Review Flashcards
(93 cards)
1
Q
heart originates from the
A
mesoderm
2
Q
coronary arteries originate from
A
epicardium
3
Q
neural crest cells forms the
A
AV valves, outflow tract and arch development
4
Q
mesenchymal tissues forms the
A
valve tissue
5
Q
cardiogenesis time
A
week 3- 6
6
Q
rubella virus causes
A
supravalvular PS, asD and PDA
7
Q
etiology of congenital heart disease
A
90% unknown
8
Q
pulm. circulation is a low flow and high resistance
A
in utero
9
Q
post-natal pulm. circulation (2)
A
- reduction of the pulmonary vascular resistance
2. higher partial pressure of oxygen
10
Q
AV junction tissue (2)
A
- AV valves
2. atrial and ventricular septum
11
Q
trisomy 21
A
endocardial tissue: ASD, VSD and PDA
12
Q
turner
A
coarctation of aorta
13
Q
tri 18
A
VSD
14
Q
septum secundum
A
PFO
15
Q
left ventricular hypoplasia
A
aortic stenosis
16
Q
situs inversus
A
polysplenia
17
Q
systolic split S2 murmur
A
ASD
18
Q
holosystolic murmur- pansystolic
A
VSD
19
Q
most common VSD
A
- paramembranous
- muscular
- AV canal
20
Q
TOF (4)
A
- VSD
- pulm. stenosis
- overriding aorta
- right ventricular hypertrophy
21
Q
failure of the conal septum to fuse with the septal band
A
TOF
22
Q
DTGA needs a
A
VSD or ASD to survive
23
Q
DTGA can be given
A
prostaglandin to improve mixing of blood by keeping the ductus arteriousus open
24
Q
polygonal cells with clear cytoplasms
A
rhabdomyomas
25
associated with tuberous sclerosis
rhabdomyomas
26
tuberous sclerosis mutation
TSC1 and TSC2- hamartin and tuberin
27
there is myofiber disarray especially in the interventricular septum
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
28
Myocardium is flabby and pale, with subendocardial scars.
dilated cardiomyopathy
29
On histopathology there is a patchy or diffuse interstitial infiltrate of T lymphocytes, macrophages and rare giant cells, with focal myocyte necrosis
viral myocarditis
30
causes of fibrinous pericarditis
```
MI
post MI
uremia
chest radiation
Rheumatic fever
lupus
trauma
```
31
MI: pallor or red-blue hue (dark mottling)
<24 hr MI
32
MI: mottling with yellow tan infarct center
2-4 days
33
MI: risk for arrhythmia
2-4 days
34
MI: risk for free wall rupture
5-10 days
35
MI: hyperemic border, central yellow-tan softening
5-10 days
36
MI: depressed, soft, infarct borders, gelatinous appearance
10 days to 2 weeks
37
MI: gray white scar, progressive from border to center of infarct
2-8 weeks
38
MI: risk for ventricular anuerysm
2-8 weeks
39
MI: wavy fibers , coagulative necrosis, myocyte eosinophilia, edema hemorrhage, contraction band
<24 hr
40
MI: coagulation necrosis with loss of nuclei and striations, interstitial infiltrate of PMNs
2-4 days
41
MI: beginning disintegration of dead myofibers with dying PMNs, macrophages with phagocytosis dead cells
5-7 days
42
MI: well developed phagocytosis of dead cells, early formation of fibrovascular granulation tissue at margins
7-10 days
43
MI: well established granulation tissue with new blood vessels and increased collagen deposition with decreased cellularity
2-8 weeks
44
MI: dense collagenous scar
>2 months
45
bulky friable vegetations in the valves
infective endocarditis
46
viridians
infective endocarditis
47
rheumatic fever can cause what type of pericarditis
fibrinous
48
pyrogens
rheumatic fever
49
mydssytolic click
MVP
50
cavo-tricuspid isthmus ablation
treatment for atrial flutter
51
treatment for atrial fibrillation (course of 4)
1. anti-coagulants
2. rate control- BB or CCB (prevents rapid ventricular beating by blocking AV node)
3. rhythm control- Ic or III
4. ablation
52
p waves in SVT or PSVT?
nope
53
SVT with narrow QRS
AVNRT
54
treatment for Monomorphic VT
ICD
55
ablation causing pulmonary vein isolation
atrial fib
56
hemodynamically stable Vtach treatment
-amiodarone (Class III) or lidocaine (class IB)
57
anti-arrhythmia medical therapy in Vtach with a ICD
prevent or reduce frequency of ICD firing
58
use dependent effects thus effects of medication is greater on faster heart rates
sodium channel blocker
59
Medication for WPW
Class IA
60
soidum channel block effect AP phases and ekg
1. slope of phase 0 decreases
2. prolongation of phase 3 (if class Ia)
3. QRS widen
61
when do you not want to give a sodium channel block (2)
1. abn. heart structure
| 2. RBB or lBB because the QRS is already wide
62
reverse use dependent effect thus medication is great on the heart rate is slow
potassium channel blocker
63
effect of potassium channel blockers (2)
1. prolong phase 3
| 2. QT lengthens
64
medication tat exacerbate bradycardia
AV node blockers such as BB and CCB
65
natural compensation for reduced blood flow
collateral artery formation
66
resistance is too high leading to inadequate flow to downstream tissues
1. decreased lumen radius
67
statins for secondary prevention? primary prevention?
yes for secondary and maybe for primary if the pt. has a ASCVD score above > 7.5%
68
main effects of nitrates
venodilation lowering preload and there is a lower afterload due to arterial dilation
69
bad effects of nitrates (2)
1. tachycardia
| 2. increased inotropy
70
negative effect of Beta blockers
can increase wall tension in patients with left ventricular dysfunction
71
negative effects of CCB
1. reduce contractility
| 2. AV block
72
acute thrombotic coronary artery occlusion
STEMI
73
may be demand-ischemia or sub-occlusive coronary thrombus
NSTEMI
74
inferior stemi associated with (4)
1. GI symptoms
2. NG induced hypotension
3. AV nodal block if AV node is ischemic
4. proximal RCA occlusion
75
pletal
phosphodiesterase inhibitor for chronic claudication due to its ability to dilate vascular smooth muscle
76
infrainguinal occlusion si often
embolic
77
greater distal vascular disease
Diabetes and PVD
78
Type B treatment for aortic dissection
medical therapy
79
Type A treatment for aortic dissection
urgent surgical repair
80
with a symptomatic carotid blockage of >50
| % what can we do?
endarterectomy
81
aortic valve stenosis
- what type of overload?
- murmur?
- type of hypertrophy
- pressure overload
- systolic murmur: cresecendo-decrescendo
- concentric
82
aortic valve regurg
- what type of overload?
- murmur?
- type of hypertrophy
- volume overload
- diastolic murmur- asutin flint
- eccentric
83
mitral stenosis murmur
diastolic murmur
84
mutral regurg. murmur
holosystolic; pansystolic
85
dilated LV cavity with a reduced left ventricular EF
HFrEF
86
is there a loss of contractility in HFrEF?
yep
87
harsh systolic murmur and palpable thrill
VSD
88
continuous murmur during systole and diastole
PDA
89
TOF has what type of murmu
systolic
90
in coarctation of the aorta what has higher BP the leg or arm?
arm
91
friction rub noise
pericarditis
92
diffuse ST segment elevation and PR segment depression
pericarditis
93
Y descent refers to
earliest stage of passive ventricular filling
