recent instrument experience requirements, the following information must be recorded in the person’s logbook:

Answer 7

■ Location & type of each instrument approach accomplished, and

■ The name of the safety pilot, if required.

Question 8

The IPC must cover these areas of operation:

Answer 8

■ Air traffic control clearances and procedures.

■ Flight by reference to instruments.

■ Instrument approach procedures.

■ Navigation systems.

■ Emergency operations, and

■ Post-flight procedures.

Question 9

IFR recency of experience exemptions

Answer 9

A PIC who is actively employed by a part 121 or 135 operator is exempt from the IFR recency of experience requirements of part 61.57 when operating under part 91, 121 or 135 (as applicable) for that operator as long as he complies with recency of experience requirements applicable for that operation.

For example, a part 121 airline pilot does not need to log “6 HITS” to operate under part 91 or 121 for that airline as long as he is an active pilot with the company and current with that airline’s FAA approved training schedule.

However, he is not IFR current for flying outside the airline unless he also complies with the 6 HITS within
6 months rule.

Question 10

USE OF FULL FLIGHT SIM, FTD, OR ATD FOR ACQUIRING INSTRUMENT AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE (§61.51)

Answer 10

■ For training towards a certificate or rating, an authorized instructor is present to observe and signs the person’s logbook to verify the time and content of the session.

■ For IFR recency requirements, log:
▷ Training device, time and content.

Question 11

PREFLIGHT SELF-ASSESSMENT – “IM SAFE”

Answer 11

■ I - Illness - Do I have any symptoms?

■ M - Medication - Have I taken prescription or over-the-counter drugs?

■ S - Stress - Am I under psychological pressure, worried about finances, health or family discord?

■ A - Alcohol - No drinking within 8 hours. (“8 hours bottle to throttle”). No more than .04% of alcohol in blood.

■ F - Fatigue - Am I tired / adequately rested?

■ E - Emotion - Am I emotionally upset?

Question 12

RISK MANAGEMENT & PERSONAL MINIMUMS – “PAVE”

Answer 12

■ P - Pilot (general health, physical / mental / emotional state, proficiency, currency)

■ A - Aircraft (airworthiness, equipment, performance)

■ V - EnVironment (weather hazards, terrain, airports / runways to be used & other conditions)

■ E - External pressure (meetings, people waiting at destination, etc.)

Question 13

DECISION MAKING – “DECIDE”

Answer 13

■ D - Detect that a change has occurred.

■ E - Estimate the need to counter the change.

■ C - Choose a desirable outcome.

■ I - Identify solutions.

■ D - Do the necessary actions.

■ E - Evaluate the effects of the actions

Question 14

PERSONAL DOCUMENTS REQUIRED FOR FLIGHT

Answer 14

■ Pilot Certificate

■ Medical certificate (or US Driver’s license as permitted by §61.113 & §61.23)

■ Authorized photo ID (passport, driver’s license, etc)

■ Restricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit (For flights outside the US)

Question 15

AIRCRAFT DOCUMENTS REQUIRED FOR FLIGHT – “ARROW PEC”

Answer 15

A - Airworthiness certificate

R - Registration certificate

R - Radio station license (for flights outside the US)

O - Operating limitations & information (in AFM)

W - Weight & Balance data (aircraft specific)

P - Placards

E - External Data Plate

C - Compass Deviation Card

S - Supplements

Question 16

AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE INSPECTIONS REQUIRED FOR IFR – “AAV1ATE”

Answer 16

A - AD’s

A - Annual Check (12 Calender Months)

V - VORs (30 Calendar Days)

1 - 100 Hour Check (100 Hours)

A - Altimeter / Pitot Static (24 Calender Months)

T - Transponder (24 Calender Months)

E - Emergency Location Transmitter (12 Calendar Months or 1/2 Battery or 1 Hour of Cumulative Use)

S - STC/337s

Question 17

PASSENGER BRIEFING – “SAFETY”

Answer 17

S - Seat Belts

A - Air Ventilation

F - Fire Extinguisher

E - Emergency Procedure

T - Traffic

Y - “Your Questions”

Question 18

PREFLIGHT INFO REQUIRED – FOR IFR: “NW KRAFT” (§91.103)

Answer 18

N - NOTAMSs

W - Weather

K - Known ATC Delays

R - Runway Lengths

A - Alternate

F - Fuel

T - Takeoff and Landing Distances

Question 19

IFR FLIGHT PLAN §91.173

Answer 19

■ Requirement: no person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has:
‘
▷ Filed an IFR flight plan; and
▷ Received an appropriate ATC clearance.

Question 20

How to file an IFR flight plan?

Answer 20

▷ FSS
□ by phone (1-800-WX-BRIEF)
□ over the radio (GCO/RCO)
□ In person.

▷ Online
□ www.1800wxbrief.com (Leidos)
□ www.fltplan.com (Garmin)
□ EFB (Foreflight)

▷ With ATC (over radio, or phone if no other means available)
□ Pop-up IFR clearances

Question 21

Filing Times

Answer 21

File at least 30 minutes prior to estimated departure.

Nonscheduled flights above FL230 should be filed at least 4 hours before est. departure time.

Question 22

Flight plan cancellation

Answer 22

▷ Towered airports - automatically canceled by ATC upon landing.

▷ Non-towered airports - Pilot must contact ATC / FSS to cancel (by radio or phone)

▷ Can cancel anytime in flight if out of IMC and out of class A airspace.

Question 23

IFR MINIMUM FUEL REQUIREMENTS §91.167

Answer 23

Fuel from departure to destination airport

+

Fuel from destination to most distant alternate (if alternate required)

+

45 Minutes calculated at normal cruise

Question 24

NEED A DESTINATION ALTERNATE?
“1-2-3” RULE - §91.169

Answer 24

A destination alternate is always required, unless:

■ An instrument approach is published and
available for the destination, AND,

■ For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA:
▷ Ceiling will be at least 2000’ above airport
elevation; and
▷ Visibility will be at least 3 SM.

Question 25

MIN WX CONDITIONS REQUIRED AT AN AIRPORT TO LIST IT AS AN ALTERNATE

Answer 25

Use the alternate airport minima published in the procedure charts, or, if none: ■ For a Precision approach: 600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility. ■ For a Non-precision approach: 800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility. ■ If no instrument approach available at the alternate: Ceiling & visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR.

Question 26

FILING AN ALTERNATE - GPS CONSIDERATIONS

Answer 26

■ Equipped with a non-WAAS GPS? Flight plan can be based on GPS approach availability at either the destination or the alternate, but not at both. ■ WAAS Without baro-VNAV? Flight plan may be filed based on LNAV or circling minimas at the alternate (regardless of the available approaches at the destination). ■ WAAS with baro-VNAV? LNAV/VNAV or RNP 0.3 are allowed as basis for the flight plan’s alternate (Requires Special Authorization & RNP availability).

Question 27

IFR CRUISING ALTITUDES §91.179

Answer 27

Controlled airspace ■ IFR Cruising altitudes are as assigned by ATC. Uncontrolled airspace Same as VFR but thousands instead of 500

Question 28

IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS (§91.175)

Answer 28

No T/O minimums mandated for part 91 operations. Part 121, 125, 129, 135: ■ Prescribed T/O minimums for the runway, or, if none: ■ 1-2 engines airplanes: 1 SM visibility ■ More than 2 engines: ½ SM visibility

Question 29

DEPARTURE PROCEDURES (DP)

Answer 29

■ Ensures obstacle clearance, provided: ▷ the airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35 ft AGL, ▷ reaches 400 ft AGL before turning, AND ▷ climbs at least 200 Feet per NM (FPNM), or as published otherwise on the chart. □ FPNM to Feet-Per-Minute conversion: FPM = FPNM X Groundspeed / 60 ■ Pilots are encouraged to file a DP at night, during marginal VMC or IMC.

Question 30

Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)

Answer 30

□ Provides only obstacle clearance. □ Printed either textually or graphically. □ Graphic ODPs are titled “(OBSTACLE).”

Question 31

Standard Instrument Departure (SID)

Answer 31

□ In addition to obstacle clearance it reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearances and minimizing radio communications. □ May depict special radio failure procedures. □ SIDs are always printed graphically.

Question 32

DP are also categorized by equipment required:

Answer 32

▷ Non-RNAV DP - for use by aircraft equipped with ground-based navigation (i.e., VOR, DME, NDB). ▷ RNAV DP - for aircraft equipped with RNAV equipment (e.g., GPS, VOR/DME, DME/DME). Require at least RNAV 1 performance. Identified with the word “RNAV” in the title. ▷ RADAR DP - ATC radar vectors to an ATS route, NAVAID, or fix are used after departure. RADAR DPs are annotated “RADAR REQUIRED.”

Question 33

Are you required to accept SIDs

Answer 33

You are not required to accept a DP. To avoid it, state “NO SIDs” in the flight plan’s remarks section.

Question 34

Transition routes

Answer 34

connect the end of the basic SID procedure to the enroute structure.

Question 35

DIVERSE DEPARTURE PROCEDURE

Answer 35

■ All US airports with a published IAP but with no published DP meet the Diverse Airport criteria ■ This criteria requires that an airport has been evaluated for no obstacles within 200 ft altitude/NM up to a minimum IFR altitude. ■ Diverse Airport Departures provide obstacle clearance when a DP is not published. ■ Turns are allowed only after reaching 400 ft AGL.

Question 36

A Diverse Vector Area (DVA)

Answer 36

allows ATC to provide radar vectors instead of an ODP, while meeting the diverse departure criteria. DVA information is found in the US terminal procedures publication. It includes a statement that initial headings are provided by ATC and any applicable climb gradients.

Question 37

VISUAL CLIMB OVER AIRPORT (VCOA)

Answer 37

■ A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC. ■ The pilot visually conducts climbing turns over the airport up to the published "climb to" altitude, from which he proceeds to the instrument portion of the departure. ■ Designed to avoid obstacles beyond 3 SM from the departure end of the runway (DER), as an alternative to complying with climb gradients greater than the standard 200 ft/NM. ■ Advise ATC as early as possible prior to departure of the intent to fly a VCOA. ■ Published in the “Take-Of Minimums and (Obstacle) Departure Procedures” section of the TP. ■ May appear as an option on graphic ODPs

Question 38

IFR DEPARTURE CLEARANCE –“CRAFT”

Answer 38

■ C - Clearance limit. ■ R - Route. ■ A - Altitude. ■ F - Frequency (for departure). ■ T - Transponder code.

Question 39

Clearance void time

Answer 39

The time at which your clearance is void and after which you may not takeoff. You must notify ATC within 30 min after the void time if you did not depart.

Question 40

“Hold for release”

Answer 40

You may not takeoff until being released for IFR departure.

Question 41

Release time

Answer 41

The earliest time the aircraft may depart under IFR.

Question 42

Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT)

Answer 42

A runway release time given under traffic management programs in busy airports. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier and no later than 5 minutes from the EDCT.

Question 43

STANDARD TERMINAL ARRIVAL (STAR)

Answer 43

■ Serves as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made. ■ Transition routes connect enroute fixes to the basic STAR procedure. ■ Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins. ■ As with a SID, you can state “NO STARs” in the remarks section of the flight plan, to avoid getting a clearance containing a STAR. ■ RNAV STARs require RNAV 1 performance.

Question 44

MIN IFR ALTITUDES (§91.177)

Answer 44

Except for takeoff or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below: ▷ Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment, or if none: ▷ Mountainous areas: 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course. ▷ Non-mountainous areas: 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM from the course.

Question 45

DA / H - Decision Altitude / Height:

Answer 45

the Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold), on a vertically guided instrument approach procedure (ILS, LNAV/VNAV, LPV, etc) at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or to go around.

Question 46

MAA

Answer 46

Maximum Authorized Altitude

Question 47

MCA

Answer 47

Minimum Crossing Altitude. The lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA.

Question 48

MDA / H

Answer 48

Minimum Descent Altitude / Height: The lowest Altitude (MSL) / Height (above runway threshold) to which descent is authorized on a non-precision approach until the pilot sees the visual references required for landing.

Question 49

MEA

Answer 49

Minimum Enroute Altitude: The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. An MEA gap establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated “MEA GAP” on IFR charts.

Question 50

MOCA

Answer 50

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage only up to 22 NM of the VOR

Question 51

MORA

Answer 51

Minimum Off Route Altitude ▷ Route MORA provides obstruction clearance within 10NM to either side of airway centerlines and within a 10NM radius at the ends of airways. ▷ Grid MORA provide obstruction clearance within a latitude / longitude grid block.

Question 52

MRA

Answer 52

Minimum Reception Altitude. The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection can be determined using radio navigational aids.

Question 53

MTA

Answer 53

Minimum Turning Altitude: Provides vertical and lateral obstacle clearance in turns over certain fixes. Annotated with the MCA X icon and a note describing the restriction.

Question 54

MVA

Answer 54

Minimum Vectoring Altitude: The lowest altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures, and missed approaches. MVAs may be lower than the minimum altitudes depicted on aeronautical charts, such as MEAs or MOCAs.

Question 55

OROCA

Answer 55

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude: Provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000 ft buffer in nonmountainous terrain areas and 2,000 ft in mountainous areas. OROCA may not provide navigation or communication signal coverage.

Question 56

CRUISE CLEARANCE

Answer 56

A “cruise clearance,” can be issued by ATC to allocates a block of airspace to the flight. This airspace begins at the minimum IFR altitude and extends to the altitude (including) specified in the clearance. Within this block, you are free to climb and descend. However, once you start descending and verbally report leaving an altitude, you may not return to it without additional ATC clearance.

Question 57

GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENTS

Answer 57

■ Two principles of a gyroscope: ▷ Rigidity in space, and ▷ precession.

Question 58

Attitude Indicator (AI)

Answer 58

Operates on the principle of rigidity in space. Shows bank and pitch information.

Question 59

Heading indicator (HI)

Answer 59

Operates on the principle of rigidity in space. It only reflects changes in heading, but cannot measure the heading directly. You have to calibrate it with a magnetic compass in order for it to indicate correctly.

Question 60

Turn Indicators

Answer 60

Operates on the principle of precession. ▷ Turn coordinators show rate-of-turn and rate of roll. ▷ Turn-and-slip indicators show rate-of-turn only.

Question 61

Types of altitude

Answer 61

■ Indicated altitude – Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting (QNH). ■ Pressure altitude – Altitude above the standard 29.92. Hg plane (QNE). Used when flying above the transition altitude (18,000’ in the US) ■ Density altitude – Pressure alt. corrected for nonstandard temperature. Used for performance calculations. ■ True altitude – Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL). ■ Absolute altitude – Height above airport elevation (QFE).

Question 62

Types of speed

Answer 62

■ Indicated airspeed (IAS) – indicated on the airspeed indicator ■ Calibrated airspeed (CAS) – IAS corrected for instrument & position errors. ■ Equivalent airspeed (EAS) – CAS corrected for compressibility error. ■ True airspeed (TAS) – Actual speed through the air. EAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure ■ Mach number – The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound. ■ Ground speed – Actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions.

Question 63

STATIC PORT BLOCKAGE

Answer 63

■ Airspeed indicator – Indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude. ▷ Higher altitudes → airspeed indicates lower than it should. ▷ Lower altitudes → Indicates higher than it should. ■ Altimeter – will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked. ■ VSI – freezes on zero. ▷ After verifying a blockage in the static port, you should use an alternate static source or break the VSI window (in which case, expect reverse VSI information).

Question 64

When using the alternate static source:

Answer 64

(a lower static pressure is measured) ▷ Airspeed indicator – indicate a faster speed than it should. ▷ Altimeter – indicate higher than it should. ▷ VSI – momentarily show a climb

Question 65

PITOT TUBE BLOCKAGE

Answer 65

The only instrument affected is the airspeed indicator. ■ Ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open? Airspeed drops to zero. ■ Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged? The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable. ■ When suspecting a pitot blockage, consider the use of pitot heat to melt ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube

Question 66

MAGNETIC COMPASS ERRORS & LIMITATIONS – “DV MONA”

Answer 66

■ D- Deviation ■ V- Variation ■ M- Magnetic dip ■ O- Oscillation ■ N- North/south turn errors - Northern hemisphere: UNOS Undershoot North/ Overshoot South ■ A- Acceleration errors - Northern hemisphere: ANDS Accelerate North/ Decelerate South

Question 67

ELECTRONIC FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS

Answer 67

■ Attitude Heading Reference Systems (AHRS) – Provides more accurate and reliable attitude and heading data than traditional separate gyro systems. The first AHRS units were very expensive and relied on laser gyros and flux valves. Today they are based on solid state technologies (no moving parts) and are cheaper, smaller and easier to maintain. ■ Air Data Computers (ADC) – replaces the mechanical pitot-static instruments. The ADC receives inputs from the pitot, static and outside temperature ports and computes airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed and altitude. ■ Flight director – computes and displays command bars over the attitude indicator to assist the pilot in flying selected heading, course or vertical speed. ■ Flight Management System (FMS) – Receives inputs from various sensors and provides guidance to the autopilot and flight director throughout the flight. The FMS also automatically monitors and selects the most appropriate navigation source for accurate positioning. (GPS, VOR/DME, INS etc.) ■ Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS) – AKA “Glass cockpit”. ■ Primary Flight Displays (PFD) – Displays flight data such as attitude, altitude, airspeed, VSI and heading as well as rate tapes. ■ Multi-Function Displays (MFD) – Displays a variety of information such as moving maps, aircraft system status, weather and traffic. It may also be used as a backup for other displays, such as the PFD or EICAS.

Question 68

MINIMUM EQUIPMENT REQUIRED FOR FLIGHT (§91.205)

Answer 68

For IFR day: all VFR day equipment + GRABCARD For IFR night: all VFR day + VFR night + GRABCARD “GRAB CARD” – G - Generator / alternator. R - Radios. Two-way radio communication & navigational equipment suitable for the route to be flown. A - Altimeter (sensitive, adjustable for barometric pressure) B - Ball (slip-skid indicator). C - Clock. Shows hours, minutes and seconds with sweep-second pointer or digital representation. Installed as part of aircraft equipment. A - Attitude indicator. R - Rate-of-turn indicator. D - Directional gyro (heading indicator).

Question 69

Full scale deflection with VOR:

Answer 69

10º

Question 70

What must you do when using a VOR, ILS, LOC, etc?

Answer 70

Tune and ID

Question 71

What is VOR MON?

Answer 71

VOR Minimum Operational Network Ensures that as old VORs are decommissioned, a MON airport (i.e., equipped with legacy ILS or VOR approach) is available within 100 NM regardless of aircraft position in the CONUS.

Question 72

VOR Receiver Checks (§91.171)

Answer 72

■ Perform every 30 calendar days ▷ VOT ±4º ▷ Repair Station ±4º ▷ VOR ground checkpoint ±4º ▷ VOR airborne checkpoint ±6º ▷ Dual VOR cross-check ±4º ▷ Above a prominent ground landmark on a selected radial at least 20 NM from a VOR, flying at a “reasonable low altitude” ±6º

Question 73

VOR check sign-off (§91.171) D.E.P.S –

Answer 73

D - Date E - Error (bearing error) P - Place S - Signature

Question 74

VOR limitations

Answer 74

■ Cone of confusion ■ Reverse sensing (if used incorrectly) ■ Requires line-of-sight between aircraft and station.

Question 75

COMPASS LOCATOR

Answer 75

A low-powered NDB (at least 25 Watts and 15NM range) installed at the OM or the MM on some ILS approaches.

Question 76

Localizer

Answer 76

Provides lateral course guidance

Question 77

Glide Slope

Answer 77

Provides vertical guidance Range: typically up to 10 NM Slope: Typically 3 degrees Errors: False glide slope above normal glide slope.

Question 78

Marker Beacons

Answer 78

Provide range information over specific points along the approach.

Question 79

Outer Marker

Answer 79

4 - 7 Miles out. Indicate position at which the aircraft should intercept the glide slope at the appropriate altitude. Blue "- . -"

Question 80

Middle Marker

Answer 80

~ 3500ft from the runway. Indicates the approximate point where the glide slope meets the Decision Height. Amber ". - . -"

Question 81

Inner Marker

Answer 81

between the MM and the runway threshold. Indicates the point where the glide slope meets the DH on the CAT II ILS approach. White ". . ."

Question 82

Back Course Marker

Answer 82

Indicates the FAF on the selected back course of approaches. Not part of the ILS approach. White ". . . ."

Question 83

Approach Lighting System

Answer 83

Provides basic visible means to transition between instrument guided flight into a visual approach.

Question 84

Approach Lighting System extends from the landing threshold into the approach area up to: (precision and non-precision)

Answer 84

2400 - 3000 feet for precision 1400 - 1500 feet for non-precision

Question 85

ILS CAT I (lowest visibility and lowest DH)

Answer 85

Lowest Vis: 2400 or 1800 ft Lowest DH: 100ft

Question 86

ILS CAT II (lowest visibility and lowest DH)

Answer 86

Lowest Vis: 1200ft Lowest DH: 100ft

Question 87

ILS CAT IIIa (lowest visibility and lowest DH)

Answer 87

Lowest Vis: less than 700ft Lowest DH: Less than 100ft or no DH

Question 88

ILS CAT IIIb (lowest visibility and lowest DH)

Answer 88

Lowest Vis: 150 -700ft Lowest DH: Less than 50 or no DH

Question 89

ILS CAT IIIc (lowest visibility and lowest DH)

Answer 89

Lowest vis: 0ft Lowest DH: No DH

Question 90

What is GNSS?

Answer 90

Global Navigation Satellite System

Question 91

How many satellites in constellation?

Answer 91

Minimum 24 sats (with some spares)

Question 92

How many satellites are in view at any location on Earth?

Answer 92

5 sats

Question 93

How many satellites required for 2D Position?

Answer 93

3 sats

Question 94

How many satellites for 3D Position?

Answer 94

4 sats

Question 95

What is RAIM?

Answer 95

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

Question 96

How many satellites for RAIM fault detection?

Answer 96

5 sats

Question 97

How many satellites for RAIM fault exclusion?

Answer 97

6 sats

Question 98

What can GPS substitute?

Answer 98

ADF or DME except for ADF substitution on NDB approaches without a GPS overlay.

Question 99

What is SBAS?

Answer 99

Satellite Based Augmentation System

Question 100

What is WAAS?

Answer 100

Wide Area Augmentation System

Question 101

How does WAAS work?

Answer 101

Ground stations measure GPS errors and produce correction signals.

Question 102

What does WAAS provide us?

Answer 102

Improves accuracy, integrity, and availability monitoring for GPS navigation.

Question 103

What approaches need WAAS?

Answer 103

APV approaches such as LPV, LNAV/VNAV and non-precision LP approaches.

Question 104

What is GBAS?

Answer 104

Ground Based Augmentation System

Question 105

How does GBAS work?

Answer 105

Provides error corrections via VHF to GBAS enabled GPS receivers.

Question 106

Is WAAS or GBAS more accurate?

Answer 106

GBAS is more accurate but covers much a smaller geographical area.

Question 107

What approaches need GBAS?

Answer 107

Allows for category I and above approaches to GLS DA minima.

Question 108

What is RNP?

Answer 108

Required Navigation Performance Its a statement of navigation equipment and service performance. RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting.

Question 109

What does it mean when a approach shows, "RNAV (RNP) AR"

Answer 109

AR means authorization required and require special FAA approval for the crew, aircraft and operation.

Question 110

What is RNAV?

Answer 110

Area Navigation A system that enables navigation between any two points without the need to overfly ground based stations.

Question 111

What is PBN?

Answer 111

Performance Based Navigation Its a general basis for navigation equipment standards, in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity, and availability.

Question 112

How are PBN and RNP related?

Answer 112

RNP is a specific statement of PBN for a flight segment and aircraft capability.

Question 113

Basic attitude instrument flying skills "CIA"

Answer 113

Cross check Instrument interpretation Aircraft control

Question 114

Control Instruments

Answer 114

Power: Tachometer, manifold pressure Attitude: Attitude indicator

Question 115

Performance Instruments

Answer 115

Pitch: Altimeter, airspeed, VSI Bank: Heading Indicator, Turn Coordinator, and magnetic compass.

Question 116

Required Reports Under IFR "MARVELOUS C500"

Answer 116

■ Missed approach ■ Airspeed ±10 kts / 5% change of filed TAS (whichever is greater) ■ Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude) ■ VFR on top when an altitude change will be made. ■ ETA changed ±2 min, or ±3 min in North Atlantic (NAT) * ■ Leaving a holding fix/point ■ Outer marker (or fix used in lieu of it) * ■ Unforecasted weather (§91.183) ■ Safety of flight (any other information related to safety of flight, §91.183) ■ Vacating an altitude / FL ■ Final Approach fix * ■ Radio/Nav/approach equipment failure (§91.187) ■ Compulsory reporting points ▲ * (§91.183) ■ 500 - unable climb/descent 500 fpm * Required only in non-radar environments

Question 117

POSITION REPORT ITEMS REQUIRED IN NONRADAR ENVIRONMENT “A PTA TEN R”

Answer 117

■ Aircraft ID. ■ Position. ■ Time. ■ Altitude. ■ Type of flight plan (except when communicating with ARTCC / Approach control). ■ ETA and name of next reporting fix. ■ Name only of the next succeeding point along the route of flight. ■ Any pertinent remarks.

Question 118

Actions at hold fix and each turn point "5 T's"

Answer 118

▷ Turn ▷ Time ▷ Twist ▷ Throttle ▷ Talk

Question 119

MAKE ALL HOLD TURNS:

Answer 119

■ 3º per second, or ■ 30º bank angle, or ■ 25º bank angle if using a Flight Director *Whichever uses the least bank angle

Question 120

Holding Pattern Timing

Answer 120

At or below 14,000ft MSL - 1 Minutes Above 14,000ft MSL - 1.5 Minutes

Question 121

Holding Speeds

Answer 121

6,000ft or below - 200kts 6,001ft to 14,000ft - 230kts 14,001ft and above - 265kts *Unless published otherwise

Question 122

What do you report at the hold fix?

Answer 122

“ Over at ”

Question 123

Altitude to fly during lost Comms.

Answer 123

The Highest of: "MEA" ■ M - Minimum altitude prescribed for IFR ■ E - Expected (as in: “Expect 5000 10 min after departure”) ■ A - Assigned. Last altitude assigned by ATC. * Highest for the route segment flown

Question 124

Route to fly during lost Comms.

Answer 124

Select the route by: "AVEF" ■ A - Assigned route, or, if none: ■ V - Vectored (fly to fix/route/airway last vectored to), if none: ■ E - Last Expected route by ATC, if none: ■ F - Filed route

Question 125

When can you leave a clearance limit? (LOST COMMS)

Answer 125

Is the clearance limit a fix from which an approach begins? Yes - Start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC, or ETA (If no EFC given) No - At EFC or clearance limit (If no EFC given) proceed to fix from which an approach begins and start the approach.

Question 126

What do you do if you lose comms while in VFR conditions?

Answer 126

Continue the flight and land as soon as practicable.

Question 127

A Procedure Turn is a maneuver that enables:

Answer 127

▷ Course reversal. ▷ A descent from IAF. ▷ Inbound course interception.

Question 128

Max Speed in a Procedure Turn

Answer 128

200 kts

Question 129

Do not fly a procedure turn when: "SHARP TT"

Answer 129

■ Straight-in approach clearance. ■ Holding in lieu of a procedure turn. ■ DME Arc. ■ Radar vectors to final. ■ No PT depicted on chart. ■ Timed approach from a hold fix. ■ Teardrop course reversal.

Question 130

When can you descend to the next Instrument Approach Segment?

Answer 130

▷ When cleared for the approach and established on a segment of a published approach or route.

Question 131

Contact Approach

Answer 131

▷ Requested by the pilot in lieu of an instrument approach. (Cannot be initiated by ATC) ▷ Requires at least 1SM ground visibility and remain clear of clouds. ▷ Only at airports with approved instrument approach procedures. ▷ Pilot assumes responsibility for obstruction clearance.

Question 132

Visual Approach

Answer 132

▷ Initiated by ATC or the pilot. ▷ Requires at least 1000’ ceiling and 3SM visibility. (IFR in VMC) ▷ Pilot must have either the airport or the traffic to follow in sight. ▷ Pilot is responsible for visual separation from traffic to follow.