Review 2 Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

what are 3 types of iron and vitamin deficiency anemias?

A

– Hypochromic, microcytic anemia (small red cells with low hemoglobin; caused by chronic blood loss giving rise to iron deficiency)
– Megaloblastic anemia (large red cells, few in number); caused by a deficiency of Vit B12 or folic acid
– Pernicious anemia (fewer normal-sized red cells, each with a normal hemoglobin content); caused by a deficiency of Vit B12 due to defect in intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

causes of anemia

which nutrients necessary for haemopoiesis might be deficient?

A

– iron
– folic acid and vitamin B 12
– pyridoxine (vit B6) and vitamin C (important for iron abs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are 2 categories for treating anemia?

A

hematinic agents

hematopoietic growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

name 2 hematinic agents

A
  • Iron

- Folic acid and Vit B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name 4 Hematopoietic Growth Factors

A
  • Erythropoietin
  • Granulocyte Colony-Stimulating Factor (G-CSF)
  • Granulocyte-Monocyte Colony-Stimulating Factor (GM-CSF)
  • Megakaryocyte (Thrombopoietic) Growth Factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hematinic agents: Iron

which form of iron is absorbed?
where is it absorbed?
what is a transport protein for iron?

A

• Ferric iron (Fe3+) must be converted to ferrous iron (Fe2+, reduced form) for absorption (by ferric reductase enzyme) in the GI tract.
• Absorption involves active transport into mucosal cells in the duodenum and jejunum (the upper ileum), from where it can be transported into the plasma and/or stored intracellularly as ferritin.
• Total body iron is controlled exclusively by absorption; in iron deficiency, more is transported into plasma than is stored as ferritin in jejunal mucosa.
• Iron that is released is transported by transferrin (the
transport protein).
• Transferrin delivers the iron to either the liver for storage or to bone marrow for further hemoglobin and RBC production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hematinic agents: Iron

name oral and IV common drugs

A

Iron formulations are used for treatment of iron deficiency

Oral: ferrous sulfate, ferrous fumarate, ferrous gluconate, polysaccharide-iron complex
IV: iron dextran, sodium ferric gluconate, iron sucrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hematinic agents: Iron

side effects

A

• Gastrointestinal disturbances.
• Severe toxic effects occur if large doses are ingested;
such acute poisoning can be treated with desferrioxamine, an iron chelator as can chronic iron overload in diseases such as thalassemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

when does iron overload occur? (2)

A

Iron overload occurs in chronic hemolytic anaemias
requiring frequent blood transfusions, such as;
- Thalassaemias (a large group of genetic disorders of globin chain synthesis)
- Hemochromatosis (a genetic iron storage disease with increased iron absorption, resulting in damage to liver, islets of Langerhans, joints and skin).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how to treat iron overload?

3

A
  • Desferrioxamine: form a complex with ferric iron which, unlike unbound iron, is excreted in the urine.
  • Desferrioxamine is not absorbed from the gut. Therefore, it must be given by slow SC infusion. For acute iron overdose, it is given IM or IV
  • Deferiprone is an orally absorbed iron chelator, used as an alternative treatment for iron overload in patients who are unable to take desferrioxamine.
  • Deferasirox is similar, but can cause GI bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hematinic agents: Folic Acid and Vitamin B12

what is the role of folic acid and Vit B12

A

Prototype: B9: Folic acid; B12: Cyanocobalamin,
hydroxocobalamin
• Vitamin B12 and folic acid play key roles in DNA synthesis. Active forms of folic acid serve as enzyme cofactors that play key roles in the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines, as well as amino acids, in the body.
• A deficiency of folic acid or B12 affect cells that are actively dividing, such as the cells of the bone marrow, which are involved in erythropoiesis. Therefore, the deficiencies of these vitamins is anemia.
• Specifically, B12 deficiency results in abnormal DNA replication, which prevents cells from maturing properly, leading to production of large, dysfunctional RBC precursors (megaloblasts) that do not leave the marrow, or abnormal cells that do leave the marrow.
• B12 deficiency can also affect the nervous system, causing inflammation, demyelination, and neuronal cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hematinic agents: Folic Acid and Vitamin B12

MOA?

A
  • Folic acid: Reduction of folic acid, catalyzed by dihydrofolate reductase in two stages yields dihydrofolate (FH 2 ) and tetrahydrofolate (FH 4 ), co-factors which transfer methyl groups (1- carbon transfers) in several important metabolic pathways.
  • FH 4 is essential for DNA synthesis.
  • B12: involves conversion of both methyl-FH 4 to FH 4 and homocysteine to methionine

see diagram:

  • Convert homocysteine to methionine important for DNA synthesis B12 important for conversion of methyl tetrahydrofolate to and tetrahydrofolate (methyl FH4 tp FH4)
  • Thymidylate synthase convert methylene dUMP to dTMP or DNA synthesis
  • Reduction of folic acid yields dihydrofolate and tetrahydrofolate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hematinic agents: Folic Acid and Vitamin B12

indications for Vitamin B12

A
  • Pernicious anemia

* Megaloblastic and macrocytic anemias caused by poor B12 absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hematinic agents: Folic Acid and Vitamin B12

Folic Acid

A
  • Megaloblastic and macrocytic anemias
  • Prevention of neural tube defects in neonates (give to pregant women)
  • Adjunct to methotrexate to prevent methotrexate toxicity (can be used for alopecia)
  • Pernicious anemia (combined with B12)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hematopoietic Growth Factors: Erythropoietins

MOA continued
where does EPO bind a receptor and what types of effects will happen

A
  • Patients with a deficiency of erythropoietin will be anemic. This occurs commonly in patients with renal failure.
  • Once released, erythropoietin binds to a receptor on the surface of committed erythroid progenitor cells in the bone marrow.
  • Binding to this receptor mediates a variety of intracellular effects through tyrosine kinases, including the inhibition of apoptosis.
  • Inhibiting apoptosis prevents RBCs from dying at an early stage of development. Erythropoietin also promotes proliferation through Janus protein kinase-2 (JAK2) pathways

More cell proliferation, no death of RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hematopoietic Growth Factors: Erythropoietins

Indications

A
  • Anemia
  • In advanced renal failure (can’t make it)
  • Associated with chemotherapy and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hematopoietic Growth Factors: Erythropoietins

AE (4)

A

• Iron deficiency: If iron stores cannot keep up with
erythropoiesis, patients may develop a functional iron
deficiency. Patients need an iron supplement.
When you make RBC it has hemoglobin which needs iron - will take plasma iron

• Thrombosis: particularly in patients on dialysis. It is
recommended that these patients receive anticoagulant therapy as a prophylactic measure.
• Hypertension: Although increased hematocrit can lead to increased blood pressure, the mechanism is believed to be more likely a result of the interaction between erythropoietin and vasoactive factors such as angiotensin II.
• Seizures: Seizures have been reported in dialysis patients receiving epoetin alfa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hematopoietic Growth Factors: Colony Stimulating Factors

function?
2 prototypes

A

Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) are agents that stimulate the production of neutrophils and monocytes
• Granulocyte Colony-Stimulating Factor (G-CSF):
filgrastim, lenograstim, pegfilgrastim
- astim

• Granulocyte-Monocyte Colony-Stimulating Factor (GMCSF): sargramostim
- ostim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hematopoietic Growth Factors: Colony Stimulating Factors

MOA?

A

• The CSFs work by binding to receptors on myeloid
progenitor cells. These are cells in the bone marrow that make RBCs, platelets, granulocytes, and monocytes. The actions of these receptors are mediated through the Janus protein kinase/signal transducers and activators of transcription (JAK/STAT) pathway.
• G-CSFs stimulate proliferation and differentiation only of progenitors commited to becoming neutrophils.
• GM-CSFs stimulate the production of neutrophils and
monocytes, as well as the actions (phagocytosis,
superoxide production, and cell-mediated toxicity) of
neutrophils, monocytes, and eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hematopoietic Growth Factors: Colony Stimulating Factors

Indications

A

• Adjunct to myelosuppressive chemotherapy
• Severe chronic neutropenia
• Prevention and treatment of neutropenia in human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hematopoietic Growth Factors: Colony Stimulating Factors

AE? (6)

A
  • Bone loss: G-CSF increases osteoclast activity, leading to bone resorption.
  • Joint pain: G-CSF appears to stimulate cytokine release, leading to joint pain.
  • Renal dysfunction: G-CSF causes a transient and reversible renal impairment, believed to be caused by leukostasis (clumping of leukocytes) in the kidneys.
  • Acute respiratory distress: G-CSF can lead to lung injury because of accumulation and activation of neutrophils in the lungs.
  • Splenomegaly or splenic rupture: Cases of splenic rupture have been reported with G-CSF. balloon like
  • Sickle cell crises: Sometimes fatal in patients with sickle cell disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hematopoietic Growth Factors: Megakaryocyte

(Thrombopoietic) Growth Factors

A

• Megakaryocyte (Thrombopoietic) Growth Factors
- Oprelvekin (IL-11)
- Thrombopoietin
• Oprelvekin (IL-11) and Thrombopoietin stimulate the growth of megakaryocytic progenitors and increase the number of peripheral platelets. They are used to treat thrombocytopenia following cancer chemotherapy.

  • Eltrombopag (oral) and romiplostim (injectable) are recently approved thrombopoietin agonists.
  • IL-11 treatment is associated with dizziness, headache and fatigue. Recombinant human trombopoietin is supposed to be better tolerated.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are 2 types of agents that can treat osteoporosis?

A
  1. antiresorptive drugs

2. anabolic agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how do antiresorptive drugs work?

A

decrease bone loss, e.g. bisphosphonates, calcitonin, selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs), denusomab , calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
how do anabolic agents work? | which has both actions of antiresorptive and anabolic?
that increase bone formation, e.g. PTH, teriparatide . | •Strontium has both actions (antiresorptive and anabolic
26
Bisphosphonates (BPs) name 2 types and common drugs of each
Aminobisphosphonates: (2 phosphates and an amino group) alendronate, risedronate, pamidronate, zoledronate Non-Aminobisphosphonates: etidronate,clodronate
27
Bisphosphonates (BPs) how do aminobisphosphonates work?
Disrupt the mevalonate pathway, a pathway involved in the posttranslational modification of proteins that are involved in cellular signaling. Disruption of the mevalonate pathway interrupts osteoclast function and leads to apoptosis of the osteoclast
28
Bisphosphonates (BPs) how do non-aminobisphosphonates work?
Increase the accumulation of cytotoxic metabolites within osteoclasts, interfering with their function and possibly leading to osteoclast cell death
29
Bisphosphonates (BPs) Indications (8)
• Osteoporosis • Paget’s disease of the bone (results in enlarged, deformed bones) - enlarged soft bone w/ less calcium • Hypercalcemia: • Malignancy • Primary hyperparathyroidism (continuous parathyroid hormone [PTH] release causes bone demineralization) • Bone metastasis causing osteolysis: • Multiple myeloma • Bone metastases of malignant tumors
30
Bisphosphonates (BPs) contraindications (2)
Hypocalcemia (low calc): BPs have exhibited decreases in serum calcium. It is recommended that deficiencies in calcium be addressed before initiation of therapy. Poor renal function: BPs are eliminated renally
31
Bisphosphonates (BPs) AE (4)
• Gastrointestinal: nausea, dyspepsia • Esophagitis or esophageal erosion • Osteonecrosis of the jaw with higher doses, jaw easily broken. • Aminobisphosphonates also cause fever, flulike symptoms are a transient, typically first-dose phenomenon seen with intravenous administration
32
Estrogens and Related Compounds common drug name MOA?
Raloxifene | - SERM, selective estrogen receptor modulators. It stimulates osteoblasts and inhibits osteoclasts
33
Estrogens and Related Compounds Raloxifene AE (2) + use?
Hot flushes, leg cramps, flu-like symptoms and peripheral oedema. • Thrombophlebitis and thromboembolism. • Raloxifene is not recommended for primary prevention of osteoporotic fractures, but is one alternative to a bisphosphonate postmenopausal women who cannot tolerate a bisphosphonate
34
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) structure? common drug?
Parathyroid hormone, which consists of a single-chain polypeptide of 84 amino acids Teriparatide
35
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) MOA? key effects? receptor? what does it stimulate?
PTH is released from the parathyroid gland. It regulates calcium and phosphate flux across cell membranes in bone and kidney - Increased serum calcium - Decreased serum phosphate - Increased osteoclast activity in bone (indirect by increase RANKL activity • PTH increases both resorption and formation but the net effect of excess PTH is resorption. * actions largely mediated through the PTH-1 receptor. • anabolic effects are mediated by direct effects of PTH on osteoblasts, increasing their number and inhibiting their apoptosis. * PTH also stimulates insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1) in osteoblasts, and IGF-1 also has anabolic effects on bone.
36
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) contraindications? (6)
• Children or young adults with open epiphysis. (where bone is elongated) • Hypercalcemia: PTH already raises Ca2+ levels. • Active Paget’s disease of bone. • Skeletal metastases or skeletal malignant conditions. • History of radiation to the skeleton: risk of osteosarcoma • Pregnancy and lactation: deleterious effects on fetal bone development are possible
37
Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) AE (4)
• Hypercalcemia (mild): PTH increases serum calcium. • Leg cramps may occur. • Nausea may occur. • Orthostatic hypotension: PTH infusions have a vasodilatory effect in animals
38
Vitamin D Replacement what are the 2 major forms of vit d replacements? what does it regulate generally? common drugs
• The two major forms of vitamin D replacements are vitamin D2 and vitamin D3. • Vitamin D is an important regulator of calcium and phosphate homeostasis and bone metabolism. It works in conjunction with PTH
39
Vitamin D Replacement common drugs
Calcitriol, ergocalciferol (vitamin D2), calcipotriene, | doxercalciferol, paricalcitol
40
Vitamin D Replacement explain the vitamin d endocrine pathway
- Vit D3 formed by UV in skin goes to liver and gets converted to calcifediol (25(OH)D3) - goes to kidney and becomes calcitriol (1,25) - calcitriol enters blood and increases differentiation of osteoblasts and plays a role in calc and phos homeostasis - calcitriol negative feedback on parathyroid hormone release
41
Vitamin D Replacement action of drugs on vitamine D endocrine system? exogenous ergocalciferol (vit D2) alfacalcidol exog calcifediol exog calcitriol
- exogenous ergocalciferol (vit D2): formed in plants by UV is converted to D2 metabolits in liver and kidney (becomes Vit D3 in liver) - alfacalcidol, exog calcifediol: increases formation of calcifediol in kidney to calcitriol - exog calcitriol: increases blood calcium which negatively acts to inhibit parathyroid hormone release/activity
42
Vitamin D Replacement dosage forms for calcitriol? indications (4) AE? (1 main)
- Calcitriol is available in oral and intravenous formulations. It is a lipid-soluble vitamin and therefore can accumulate and cause toxicity * Osteoporosis * Hyperparathyroidism * Osteomalacia * Rickets Symptoms are primarily induced by hypercalcemia, which include GI pain, renal stones, and psychiatric disturbances.
43
RANKL Inhibitors common drug? indication? what is the pathway for triggering osteoclast diff and activation?
denosumab for osteoporosis - osteoblast is stimulated to express a surface ligand, RANK ligand (RANKL) which reacts witha receptor on osteoclast called RANK (receptor activator of nuclear factor kapa B) - this receptor causes diff and activation of osteoclast progenitors - hbipohosphonates inhibit bone resorption by osteoclasts - anti-RANKL antibodies (denos) bind RANKL and prevent the RANK-RANKL interaction
44
RANKL Inhibitors | MOA?
• RANKL (receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa ligand) is a cytokine member of the TNF superfamily • The binding of RANKL to RANK results in increased bone resorption through the differentiation, activation, and prolonged survival of osteoclasts. • Denosumab is a new fully humanized monoclonal antibody that binds RANKL and through binding causes inhibition of RANKL and thus inhibits osteoclast activity.
45
RANKL Inhibitors | AE 4
* Eczema (small increase in risk) * Hypocalcemia * Increased risk of infections (ie cellulitis) * ONJ and atypical fractures
46
Calcitonin common drug MOA?
salcatonin (synthetic salmon calcitonin) - It decreases the reabsorption of both calcium and phosphate in the kidney - it inhibits bone resorption by binding to a specific receptor on osteoclasts, inhibiting their action.
47
Calcium Salts | AE?
ral calcium salts can cause gastrointestinal disturbance. • Intravenous administration in emergency treatment of hyperkalaemia requires care, especially in patients receiving cardiac glycosides, the toxicity of which is influenced by extracellular calcium ion concentration
48
name 5 groups of drugs that are antiinflammatory for rheumatoid arthritis
1. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the coxibs. 2. Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), including some immunosuppressants. 3. The glucocorticoids. (steroidal) 4. Anticytokines and other biological agents. 5. Other drugs that do not fit into these groups, including antihistamines.
49
synthetic DMARD methotrexate MOA? indication
Has marked anti-inflammatory action in rheumatoid disease and cytotoxic in the larger doses used to treat cancer. MOA Folate antagonist and thus interferes with thymidylate synthesis (which is essential for DNA synthesis) Indication Rheumatoid arthritis; also used in psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis (inflamm of spine), polymyositis (inflamm of muscle) and vaculitis (inflamm of blood vessel)
50
synthetic DMARD methotrexate AE? (3) dosage form, half-life
- Gastrointestinal disturbances, dose-related liver toxicity. - Bone marrow depression and pneumonitis can occur - anemia due to bone marrow supp (give folic acid) Given orally; has active metabolite. Half-life 6–9h
51
synthetic DMARD sulfasalazine AE? (4) dosage form, half-life
Nausea & vomiting, headaches, rashes. About a third of patients discontinue the drug because of side effect Given orally; only ~15% is absorbed in the GIT. Half-life 6–16h.
52
synthetic DMARD Leflunomide MOA? indication (1)
Gives rise to a metabolite that inhibits dihydrooratate dehydrogenase; this results in inhibition of T-cell proliferation and decreased production of autoantibodies by B cells. - inhibits immunity indication: RA
53
synthetic DMARD Targeted synthetic DMARD ``` for RA (name 2) for psoriatic arthritis (name 2) ```
– RA: tofacitinib, baricitinib • They Inhibit Janus Kinase (JAK) – Psoriatic arthritis (PsA): apremilast, tofacitinib • Apremilast: The drug acts as a selective inhibitor of the enzyme phosphodiesterase 4 (PDE4) and inhibits spontaneous production of TNF-alpha from human rheumatoid synovial cells. • Tofacitinib: JAK inhibitor newly made drugs, for alopecia
54
biologic DMARD name 2 MOA
Biologic - mostly antibodies and against inflamm cytokines like interleukin and TNFa An anticytokine antirheumatoid drug. Reduces joint inflammation and symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. Reduces symptoms of Crohn’s disease. Infliximab - Adalimumab is also an anti-TNFalpha antibody (half-life 10– 20 days). - Etanercept another anti-TNF-alpha antibody (given subcut. twice a week; half-life ~5 days). It is a monoclonal antibody against TNF- that binds with the TNF-alpha and prevents its interaction with cell surface receptors in inflammatory cells
55
biologic DMARD infliximab dosage form, half-life AE (4)
Given by i.v. infusion every 4 weeks. Half-life 9–12 days Nausea, vomiting, headache, upper respiratory tract infections with cough
56
Drugs Used in Gout Colchicine MOA?
Inhibit multiple proinflammatory mechanisms, while enabling increased levels of anti-inflammatory mediators by following mechanisms; * inhibits microtubule polymerization by binding to its constitutive protein, tubulin, which is essential to mitosis. * inhibits activation and migration of neutrophils to sites of inflammation * interferes with the inflammasome complex found in neutrophils and monocytes that mediate interleukin-1β activation, a component of inflammation * inhibits superoxide anion production in response to urate crystals * interrupts mast cell degranulation
57
Drugs Used in Gout Colchicine AE (5) contra
• Colchicine has a narrow therapeutic index. Narrow window of therapetuic and toxic fx, small increase in dose can be toxic • Gastrointestinal: Diarrhea is virtually a guaranteed side effect when colchicine is given in doses suitable for acute attacks of gout. • Bone marrow suppression: Antimitotics preferentially target rapidly dividing cells, such as those found in the bone marrow. • Myopathy may occur. (weak muscle) • Neuropathy may occur contra • Renal failure: increased risk of toxicity
58
Uricosurics name prototye and other drug indication
Uricosurics lower uric acid levels in blood as a treatment for gout. Prototype and Common Drugs Prototype: Probenecid Others: Sulfinpyrazone gout
59
Uricosurics MOA
Uric acid levels in the blood are elevated in gout, and one treatment strategy is to lower uric acid levels by enhancing uric acid excretion. Probenecid is completely reabsorbed by the proximal tubule and prevent uric acid reabsorption.
60
Uricosurics contra (3) AE (3)
contra • Renal insufficiency. • Urolithiasis (renal stones or calculi). • Peptic ulcer AE • Probenecid is well tolerated. • Gastrointestinal irritation is usually mild. • Allergic reactions usually are mild and occur in 2% to 4% of patients
61
Uricosurics Xanthine oxidase inhibitors name prototye and other drug indication
Prototype and Common Drugs Prototype: Allopurinol Others: Febuxostat decrease uric acid synthesis and are used in gout * Gout * Renal stones composed of uric acid * Complicated hyperuricemia
62
Uricosurics Xanthine oxidase inhibitors MOA - allopurinol - febuxostat
- Allopurinol is a purine analogue of hypoxanthine and is a substrate for, and inhibitor of, the enzyme xanthine oxidase. Xanthine oxidase converts hypoxanthine to xanthine to uric acid; inhibition therefore reduces the production of uric acid - Febuxostat is a new nonpurine inhibitor of xanthine oxidase. A significant difference from allopurinol is that being a nonpurine, it does not inhibit purine or pyrimidine synthesis, while allopurinol does
63
Uricosurics Xanthine oxidase inhibitors contra (1)
contra: Previous hypersensitivity reactions to allopurinol
64
Uricosurics Xanthine oxidase inhibitors AE - allopurinol (4) - febuxostat (2)
Allopurinol • Skin reactions: Both mild and severe reactions can occur. • Rarely, toxic epidermal necrolysis or Stevens-Johnson syndrome occurs, which can be fatal. • Liver reactions: Severe hepatic reactions including elevations of liver enzymes, fever, eosinophilia, and rash may occur. • Renal insufficiency. Febuxostat • Febuxostat appears to not produce the hypersensitivity reactions that occur with allopurinol. • Increase in the risk of myocardial infarction, stroke, and cardiovascular death with febuxostat.
65
prox tubule what is it permeable to?
* Freely permeable to water and solutes. * Na+-K+-ATPase in the basolateral membrane provides the Na+- gradients (low cytoplasmic Na+ concentrations) for passive transporters in the apical membranes which facilitate Na+ entry (reabsorption) from the tubular fluid down a concentration gradient. * 60–70% of the filtered Na+ and >90% of HCO3- is absorbed in the proximal tubule. Na+ is passively transported and will be actively transported through basolateral membrane using sodium potassium ATPase channel Active transport of chloride, bicarbonate, glucose, aa, organic solutes Most of where reabs happens
66
Loop Diuretics name 2 drugs indications? (6)
• Furosemide • Bumetanide • Most powerful diuretics - hiogher sodium release and more flow of urine compared to thiazides ``` Used to treat salt & water overload associated w/ • Acute pulmonary edema • Chronic heart failure • Cirrhosis of the liver • Nephrotic syndrome • Renal failure • Preferred for hypertension with poor renal function ```
67
Loop Diuretics MOA?
• Inhibit the Na+/K+/2Cl- carrier in the luminal membrane of the thick ascending limb (bind to the Clbinding site) – The most powerful diuretics – Cause excretion of 15-25% of filtered Na+, stay in lumen to be excreted Also have vascular actions – Vasodilation independent of the diuresis (may involve reduced responsiveness to angiotensin II (or increase in vasodilation prostaglandins) & noradrenaline)
68
Loop Diuretics AE (4 main)
* Excessive Na+ & water loss (especially in elderly people) * *Hypovolemia: Increase of blood pH, bicarbonate pH increases as plasma volume is reduced due to loss of water * *Hypokalemia: extra care for heart failure, CBD as toxicity is worse * Metabolic Alkalosis * Hypomagnesaemia * *Hyperuricemia: increase urea, lead to gout * Reduced renal perfusion * *Hearing loss: due to impaired ion transport in inner ear uncommon • Rashes • Bone marrow depression • Contraindicated in people with sulfa allergy
69
Thiazides 2 main drugs compare to loop diuretics indications? (4)
* Bendroflumethiazide * Hydrochlorothiazide * Less powerful than loop diuretics * Acts synergistically with loop diuretics * Related drugs include chlortalidone, indapamide & metolazone * Hypertension * Mild heart failure * Severe resistant edema * Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus * Preferred for hypertension with normal renal function
70
Thiazides MOA?
• Bind to the Cl- site of the distal tubular Na+/Cl- co-transport system – Induce natriuresis with loss of Na+ and Cl- ions (stay in lumen) – Stimulate renin secretion (leads to angiotensin formation & aldosterone secretion) • Unlike loop diuretics, thiazides reduce Ca2+ excretion – Potentially advantageous in elderly patients at risk of osteoporosis
71
Thiazides AE? (3)
* *Erectile dysfunction (less common with low doses and is reversible) * Hypochloremic alkalosis * *Impaired glucose tolerance * Hyponatremia (especially in the elderly) * *Hypokalemia * Rashes and blood dyscrasias (uncommon)
72
Potassium Sparing Diuretics name 2 indication (4)
main drugs are aldosterone antagonists • Spironolactone • Eplerenone * Limited action when used singly * These drugs prevent hypokalemia when combined with loop diuretics of thiazides * Resistant essential hypertension * Heart failure * Primary hyperaldosteronism * Secondary hyperaldosteronism (hepatic cirrhosis)
73
Potassium Sparing Diuretics MOA?
• Compete with aldosterone for its intracellular receptor | – Inhibit distal Na+ retention and K+ secretion
74
Potassium Sparing Diuretics AE (2)
* *Hyperkalemia: beneficial if you use potassium sparing diuretics to compensate this effect * GI upset * *Gynecomastia, menstrual disorders & testicular atrophy (less w/ eplerenone)
75
Other Diuretics Triamterene/Amiloride when are they used? MOA? AE (1)
* Limited action when used singly * These drugs prevent hypokalemia when combined with loop diuretics of thiazides * Inhibit Na+ reabsorption in the collecting tubules by blocking lumenal Na+ channels regulated by aldosterone - *hyperkalemia and GI upset
76
``` Other Diuretics Osmotic Diuretics (Mannitol) ``` when are they used? MOA? AE (1)
inhibits reabsorption of water and sodium * Mannitol is a 6-carbon sugar alcohol * Pharmacologically inert substances that are filtered in the glomerulus but are not reabsorbed * Exert their actions on parts of the nephron that are permeable to water (all parts except ascending loop) * Are used in acute renal failure * Also used for treating acutely raised intracranial or intraocular pressure * *Can increase risk for precipitating left ventricular failure * Other adverse effects include headache, nausea & vomiting