Review Flashcards
(376 cards)
1
Q
What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?
A
CO = HR x SV
2
Q
Stroke volume is ______________
A
Related to preload
3
Q
Preload is most impacted by _____________
A
Filling volumes
4
Q
A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate
A
Increased afterload
5
Q
Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by
A
Radius of the vessel
6
Q
The formula for BP is
A
BP = CO x SVR
7
Q
What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency?
A
V wave
8
Q
An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?
A
RV infarct
9
Q
If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?
A
JVD
10
Q
What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?
A
Congenital
11
Q
The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?
A
30 cm
12
Q
When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ______ and the temperature change is measured in the ________.
A
RA, PA
13
Q
Equalization of the RVEDP and the LVEDP are found in
A
Restrictive Pericarditis
14
Q
Signs of Right sided heart failure includes?
A
JVD
15
Q
The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum is called
A
Ostium Secundum
16
Q
What is Flamm’s equation?
A
3 (SVC) + 1 (IVC) / 4
17
Q
What applies to Dopamine?
A
In low doses it increases renal perfusion and increases urine output. It also increases heart rate and blood pressure
18
Q
The reversal agent for Versed is
A
Romazicon
19
Q
The reversal agent for opioids is
A
Naloxone
20
Q
Adenosine causes
A
Maximum hyperemia
21
Q
The preferred wire for peripheral procedures is
A
.018
22
Q
The preferred intervention for a cold limb is
A
Thrombectomy device or infusion catheter
23
Q
The medication post peripheral procedure may include
A
Brillinta, Plavix, Effient and/or Aspirin
24
Q
Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of
A
Cardiac Tamponade
25
What does RAD stand for?
Radiation Absorbed Dose
26
The component of the X-ray system that converts light rays into images?
Image Intensifier
27
What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?
5 REM
28
Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?
0.5
29
What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the X-ray?
6 feet
30
Spasm at the access site can be managed with
A calcium channel blocker or NTG
31
Post procedure pressure should be
Non-occlusive
32
Heparin should be given at _____ Units/kg
50
33
Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?
Lateral
34
Radiolucent means
X-rays are permitted to pass through
35
Radiopaque means
X-rays are NOT permitted to pass through
36
ReoPro works on
IIB/IIIA receptors
37
Heparin potentiates the action of
Antithrombin
38
Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of
Thrombin
39
There are how many pathways to imitate the clotting cascade?
2
40
Aspirin inhibits the action of
Arachidonic Acid
41
Which agents are examples of Antiplatelets?
Aspirin, Plavix, ReoPro
42
If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?
Fluids to hydrate
43
If a patient is taking NPH Insulin, which medication should not be given?
Protamine
44
Which medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?
Adenosine
45
If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4, contrast volume should be minimized. True or False?
True
46
A non-compliant balloon does not have the ability to expand beyond a specific diameter. True or False?
True
47
A compliant balloon can be expanded beyond a specific diameter when additional pressure is applied. True or False?
True
48
What are 3 facts regarding self-expanding stents?
They do not require a balloon for deployment
They foreshorten which can result in incorrect stent placement
They are very flexible
49
The best short acting medication/anxietolytic to sedate a patient is
Versed/Midazolam
50
The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is
Nitroglycerin
51
Amiodarone is used to treat
Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
52
What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?
Nitroglycerin
53
Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing ____________ post contrast administration?
Renal failure
54
Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?
Mobitz 2
55
The Impella catheter most closely resembles which diagnostic catheter?
Pigtail
56
When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, which is the purpose of setting a "rate of rise"?
It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopy
57
An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?
Inferior wall
58
An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1 and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
Cx
59
What are 2 benefits of balloon expandable stents?
They have an increased radial strength
There is minimal foreshortening
60
The open cell coronary stent is best for tortuous lesions because it is more flexible. True or False?
True
61
What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?
You could put them into V-fib
62
The closed cell stent is best for calcified lesions or straight segments of a coronary lesion. True or False?
True
63
In 1st degree heart block, where is the conduction delay?
AV node
64
What is the normal PR interval?
.12- .20
65
If a patient is attached to the monitor, V tach is the rhythm, the patient has no pulse and is not responding, what should you do?
Unsynchronized cardioversion
66
If a patient is on a monitor in SVT, SBP is 70, the patient is diaphoretic, dusky and SOB, What should you do?
Synchronized cardioversion
67
What are 3 common complications of placing a pacing electrode/wire
Perforation
Pericardial Effusion
Tamponade
68
A pacing generator that paces both chambers, senses in both chambers and triggers or inhibits is a
DDD
69
A permanent pacemaker with a single lead is used for
AV block
70
A permanent pacemaker that paces both the right atrium and right ventricle is used for
SA node dysfunction and RV block
71
A biventricular device is used for
Cardiac resynchronization
72
A biventricular device paces which chamber(s)?
RA, RV and LV
73
A covered stent is used for
Coronary perforation
74
The markers on the stent balloon identify
Both the proximal and distal ends of the stent
75
Balloon expandable stents have increased radial strength. True or False?
True
76
What are 4 causes of in-stent restenosis?
Uncontrolled hypertension
Non-compliance with medication
No change in modifiable risk factors (smoking, diabetes)
Stented vessels are smaller than 2.0mm
77
Which cardiac output would be most accurate in a patient with mitral valve regurgitation?
FICK
78
Which right heart pressure best reflects LV preload?
PCWP
79
Which balloon is used for mitral valvuloplasty?
Inoue Balloon
80
Aortic stenosis demonstrates a pressure that is elevated in the left ventricle and a pressure that is lower in the ___________.
Aortic arch
81
What information is needed to calculate a FICK Cardiac Output?
Arterial O2 saturation
Venous O2 saturation
Hemoglobin
O2 Consumption
Height/weight/BSA
82
If a patient has a pulsatile mass below the sheath site, and bruit is present, what should be suspected?
Pseudoaneurysm
83
An abdominal aortic pulsation greater than 3.0cm can be a finding for what
Aortic Aneurysm
84
List common symptoms of an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
Pain not relieved with NTG, Morphine or Oxygen
Non-specific EKG changes
Back pain
Significant palpable abdominal pulsation
85
The primary wire coating is
Hydrophillic
86
The purpose of platinum of the tip of an angioplasty wire is
For better visualization
87
Atherectomy devices are best utilized on
Calcified lesions
88
The common complication of atherectomy devices is
Distal embolization
89
Thrombectomy devices are used for
Clots
90
Thrombectomy devices and atherectomy devices are not lesion specific. True or False?
True
91
A catheter has a diameter of 2.66mm. What French size is it?
8FR
92
Contrast induced nephropathy can be characterized by
An increase in creatinine
Drop in GFR
Decreased renal output
93
The best studies to evaluate a patient for AAA are
TEE
Non-contrast CT
PET Scan
Abdominal ultrasound
94
The Yankauer suction catheter is used for
Oral/pharyngeal suction
95
Prior to suctioning the endotracheal tube, a patient needs to be
Hyperventilated
96
Which lesion is best addressed with a Rotablator?
Calcified
97
Which catheter should be used to cannulate a LAD with a high takeoff?
Amplatz
98
Landmarks for an internal jugular approach include the
Head of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the clavicular head
99
When performing a myocardial biopsy where are the tissue samples taken from
RV
100
Define Hypokinetic
Decreased cardiac wall motion
101
Define Akinetic
No cardiac wall motion
102
Define Dyskinetic
Abnormal/unorganized cardiac wall motion
103
In the formula BP = HR x SV x SVR, Dobutamine acts as an __________, to ____________ by increasing ______________.
Inotrope
Increase stroke volume
Contractility
104
Losartan and Valsartan are both examples of what drug class?
Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBS)
105
NTG works to decrease preload when given during an MI by dilating
Veins
106
Coronary arteries perfuse best during
Diastole
107
What is the purpose of the IABP
Increase coronary perfusion, decrease afterload
108
An IMA catheter most nearly resembles a
JR 4
109
Where is an IVC filter placed?
Below the renal veins
110
Where should the IV be placed for a right radial procedure?
In the contralateral arm
111
In which heart chamber is the ICE catheter advanced?
Right atrium
112
A procedure used to block or reduce blood flow in arteries
Embolization/coiling
113
Lisinopril can cause
Hypokalemia
114
Metformin may cause _____________ post procedure leading to contrast induced nephropathy
Lactic acidosis
115
The best device for management of an acute thrombus in a vessel is
Angiojet
116
Which device employs the use of sterile heparinized saline to evacuate thrombus?
Angiojet
117
What are the signs and symptoms of a retroperitoneal bleed?
Back or flank pain
Drop in BP
Tachycardia
Drop in Hgb and Hct
118
Calcified lesions are best managed with which device?
Cutting/scoring balloon
119
When using a Temporary Pacer, where is the lead placed?
RV
120
When performing a myocardial biopsy post heart transplant, the biopsy is performed to evaluate what?
Potential for rejection of the transplanted heart
121
The drive to breath in a person with no respiratory diseases is
Elevated CO2
122
The drive to breath in a person with COPD is
Decreased O2
123
The greatest risk when performing a myocardial biopsy is?
Perforation of the RV
124
When using the Rotablator, the burr should start rotating where?
Just proximal to the lesion
125
The dorsalis pedal pulse is located
On the anterior foot
126
The posterior tibial pulse is located
Near the medial malleolus
127
The site of a myxoma is the
LA
128
The best catheter to cross a stenotic aortic valve is
AL2
129
What medications are commonly given when performing a radial procedure?
NTG, Verapamil, Heparin
130
The IABP catheter should be placed where
Above the renal artery and below the left subclavian
131
Which symptom after the use of a closure device warrants evaluation?
Loss of pulses in the foot
132
If the HR slows, what happens to SV?
Increases
133
What happens to myocardial contractile force when the heart rate slows?
Increases
134
Rapid ventricular pacing is used during a TAVR to
Decrease movement of the aortic valve during systole by decreasing stroke and filling
135
The Amplatzer Septal Occluder device is used to
Close a PFO
136
Impella is indicated for patients experiencing
Severe heart failure
Cardiogenic shock
High risk percutaneous intervention
137
What is the access site for Impella?
Femoral artery
138
Which heart chamber is the Impella advanced to?
LV
139
How are you expected to discontinue an Impella device?
Weaning
140
For a left sided Impella, the inlet port is the ______________ and the outlet port is the ___________.
Ventricle
Aorta
141
The head hunter catheter is used to visualize the
Left and right ICA and ECA
142
What is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis?
Arteriosclerosis
143
Renal artery stenosis is most commonly found in the
Proximal renal artery
144
FFR employs the use of which medication?
Adenosine
145
FFR compares the pressure __________ to the lesion to the pressure __________ to the lesion.
Proximal
Distal
146
What FFR measurement indicates the vessel is flow limiting and should be fixed?
0.80 or lower
147
Mesenteric ischemia can cause compromised blood flow to the intestines. True or False?
True
148
Mesenteric ischemia can occur after an MI. True or False?
True
149
Another name for Plavix
Clopidogrel
150
Another name for Effient
Prasugrel
151
Another name for Brillinta
Ticagrelor
152
Another name for Aggrastat
Tirofiban
153
Another name for ReoPro
Abciximab
154
Pulsus alternans is a sign of
Left sided heart failure
155
How would you monitor heparin therapy is ACT is not available?
PT/PTT
156
An elevated PCWP, orthopnea, increased LVEDP and decreased O2 sat are signs of?
Left sided heart failure
157
A washer that is visualized on fluoroscopy is placed to mark the
Proximal vein graft
158
An ABI measure the difference between the ______ and _______pulses and a reading of ____ indicates a flow limiting lesion.
Left brachial
Left pedal
0.7
159
Cannulation of the femoral artery should be
One finger breath below the inguinal fold
160
What occurs when an arterial puncture site does not seal
Pseudoaneurysm
161
_____________________ is the result of the cannulating needle penetrating the anterior and posterior vessel walls.
Pseudoaneurysm
162
Treatment of a pseudoaneurysm includes
Thrombin injection into the SAC
Ultrasound guided compression
Surgical management
163
Physical signs of a pseudoaneurysm include
Palpable pulsatile mass
Presence of a systolic bruit
Pain
164
Which organ system is responsible for metabolic changes in pH?
Kidneys
165
Contraindications for closure devices include
PVD
Diabetes
Cannulation above the inguinal fold
Cannulation of the profunda
166
What is necessary prior to deploying a TAVR?
A TTE or TEE
Temporary pacing wire
Both atrial and venous access
Ensuring the TAVR does not occlude the coronary ostium
167
The PR interval is 0.26. Where is the conduction delay?
AV node
168
A laser eliminates plaque by
Vaporizing
169
The left sided Impella devices evacuates blood from the ________ and delivers it to the ________.
LV
AO
170
Define Arteriosclerosis
The thickening/hardening and loss of elasticity of the walls of the arteries
171
Define Atherosclerosis
The build-up of plaque on the arterial wall
172
Balloon expandable stents are used in the
Coronaries
173
Self-expandable stents are used in the
Carotids
174
When HR slows, cardiac muscle fiber contraction
Increases
175
Chronic untreated hypertension demonstrates
A risk factor for CAD and increased afterload
176
Mitral insufficiency can be evaluated by measuring the
V wave
177
Chronic mitral stenosis can increase the
PCWP
178
Aortic stenosis can increase
LV systolic pressure
179
Which pressure must be recorded to diagnosis mitral regurgitation?
PCW
180
Which pathologies would increase the RVEDP?
RV infarct
Chronic COPD
Chronic pulmonary hypertension
181
An elevated RA waveform and RA pressure could be caused by
Tricuspid regurgitation
RV MI
ASD
182
Signs of LV failure include
Orthopnea and pulmonary congestion
Decreased exercise tolerance
Decreased EF
183
What causes equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP?
Constrictive Pericarditis
184
What can cause bilateral peripheral edema
Right heart failure
185
What do ACE inhibitors do?
Decrease BP via the kidneys
186
A common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors is
Cough
187
Enalapril and Lisinopril are examples of which drug class?
ACE inhibitors
188
Amlodipine, Felodipine and Nifedipine are examples of which drug class?
Calcium channel blockers
189
An inferior wall MI demonstrates ST elevation in leads
II, III and AVF
190
Where is the conduction delay in a 1st degree heart block?
AV node
191
In a 1st degree heart block the PR interval is
> .20
192
Benefits of the IABP include
Decrease in afterload
Improves coronary circulation
193
Distal protection devices are most commonly used in which procedures?
Carotid stenting
Saphenous vein grafts
194
What does a high V wave indicate?
Mitral regurgitation
195
LV systolic pressure is greater than aortic systolic pressure is indicative of
Aortic stenosis
196
Elevated RV systolic pressure and normal PA pressure is indicative of
Pulmonic stenosis
197
If there is ST elevation in leads 1, AVL, V5 and V6 which wall of the heart is affected
Lateral
198
If there is ST elevation in leads V3, V4 and V5 which wall of the heart is affected
Anterior
199
When does the mitral valve close?
Immediately following the peak of the A wave
200
What are two examples of positive chronotropes
Atropine and Isuprel
201
Verapamil is an example of which drug class?
Calcium channel blocker
202
Metoprolol is an example of which drug class?
Beta blocker
203
NTG is an example of which drug class?
Preload reducer
204
Lisinopril is an example of which drug class?
ACE
205
Valsartan is an example of which drug class?
ARB
206
What is the normal range of K+ in the blood?
3.5-5.0
207
What do you see during a vasovagal reaction?
BP decreases
HR decreases
SV decreases
208
When a patient has a a vasovagal reaction what do you do?
Give fluids
Trendelenburg position
Atropine
209
How does heparin prevent clot formation?
By preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
210
What is the initial dose of Versed for sedation?
0.5mg - 1mg
211
What is the action of ReoPro?
Inhibits IIb/IIIA receptors
212
INR measures the levels of which drug?
Coumadin
213
Most common access point to perform a myocardial biopsy
Right IJ
214
Lovenox impacts what?
Antithrombin and Factor Xa
215
How does Plavix act?
Turns off receptor sites on the platelets
216
What does Aspirin do?
Prevents platelet adhesion
217
TPA acts by?
Dissolving fibrin
Activates Plasminogen
218
Metabolic Acidosis has a low level of what?
Bicarb (HCO3)
219
Maximum flow rate per nasal cannular for a person with COPD?
2 liters nasal cannula
220
A high CO2 will impact the pH how?
It will lower the pH
221
Increased bicarb will do what to the pH?
Increased the pH
222
What is the most common form of cardiac tumor?
Atrial Myxoma located in the LA
223
The symptoms of increased HR, decreased BP and SOB during a biopsy indicate what?
Cardiac Perforation
224
Which diagnostic catheter is best for a dilated aortic root?
JL5
225
Where does the needle enter for a pericardalcentesis?
Sub-xyphoid process
226
What is the best balloon to use on an artery that has the tendency to close?
A perfusion balloon
227
What is the purpose of an ICD?
To monitor for bradycardia, tachycardia, VT and V-fib
228
What is a Fogarty balloon?
An embolectomy catheter most commonly used to decrease clot in an AV fistula
229
What is the normal amount of blood in the pericardium?
5-50ml
230
When are the coronary arteries perfused?
During ventricular Diastole
231
What is ACLS protocol for monophasic defibrillation?
200-300-360
232
What is ACLS protocol for biphasic defibrillation?
120-150-200
233
What does the C wave represent?
Onset of ventricular contraction
234
Which valve has the smallest valve area?
Aortic
235
What is the formula for Mean Arterial Blood Pressure?
1(systolic) + 2(diastolic) / 3
236
What is the formula for Pulse Pressure
AO systolic - AO diastolic
237
What is the formula for FICK Cardiac Output
O2 Consumption / (Hbg x AO sat x constant) x (Hgb x PA sat x constant) x 10
238
What is the formula for Stroke Volume?
SV = EDV - EDS
239
What is the formula for Ejection Fraction?
EF = SV / EDV
240
What is the formula for Cardiac Output (L/min)
CO = HR x SV / 1000
241
What is the formula for Cardiac Index
CI = CO / BSA
242
What is the formula for Regurgitant Fraction
SV angiographic - SV thermo / SV angiographic
243
What is the formula for Aortic Valve Area?
AVA = AVF / 44.5 x sq root of mean gradient
244
What is the formula for Aortic Valve Flow?
AVF = CO (mL/min) / SEP (sec/min)
245
What is the formula for Mitral Valve Area?
MVA = MVF / 37.7 x sq root of mean gradient
246
What is the formula for Mitral Valve Flow?
MVF = CO (mL/min) / DFP
247
What is the formula for SEP?
SEP = SEP x HR
248
What is the formula for DFP?
DFP = DFP x HR
249
What is the formula for Haaki for Valve Area?
Haaki = CO (L/min) / Square root of the peak to peak pressure gradient
250
What is the formula for Peak to Peak Gradient?
LV Systolic - AO Systolic
251
What is another name for Angiomax?
Bivalirudin
252
What is another name for Coumadin?
Warfarin
253
What is another name for Xarelto?
Rivaroxaban
254
Normal RA pressure?
5
255
Which is the largest valve in the heart?
Tricuspid Valve
256
Normal RV pressure?
25
257
Normal RVEDP?
5
258
Normal PA pressure?
25 (systolic) / 7-12 (diastolic)
259
Normal LA pressure?
7-12
260
Normal PCW pressure?
7-12
261
What is the purpose of endothelia cells in an artery?
Cover muscle fibers
Creates slippery environment
Prevent clot formation
261
Normal LVEDP?
7-12
262
What does Nitricoxide do for arteries?
Relaxes muscle fibers. Bigger diameter = lower pressure
263
Define Cardiac Tamponade
Compression of the heart by an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac
264
What is Pulsus Paradoxus?
Pressure variation by right upper lobe. Causes blood to go into vena cava resulting in lower pressures
265
What are Baroreceptors?
Stretch receptors that tell the brain how much muscle stretch is necessary for normal blood flow
266
Which organ secrets renin?
Kidneys
267
Define Chronotropes
Affects HR
Positive chronotropes increase HR
Negative chronotropes decrease HR
268
Define Inotropes
Affects contractions
Positive inotropes boost heart beat
Negative inotropes weaken heart beat
269
What does Nipride do?
Increases vessel diameter. Given during hypertensive crisis to lower BP quickly
270
What does Lidocaine do?
Decreases sensitivity to electrical impulses. Used for treatment of ventricular arrhythmias and PVCs
271
What does Atropine do?
Increases HR due to vasovagal reaction. Tells vagus nerve to relax
272
What does Isuprel do?
Positive chronotrope. Increases HR by stimulating beta site on the heart
273
What does Amiodarone do?
Decreases HR by slowing flow through potassium channels. Slows flow through the entire conduction system
274
What do Calcium Channel Blockers do?
Decreases HR and BP by slowing the movement of Ca+ through both cardiac and muscle fibers
275
Verapamil, Cardizem, Amlodipine and Nifedipine are examples of which drug class?
Calcium Channel Blockers
276
Metoprolol, Atenolol and Inderal are examples of which drug class?
Beta Blockers
277
What do Beta Blockers do?
Negative chronotropes
Lower HR
278
1-5mcg/kg/min of Dopamine will do what?
Increase renal perfusion
279
5-10 mcg/kg/min of Dopamine will do what?
Raise HR and BP
280
>10 mcg/kg/min of Dopamine with do what?
Becomes potent
281
What does Dobutmaine do?
Causes cardiac muscle fibers to contract with more force
Increases SV and EF
282
What does FFR do?
Induces a hyperemic state
Dilates microvasculature
283
What is Epinephrine?
Increases heart rate and vessel diameter
284
What does Demerol/Meperidine do?
Binds to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord
285
What is a normal INR?
0.8 - 1.2 sec
286
What is a normal ACT?
70-120 sec
287
ACT should be greater than _______ sec during an intervention
250
288
Where do we zero the transducer?
Phlebostatic access
Midaxillary
289
What is happening during the "a" wave on a RA waveform?
Rise in RA pressure during atrial contraction
290
What is happening during the "v" wave on a RA waveform?
RA filling while the tricuspid valve is closed
291
Where do we measure EDP?
Following ventricular contraction
292
Define EDP?
The amount of blood volume left behind following ventricular contraction
293
What does the Diacrotic Notch signify?
The closing of the pulmonic valve
294
Normal PA Mean Pressure?
10-15
295
Define Ostium Secundum ASD
Most common type of ASD
Occurs in the center of the septum
Another name is "Patent Foramen Ovale"
296
Define Primum ASD
Second most common ASD
Located on lower portion of atrial septum
297
Define Sinus Venosus ASD
Least common type of ASD
Located on upper portion of atrial septum
298
What is an ASD/PFO Closure?
Closure of Ostium Secundum ASD
Requires transseptal approach
Uses ICE catheter
299
Which catheter allows for visualization of cardiac structures and requires venous access?
ICE Catheter
300
What is the formula for Qp/Qs Ratio?
Qp/Qs = AO O2 sat - MVO2 sat / PV O2 sat - PA O2 sat
301
Normal pH range?
7.35-7.45
302
Normal PaCO2 range?
35-45
303
Normal HCO3 range?
22-26
304
A pH < 7.35 is called what?
Acidosis
305
A pH > 7.45 is called what?
Alkalosis
306
An increased HCO3 ___________ pH
Raises
307
A decreased HCO3 ____________ pH
Decreases
308
A high CO2 _____________ pH
Decreases
309
A low CO2 _____________ pH
Increases
310
Where are collimators located on X-ray machine?
X-ray tube
311
The number of electrons fired from the cathode is referred to as?
mA
312
The penetrating power of the mA is referred to as?
KVp
313
_______ controls the contrast or the grey scale in a x-ray image
KVp
314
Abnormal development or growth of cells in the walls of the body's arteries
Fibromuscular Dysplasia
315
The height of the table at which the object being imaged remains in the center of the field of view
Isocenter
316
X-ray coming out in short bursts
Fluoro
317
X-ray coming out continuously
Cine
318
Lead glasses contain ____mm of lead
0.75
319
Type of contrast used in the past. Caused nausea, vomiting and bradycardia
Renografin
320
The total concentration of solutes in a solution
Osmolality
321
Having a higher osmotic pressure than a particular fluid
Hypertonic
322
Which hormone helps blood vessels constrict and helps the kidneys control amount of water and salt in the body
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
323
This medication lowers blood sugar levels by improving the way the body handles insulin
Metformin
324
This occurs when the catheter accidentally slips into a side artery near the Left Main and acts as a wedge pressure
Ventricularization
325
Septals and Diagonals belong to which artery?
LAD
326
Marginals belong to which artery?
Circumflex
327
The Conus, Acute Marginals and PDA belong to which artery?
RCA
328
Which artery runs down the interventricular septum?
LAD
329
Which artery runs through the left and right atrioventricular grooves?
Circumflex
330
Vessel that collects blood from the coronary veins and returns the blood directly into the RA
Coronary Sinus
331
This view is used to visualize the origins of the diagonals along the mid/distal LAD. Prox LAD/Cx usually overlapped
RAO Cranial
332
This view is used to visualize the Left Main, the prox LAD. One of the best views to visualize the Cx
RAU Caudal
333
In this view, the septals and diagonals are separated clearly
LAO Cranial
334
In this view, the Left Main and Left Main bifurcation is well visualized. Also referred to as "Spider View"
LAO Caudal
335
When looking at the RCA, which view best visualizes the prox RCA?
LAO
336
When looking at the RCA, which view best visualizes the PDA?
RAO Cranial
337
What is the average diameter of the Left Main?
4.5mm
338
What is the average diameter of the Circumflex?
3.4mm
339
What is the average diameter of the RCA?
2.8mm
340
Define Type II Aortic Dissection
Confined to the ascending aorta
341
Define Type III Aortic Dissection
Confined to the descending aorta
342
Define Type I Aortic Dissection
Involves the ascending aorta, aortic arch and descending aorta
343
Define Type A Aortic Dissection
Develops in the ascending part of the aorta just as it branches off of the heart
344
Define Type B Aortic Dissection
Involves a tear in the descending part of the aorta
345
If a thrombus occurs in the mesenteric artery, which organs are affected?
The intestines
346
1 atm = ______lbs/sq in
14.7
347
Uses light rather than sound to penetrate tissue and produce an image of the vessel
Optical Computerized Tomography (OCT)
348
This type of test requires Adenosine infusion and induces a hyperemic state
FFR
349
Mitral Valvuloplasty requires a ____________ approach
Transseptal
350
Aortic Valvuloplasty requires a __________ approach
Femoral Artery
351
Example of a mechanical thrombectomy device for PCI involving large thrombus burden
Anjojet
352
Procedure performed to remove atherosclerotic plaque from diseased arteries
Atherectomy
353
_____________ Atherectomy uses a burr that spins concentrically and is utilized mostly in calcified coronary arteries
Rotational
354
_____________ Atherectomy is utilized in peripheral cases only
Directional
355
_____________ Atherectomy uses a crown that orbits the wire and can be used in both coronary and peripheral procedures
Orbital
356
_____________ Atherectomy uses high energy light beam to vaporize the plaque. Requires everyone in the room to wear protective goggles
Laser
357
Left atrial appendage closure device. Prevents blood clots from escaping the area
Watchman
358
This device is known as an alternative to Coumadin for patients in Afib in order to prevent stroke
Watchman
359
This device is placed below the renal veins and is used to prevent blood clots from moving into the lungs causing a pulmonary embolism
Vena Cava Filter (IVC Filter)
360
This device eases the workload of the Left Ventricle
Impella
361
The IABP is located in the
Descending Aorta
362
The IABP inflates at the onset of cardiac ___________
Diastole
363
The IABP deflates at the onset of cardiac ____________
Systole
364
Most common cause of cold limb ischemia
Clot
365
The injection of alcohol to induce a controlled infarction of the hypertrophies septum
Septal Alcohol Ablation
366
The first letter in pacer coding stands for the chamber being ________
Paced
367
The second letter in pacer coding stands for the chamber bring __________
Sensed
368
The third letter in pacer coding stands for the chambers ___________
Response
369
Most common access site for Permanent Pacemakers
Left Subclavian
370
Most common access site for Temporary Pacers
RIJ or femoral vein
371
Post CABG, a temporary lead is sutured through the skin into the pericardium. What is this called?
Epicardial Pacing Wire
372
Normal MAP?
75-85 mmHg
373
What does MAP signify?
The amount of pressure needed to maintain cerebral perfusion
374
How do ACE Inhibitors work?
BP Medication. They make the Angiotensin converting enzyme inactive to prevent Angiotensin II from being formed
375
How do ARBs work?
Make Angiotensin II inactive to prevent it from telling the kidneys to retain salt
