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Human Performance And Limitations > Revision > Flashcards

Revision Flashcards

1
Q

The type of human errors which feature most commonly in aircraft accidents are

A

Errors in judgment or poor decision making

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2
Q

The most common cause of pilot incapacitation during flight is

A

Food or drink poisoning

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3
Q

Human performance
Dehydration is more likely to be experience after several hours in what conditions

A

High altitude on a dry day

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4
Q

Human Performance
What are the symptoms of dehydration?

A

Drying of the nasal passages and a prickly sensation in the eyes

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5
Q

Human Performance
What is the recommended period of time on the ground after making a blood donation?

A

Casa recommends a period of 24 hours

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6
Q

CAR 256 requires total abstinence by all pilots from any alcohol for a period of ?

A

8 hours before commencing duty

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7
Q

Human Performance
What should A pilot do when drugs are required for medical reasons before a flight

A

Consult a DAME before using any drug

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8
Q

Human Performance
Discomfort or pain in the ears or sinuses, is most likely during

A

High rates of decent in an unpressurised aircraft

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9
Q

Human Performance
If an otherwise healthy pilot suffers about of dizzy spells the appropriate action required by CASA is?

A

Notify a DAME in refrain from or flying until cleared

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10
Q

Human Performance
How can pilots best assist airsick passengers?

A

Flying as smoothly as possible, and making all Manouvers and descents, gentle

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11
Q

Which of the following is a condition which is caused by excessive Utica acid in the blood and can be aggravated by poor diet?
A. Gout
B. Angina
C. Leprosy
D. Tinea

A

A. Gout

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12
Q

Which of the following would NOT be likely to result from flying with a severe cold?
A. Dizziness caused by pressure build-up in the middle ear (pressure vertigo)
B. Discomfort or pain in the ears during rapid descent
C. Blurring of vision
D. Rupturing of the eardrum

A

C. Blurring of vision

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13
Q

It is generally accepted that human error can be totally eliminated from aviation with proper training and standard operating procedures

A

This statement is false

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14
Q

Too much salt in the diet can lead to

A

High blood pressure

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15
Q

Foods most likely to produce intestinal gases are

A

Green vegetables

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16
Q

Obesity (being over weight) has been linked with which of the following health problems
A. Drowsiness, headaches, low blood pressure and gout
B. Cancer, drowsiness, headaches and heart disease
C. High blood pressure (hypertension), gout, diabetes and heart disease
D. Diabetes, headaches, cancer and high blood pressure

A

C. High blood pressure (hypertension), gout, diabetes and heart disease

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17
Q

Too little iron in the diet can lead to which of the following health problems?
A. Anaemia
B. Low blood pressure
C. Skin rashes
D. Dizzy spells

A

A. Anaemia

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18
Q

High blood pressure (hypertension) is a common cause of disqualification on medical grounds. With which of the following is hypertension directly linked?
A. Heart disease
B. Anaemia
C. Anorexia
D. Old age

A

A. Heart disease

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19
Q

On a hot dry day it is possible for the body to lose about 5 litres (more than one gallon) of water

A

This statement is true

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20
Q

One of the common characteristics of ageing is a deterioration of hearing. This is usually noticed first in the

A

High frequencies

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21
Q

The purpose of the Eustachian tube in the human respiratory system is to connect the

A

Middle ear to the throat

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22
Q

The primary cause of pilot incapacitation in flight is

A

Gastrointestinal disorders

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23
Q

A person flying with a head cold would not usually be affected by

A

Hypermetropia

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24
Q

The recommended period of time between blood donations and commencement of flying duties is

A

24 hours

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25
Q

If suffering from heat stress, a pilot should

A

Drink more fluid than dictated by thirst alone

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26
Q

Pilots who are inclined to suffer from air sickness …

A

Should use caution when using travel sickness preparations

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27
Q

The Valsalve Manoeuvre
(Popping your ears)

A

Is more likely to be needed during a descent than a climb

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28
Q

An excessively cold environment does not lose the danger of

A

A feeling of elation

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29
Q

An obese pilot with hypertension would be unlikely to suffer from

A

Difficulty in breathing due to lung cancer

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30
Q

The painful co diction known as Barotrauma is most likely to occur

A

With an increase in differential pressure inside and outside the body when on descent

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31
Q

The ideal relative humidity for passenger comfort in a jet transport aircraft is considered to be

A

40-60%

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32
Q

On long flights at high altitude the relative humidity in the cabin of an aircraft may fall below comfortable levels. The relative humidity considered optimal for human comfort is

A

40-60%

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33
Q

During a descent with blocked Eustachian Tubes, the gas volume in the middle ear

A

Decreases

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34
Q

Sinus pain experienced by a pilot in an unpressurised aircraft is most likely with

A

A head cold a descent

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35
Q

Select the lowest operating environment temperature at which the symptoms of heat stress are likely occur

A

32°C

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36
Q

If you pinch yourself just above the hip, a good level of fitness is indicated if the fold of flesh in your grasp has a thickness of about

A

12mm

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37
Q

The best way to guard against dehydration is to

A

Drink water regularly throughout the day

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38
Q

The period of validity of a medical certificate unless otherwise cancelled or suspended is
A. 4 years for student and private pilot licenses (aged under 40 years of age) and 1 year for commercial licenses
B. 2 years for student and 1 year for private and commercial
C. 1 year for student and 2 for private and commercial
D. 2 years for all licenses

A

A. 4 years for student and private pilot licenses (aged under 40 years of age) and 1 year for commercial licenses

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39
Q

The most important process by which alcohol is removed from the body after the consumption of alcoholic drinks is
A. Through expiration
B. Through perspiration
C. Via the kidneys as urine
D. Through chemical breakdown in the liver

A

D. Through chemical breakdown in the liver

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40
Q

For the average male, the rate at which alcohol can be metabolised is equivalent to one
A. Standard drink every 15 minutes
B. Standard drink every 30 minutes
C. Standard drink every 1 hour
D. Standard drink every 2 hours

A

C. One standard drink every 1 hour

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41
Q

Hyperventilation is likely to result in
A. A change in acidity of the blood caused by a drop in carbon dioxide levels
B. Severe headaches and vomiting
C. Sinus pain and discomfort in the middle ear.
D. Lightheadedness associated with an increase in carbon dioxide levels

A

A. A change in acidity of the blood caused by a drop in carbon dioxide levels

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42
Q

Abdominal pain caused by the expansion of gases within the body is most likely to be associated with
A. A rapid climb in an unpressurised aircraft
B. A rapid descent in an unpressurised aircraft
C. A rapid climb in a pressurised aircraft
D. A rapid descent in a pressurised aircraft

A

A. A rapid climb in an unpressurised aircraft

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43
Q

At an altitude of 18,000 feet the ambient atmospheric pressure is approximately
A. One third of its sea level value
B. One half of its sea level value
C. Two thirds of its sea level value
D. One tenth of its sea level value

A

B. One half of its sea level value

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44
Q

At a depth of about 30 feet, the underwater pressure is closest to
A. One and a half times normal sea level atmospheric pressure
B. Two times normal sea level atmospheric pressure
C. Three times normal sea level atmospheric pressure
D. One half of normal sea level atmospheric pressure

A

B. Two times normal sea level atmospheric pressure

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45
Q

Antihistamines are commonly found in cold and flu medications. The side affects of antihistamines include
A. Severe headache
B. Sleeplessness
C. Blurred vision
D. Drowsiness

A

D. Drowsiness

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46
Q

Decompression sickness or the ‘bends’ is caused by
A. Difficulty experienced in breathing under the high ambient pressure which occurs in deep water
B. The excess oxygen which dissolves in the blood during a deep dive
C. The release of dissolved nitrogen from the blood during a rapid ascent from deep water
D. Cramps caused by the low ambient temperature which occurs in deep water

A

C. The release of dissolved nitrogen from the blood during a rapid ascent from deep water

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47
Q

A SCUBA diver has just completed a dive which did require decompression stops but was of less than four hours duration. The minimum recommended period which should be allowed before flying is
A. 4 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours

A

B. 12 hours

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48
Q

Which of the following is most likely to reduce the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood?
A. high blood pressure
B. cigarette smoking
C. obesity
D. use of analgesics

A

B. Cigarette smoking

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49
Q

Which of the following would be an appropriate way to combat the effects of hyperventilation?
A. breathe more rapidly
B. make a conscious effort to slow down the breathing rate
C. take a deep breath and hold it
D. breathe more deeply

A

B. make a conscious effort to slow down the breathing rate

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50
Q

After heavy drinking, even though the blood alcohol level has returned to zero, some deterioration in physical and mental performance is likely to persist for up to
A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours

A

B. 8 hours

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51
Q

Hyperventilation is caused by
A. too much carbon monoxide in the air
B. too much carbon dioxide in the air
C. breathing too fast and/or too deep for the body’s requirements
D. holding the breath too long

A

C. breathing too fast and/or too deep for the body’s requirements

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52
Q

To which of the following drug families does alcohol belong?
A. stimulants
B. depressants
C. sedatives
D. analgesics

A

B. Depressants

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53
Q

For how many hours after ingestion can alcohol it still be detected in the brain cells?
A. 8 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours

A

C. 24 hours

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54
Q

Alcohol can still be detected in the blood for
A. 14 hours after ingestion
B. 14 hours after the blood alcohol level has reached .05
C. 24 hours after ingestion
D. 24 hours after the blood alcohol level has reached .05

A

A. 14 hours after ingestion

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55
Q

Which of the following would be an appropriate remedy for a person who is suffering the effects of hyperventi-lation?
A. hold the breath for about 40 seconds
B. breathe into a paper bag
C. increase the rate and depth of breathing
D. use a nasal decongestant

A

B. breathe into a paper bag

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56
Q

If it becomes necessary to take sleeping tablets, how much time should be allowed before flying?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. none if they provided a good night’s sleep
D. 8 hours

A

B. 24 hours

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57
Q

If a pilot has completed a SCUBA dive which required decompression stops during ascent and was more than 4 hours duration. which of the following would apply?
A. a rest at sea-level of at least 24 hours is required before flying
B. a rest at sea-level of at least 48 hours is required before flying
C. a rest at sea-level of at least 12 hours is required before flying
D. a rest at sea-level of at least 6 hours is required before flying

A

B. a rest at sea-level of at least 48 hours is required before flying

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58
Q

The minimum time specified in the CARs between alcohol consumption and taking off is
A. 8 hours, which is about right for all levels of intoxication
B. 12 hours, which is sufficient if 0.05 has not been exceeded
C. 10 hours, which is very conservative
D. 8 hours, which may not be sufficient in many cases

A

D. 8 hours, which may not be sufficient in many cases

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59
Q

The symptoms of hyperventilation include
A. tingling or numbness in the hands and feet
B. pain in the middle ear
C. a blue colouration in the lips and finger nails
D. sinus pain

A

A. tingling or numbness in the hands and feet

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60
Q

A pilot has just completed a SCUBA dive of 5 hours duration to a depth of 40 ft during which compression stops were required on the way back to the surface. The recommended rest at sea level before a flight at a cabin altitude of 6000 ft is
A. 4 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours

A

D. 48 hours

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61
Q

While flying, a pilot suffering from an upper respiratory tract infection is liable to
A. be more susceptible to hypoxia
B. become spatially disorientated
C. suffer from pressure vertigo
D. suffer from cyanosis

A

C. suffer from pressure vertigo

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62
Q

If vou become aware of a any change in your medical condition that indicates that you no longer meet the relevant medical standard (refer to CASR 67.205)
A. you must exercise extreme caution to ensure you will not become incapacitated
B. you may continue to fly, and as soon as practicable advise CASA of the change
C. cannot fly until you have undertaken a full medical examination
D. you may not carry out any function authorised by your licence until you have advised CASA or a designated aviation medical examiner (DAME)

A

D. you may not carry out any function authorised by your licence until you have advised CASA or a designated aviation medical examiner (DAME)

63
Q

The maximum period which a flight crew licence holder can suffer an impairment of efficiency relating to an act authorised by the licence, without DAME certification that the impairment no longer exists is (refer to CASR 67.265)
A. 30 days for private or commercial pilots
B. 7 days for private pilots
C. 30 days for commercial pilots
D. 7 days for commercial pilots

A

D. 7 days for commercial pilots

64
Q

After a 3 hour session of diving, with decompression stops, the minimum time recommended before you fly again is
A. 48 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 4 hours
D. because of the decompression stops, no delay before flying is required

A

B. 12 hours

65
Q

During a climb, expanding gas are most likely to cause severe pain and discomfort when it is trapped in the
A. stomach
B. large bowel
C. small bowel
D. lungs

A

C. small bowel

66
Q

Select the statement which is true for the use of analgesics
A. they must not be used by pilots under any circumstances
B. they may only be used after getting clearance from a DAME
C. they may be used by pilots but only for short term pain relief
D. they may be used by pilots without restriction

A

C. they may be used by pilots but only for short term pain relief

67
Q

The upper limit of alcohol intake on standard drinks over a period of one week is
A. 20 for men and 14 for women
B. 28 for men and 21 for women
C. 32 for men and 28 for women
D. 40 for men and 20 for women

A

B. 28 for men and 21 for women

68
Q

It is always advisable to check with a DAME before taking
A. any over-the-counter medication
B. any prescribed medication
C. any over-the-counter or prescribed medication
D. any blood pressure medication

A

C. any over-the-counter or prescribed medication

69
Q

One of the functions of the outer ear is to
A. prevent the pilot’s cap from slipping down over his/her eyes
B. mediate the sense of balance
C. equalise the pressure on either side of the eardrum
D. send nerve impulses to the brain
E. protect the eardrum from intrusions of insects, dust etc

A

E. protect the eardrum from intrusions of insects, dust etc

70
Q

Which of the following is a function of the middle ear?
A. to protect the eardrum from the intrusion of foreign bodies
B. to amplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum and transfer them to the cochlea
C. to convert the mechanical energy of vibrations to nerve impulses
D. to assist in maintaining the sense of balance

A

B. to amplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum and transfer them to the cochlea

71
Q

Which of the following is a function of the inner ear?
A. to protect the eardrum from the intrusion of foreign bodies
B.to amplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum and transfer them to the cochlea
C. to convert the mechanical energy of vibrations to nerve impulses and assist in maintaining the sense of balance
D. to equalise the pressure on either side of the eardrum

A

C. to convert the mechanical energy of vibrations to nerve impulses and assist in maintaining the sense of balance

72
Q

Which of the following serves to detect the loudness and pitch of sound by converting the mechanical energy of vibration to electrical impulses?
A. the cochlea
B. the semicircular canals
C. the hammer, anvil and stirrup
D. the vestibular system

A

A. the cochlea

73
Q

Which of the following mediates the sense of balance?
A. the cochlea
B. the semicircular canals
C. the hammer, anvil and stirrup
D. the Eustachian tube

A

B. the semicircular canals

74
Q

As a rough guide, hearing protection should be worn if the ambient noise levels are such that it is necessary to
shout to conduct a conversation over a distance of
A. 10 metres
B. 5 metres
C. 3 metres
D. half a metre

A

D. half a metre

75
Q

Deterioration of hearing caused by exposure to loud noise usually occurs first
A. in the high frequency range, above normal speech
B. in the frequency range of normal speech, 300 to 5000 Hz
C. in the frequency range below normal speech
D. across the whole range of audible frequencies

A

A. in the high frequency range, above normal speech

76
Q

A decibel is a unit used to measure
A. the frequency or pitch of sound
B. the intensity or loudness of sound

A

B. the intensity or loudness of sound

77
Q

Hertz [Hz], are used to measure
A. the frequency or pitch of sound
B. the intensity or loudness of sound

A

A. the frequency or pitch of sound

78
Q

Continuous exposure to high noise levels in the cockpit should be avoided because
A. the effect is cumulative and can eventually lead to deafness
B. stress levels are increased and concentration levels are decreased
C. general performance and efficiency is reduced
D. all of the above are correct

A

D. all of the above are correct

79
Q

which of the following is the minimum intensity of noise that would result in the sensation of pain to the ears?
A. 85 dB
B. 110 dB
C. 140 dB
D. 160 dB

A

C. 140 dB

80
Q

Which of the following is the minimum noise level that would mark the onset of temporary or permanent deafness after prolonged exposure?
A. 85 dB
B. 110 dB
C. 140 dB
D. 160 dB

A

A. 85 dB

81
Q

Which of the following is the function of the eustachian tube in the human respiratory system?
A. it connects the middle ear to the outer ear
B. it connects the middle ear to the inner ear
C. it connects the middle ear to the throat cavity
D. it connects the inner ear to the throat cavity

A

C. it connects the middle ear to the throat cavity

82
Q

Hearing loss due to long-term exposure to high noise levels is usually first noticed in the loss of sensitivity to
A. high frequency sounds
B. low frequency sounds
C. medium frequency sounds
D. all frequencies of sound

A

A. high frequency sounds

83
Q

Above which noise level is it recommended that hearing protection be worn?
A. 160 dB
B. 140 dB
C. 110 dB
D. 85 dB

A

D. 85 dB

84
Q

Which part of the ear is most affected by pressure differences when the eustachian tube is blocked?
A. the outer ear
B. the middle ear
C. the inner ear
D. the ear lobe

A

B. the middle ear

85
Q

If a head cold causes a blockage in the eustachian tube, where is the blockage most likely to occur?
A. at the top where the tube enters the middle ear
B. at the bottom where the tube enters the nasal passage
C. in the centre where the tube is narrowest
D. in any location where the tube bends

A

B. at the bottom where the tube enters the nasal passage

86
Q

Which component of the inner ear senses changes in speed with constant direction [linear acceleration]?
A. the semicircular canal
B. the otolith organ
C. the eardrum
D. the cochlea

A

B. the otolith organ

87
Q

When established in a balanced level turn at constant bank angle, the hair-like cells of the semicircular canals
will be
A. deflected in the direction of turn
B. deflected in the opposite direction to the turn
C. in the rest position with no deflection
D. waving back and forth

A

C. in the rest position with no deflection

88
Q

The term frequency when applied to sound is most closely related to
A. the number of pressure waves arriving at the ear in each second
B. the strength [amplitude] of the pressure waves
C. the loudness of the sound
D. the tone of the sound

A

A. the number of pressure waves arriving at the ear in each second

89
Q

The minimum noise level which could cause a person to suffer temporary or permanent hearing loss after exposure to sustained levels is
A. 30dB
B. 45 dB
C. 85 dB
D. 120 dB

A

C. 85 dB

90
Q

The organ which provides a person with a sense of balance is the…

A

Semicircular canals

91
Q

During constant angular acceleration, the hair-like sensors (cupula) in the semicircular canals are
A. upright (zero deflection)
B. tilted in the opposite direction to the turn
C. tilted in the same direction as the turn
D. oscillating

A

A. upright (zero deflection)

92
Q

Hyperventilation is caused by
A. too much carbon monoxide in the air
B. too much carbon dioxide in the air
C. breathing too rapidly for the amount of activity
D. breathing pure oxygen when not necessary

A

C. breathing too rapidly for the amount of activity

93
Q

The part of the ear which converts sounds into nerve impulses is the
A. semicircular canals
B. Eustachian tube
C. eardrum
D. cochlea

A

D. Cochlea

94
Q

The anatomy of the ear which acts as a linear accelerometer is the
A. stirrup
B. anvil
C. cochlea
D. otolith

A

D. Otolith

95
Q

Temporary or permanent hearing loss can be caused by sustained noise exposure at levels
A. above 120 dB
B. of 60 dB or greater
C. typically found in the cockpit of a light aircraft
D. above 140 dB

A

C. typically found in the cockpit of a light aircraft

96
Q

Exposure to sustained high noise levels
A. is distracting only
B. is distracting and fatiguing, but only likely to cause temporary hearing loss
C. may cause permanent hearing loss
D. is irritating and distracting, but unlikely to be fatiguing

A

C. may cause permanent hearing loss

97
Q

À guide as to when hearing protection should be worn is
A. if you must yell to be heard 5 metres away
B. if you can’t hear a whisper from 0.5 meters away
C. if you can’t hear a normal conversation from 2 metres away
D. if you must yell to be heard 0.5 metres away

A

D. if you must yell to be heard 0.5 metres away

98
Q

Hearing loss due to long term exposure to high noise levels usually initially affects
A. detection of high frequency sounds
B. detection of low frequency sounds
C. all frequencies equally
D. middle frequency sounds

A

A. detection of high frequency sounds

99
Q

It is strongly advised that hearing protections such as a good quality headset should be worn
A. during preflight inspections and throughout the flight
B. during take-off’only
C. during take-off and landing
D. at all times during flight

A

D. at all times during flight

100
Q

The function of the hammer, anvil and stirrup is to transfer vibrations from
A. the middle ear to the inner ear
B. the outer ear to the middle ear
C. the middle ear to the ear drum
D. the ear drum to the inner ear.

A

D. the ear drum to the inner ear.

101
Q

The function of the ciliary muscles in the eye is to
A. alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances
B. move the eye from left to right in the socket
C. move the eyelids to produce blinking
D. change the size of the pupil to vary the amount of light entering the eye

A

A. alter the shape of the lens to allow the eye to focus on objects at various distances

102
Q

When light passes through the lens it is brought to focus at the back of the eyeball on the
A. retina
B. optic nerve
C. cornea
D. iris

A

A. retina

103
Q

The two different types of light sensitive elements on the retina are classified as
A. rods which are sensitive to colour and cones which work best in dim light
B. cones which are sensitive to colour and rods which work best in dim light
C. rods and cones both of which respond equally to all lighting conditions
D. rods and cones both of which are responsible for colour vision

A

B. cones which are sensitive to colour and rods which work best in dim light

104
Q

The blind spot is
A. the area of the lens which is screened by the iris
B. the black spot in the centre of the coloured section of the eye
C. at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina
D. an area on the cornea which does not respond to light

A

C. at the junction of the optic nerve and the retina

105
Q

if a pilot whose eyes have fully adapted to darkness is exposed to a bright flash of light, the time required for dark adaptation to be re-established is most likely to be
A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes

A

D. 30 minutes

106
Q

Prolonged exposure to bright glare such as beach sand or snow can cause a significant reduction in night vision
for up to
A. 12 hours
B.one day
C. one week
D. one month

A

C. one week

107
Q

Empty Field Myopia is the tendency of the ciliary muscle to relax when there are no close obiects in the field of view. This causes the eye to take up a focal length of approximately
A. one to two metres
B. six metres
C. infinity
D. twenty-five metres

A

A. one to two metres

108
Q

The maximum distance at which a healthy eye in good lighting and contrast could identify a circle one metre in diameter is approximately
A. one kilometre
B. five kilometres
C. 2 nautical miles
D. five hundred metres

A

C. 2 nautical miles

109
Q

The perception of colour is a function of the
A. cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting
B. rods on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting
C. cones on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions
D. rods on the retina and is diminished in bright lighting conditions

A

A. cones on the retina and is diminished in dim ambient lighting

110
Q

In level flight, a collision risk exists if a converging aircraft viewed from your cockpit appears to be
A. on the horizon and maintaining a constant position in your windscreen
B. below the horizon and moving closer to the centre of your windscreen
C. on the horizon and moving away from the centre of your windscreen
D. on the horizon

A

A. on the horizon and maintaining a constant position in your windscreen

111
Q

The most effective way to scan the sky for other aircraft during level flight is to
A. move the head in a continuous are from side to side
B. keep the head still and move the eyes continuously from side to side
C. do not look anywhere but straight ahead unless you detect movement
D. move the head about 10° or 15° at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement [saccade/rest cycle]

A

D. move the head about 10° or 15° at a time, pausing after each movement to allow the peripheral vision to detect any movement [saccade/rest cycle]

112
Q

Night vision is enhanced by
A. looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view
B. fixing your gaze directly on the object you wish to view
C. ensuring that the cockpit remains brightly illuminated
D. drinking lots of carrot juice

A

A. looking slightly to one side of the object you wish to view

113
Q

After being exposed to normal lighting, dark adaptation (night vision] returns after a recovery period of about
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 2 minutes
D. 10 minutes

A

A. 30 minutes

114
Q

For a pilot who is exposed to a high glare environment while on the ground [beach sand or snow], which of the following would help to enhance night vision?
A. do not read small print within one hour of flying
B. wear good quality sunglasses during the day
C. avoid using contact lenses
D. keep the cockpit lighting as bright as possible until just before takeoff

A

B. wear good quality sunglasses during the day

115
Q

Night vision is extremely sensitive to any reduction of oxygen supply to the retina. The lowest level at which night vision starts to be affected is
A. 2000 ft
B. 4000 ft
C. 10 000 ft
D. 15 000 ft

A

B. 4000 ft

116
Q

The most effective method for scanning the sky for other aircraft is to move the head to scan small sectors allowing the eyes to stop regularly throughout the scan while focusing on the horizon
A. this statement is true
B. this statement is false

A

A. this statement is true

117
Q

What is the limit of resolution for a person with good vision at a distance of 2 nautical miles?
A. a circle with a diameter of .5 metres
B. a circle with a diameter of 1 metre
C. a circle with a diameter of 2 metres
D. a circle with a diameter of 3 metres

A

B. a circle with a diameter of 1 metre

118
Q

Which of the following eye problems is a natural consequence of ageing?
A. astigmatism
B. myopia
C. hyperopia
D. presbyopia

A

D. presbyopia

119
Q

In which of the following situations would a scratched and dirty windscreen have the most detrimental effect on the pilot’s forward vision during the day?
A. flying beneath a thick overcast of cloud
B. flying above a thick overcast of cloud
C. flying away from the setting sun
D. landing into a low sun

A

D. landing into a low sun

120
Q

Heavy rain may have the effect of making objects viewed through the windscreen appear
A. further away than they actually are
B. closer than they actually are
C. larger than they actually are
D. brighter than they actually are

A

A. further away than they actually are

121
Q

To avoid the possibility of the eyes taking up a resting focus position when flying in conditions without visual texture, it is recommended to
A. stare at the horizon
B. periodically look at an external aircraft fixture such as a wingtip
C. blink regularly
D. fixate at infinity

A

B. periodically look at an external aircraft fixture such as a wingtip

122
Q

To avoid an aircraft moving into the visual blind spot in a pilot’s field of view, it is recommended to
A. move the head as well as the eyes
B. move the eyes only
C. close one eye when scanning
D. not rely on see and avoid for separation

A

A. move the head as well as the eyes

123
Q

While night flying, the pilot of a passenger aircraft is exposed to the momentary flash of a match in the cabin. Full dark re-adaption will take
A. not more than 5 minutes
B. about 30 minutes
C. 10 to 15 minutes
D. at least an hour

A

B. about 30 minutes

124
Q

Flicker vertigo is a condition which may occur during flight in a helicopter due to the strobe effect of light through
he rotor disc. It may lead to
A. a feeling of excessive speed
B. disorientation
C. an over alert state of mind
D. a state of total relaxation

A

B. disorientation

125
Q

Night vision may be assisted by
A. avoiding dark rooms during the day
B. avoiding the use of sunglasses during the day
C. avoiding bright light during the day and wearing sunglasses
D. avoiding the use of a hat when out in bright sunshine

A

C. avoiding bright light during the day and wearing sunglasses

126
Q

Night vision is enhanced by looking slightly off centre. This is due to
A. the concentration of rods in the foveal periphery
B. the concentration of cones in the foveal periphery
C. the concentration of cones in the retinal periphery
D. the concentration of rods in the retinal periphery

A

A. the concentration of rods in the foveal periphery

127
Q

When scanning the horizon for traffic, the technique a pilot should use is to
A. move the head smoothly with pauses and many brief pauses between eye movements
B. move the head smoothly and continuously and many long pauses between eye movements
C. move the head smoothly with pauses with many long pauses between eye movements

A

A. move the head smoothly with pauses and many brief pauses between eye movements

128
Q

When visually scanning, the saccade/rest cycle duration is
A. 1 second
B. 0. 1 seconds
C. 0.3 seconds
D. 0. 7 seconds

A

C. 0.3 seconds

129
Q

The anatomical part of the eye which focuses the visual image onto the retina is the
A. Fovea
B. Iris
C. Lens
D. Maculus lutea

A

C. Lens

130
Q

The eye adapts to changes in ambient light intensity by adjusting
A. the iris to change the shape of the pupil and making chemical changes in the retina
B. the shape of the lens with the ciliary muscle
C. the cornea and the shape of the lens
D. the position of the rods and cones

A

A. the iris to change the shape of the pupil and making chemical changes in the retina

131
Q

Light is focused onto the retina by the action of
A. The lens only
B. The cornea only
C. The cornea and the lens
D. The cornea and the iris

A

C. The cornea and the lens

132
Q

The brain perceives the body’s orientation in space by
A. processing information from the eyes [visual cues]
D. processing information from the inner ear [vestibular cues]
C. processing information from the skeletal muscles and joints [postural cues]
D. combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues

A

D. combining and comparing visual, vestibular and postural cues

133
Q

In sensing the orientation of the body in space, the brain assigns the highest priority to information coming from
A. the eyes
B. the inner ear
C. the middle ear
D. the proprioceptive system

A

A. the eyes

134
Q

Which of the following is the most likely cause of disorientation?
A. a change in the information coming from the inner ear
B. a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues
C. poor lighting reducing the amount of visual information received
D. a rapid transition from level flight to a steep climb

A

B. a conflict or ambiguity in the information coming from visual, vestibular and postural cues

135
Q

In the absence of reliable visual information, which of the following states of motion would be most difficult to differentiate?
A. a steep turn and a rapid deceleration in level flight
B. a rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a dive
C. a rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb
D. a rapid deceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb

A

C. a rapid acceleration in level flight and a transition from level flight to a climb

136
Q

The most effective way to deal with an episode of disorientation in flight is to
A. keep a constant look-out for glimpses of the natural horizon outside
B. rely absolutely on the aircraft’s instruments
C. keep the control column central and maintain a constant power
D. disregard the instrument indications and fly by ‘feel’ until it passes

A

B. rely absolutely on the aircraft’s instruments

137
Q

“The leans’ is a state of disorientation which occurs when
A. the rate of onset of the initial bank angle is above the threshold of perception, but the rate of the pilot’s correction to a level attitude is below that threshold
B. the rate of onset of the initial bank angle is below the threshold of perception, and the rate of the pilot’s correction to a level attitude is also below that threshold
C. the rate of onset of the initial bank angle is below the threshold of perception, but the rate of the pilot’s correction to a level attitude is above that threshold
D. the rate of onset of the initial bank angle is above the threshold of perception, and the rate of the pilot’s correction to a level attitude is also above that threshold

A

C. the rate of onset of the initial bank angle is below the threshold of perception, but the rate of the pilot’s correction to a level attitude is above that threshold

138
Q

The Coriolis illusion can produce an unpleasant tumbling sensation. It is most likely to occur when
A. the head is turned rapidly from left to right during visual flight
B. the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight
C. a rapid deceleration occurs during level flight
D. an aircraft which has been in a shallow turn for some time rolls back to level flight

A

B. the head is bowed forward rapidly during instrument flight

139
Q

The somatogravic illusion [falsely identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb], is most likely to be encountered
A. during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually
B. just after the transition from instrument to visual flight
C. during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night
D. during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night

A

D. during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night

140
Q

When an aircraft is performing a prolonged shallow turn during instrument flight, a common illusion is
A. a sensation of being banked in the opposite direction when the wings are rolled back to the level attitude
B. a sensation of remaining banked in the turn when the wings are rolled back to the level attitude
C. a sensation of climbing when the wings are rolled back to the level attitude
D. a sensation of diving when the wings are rolled back to the level attitude

A

A. a sensation of being banked in the opposite direction when the wings are rolled back to the level attitude

141
Q

If a pilot who experiences the somatogravic illusion reacts to the associated false sensation, there would danger of the aircraft being flown back into the ground after takoff
A. the statement above is false
B. the statement above is true

A

B. the statement above is true

142
Q

Which of the following is true regarding perspective?
A. if two aircraft are in the field of view, the one which appears larger is always closest to the observer
B. if two aircraft are in the field of view, the one which appears closer to the horizon is always further away
C. any point which is on the horizon must be at the same height as the observer
D. if two aircraft in the field of view are at the same height, they will also appear to be the same distance above or below the horizon

A

C. any point which is on the horizon must be at the same height as the observer

143
Q

One illusion which may be experienced on a dark night approach to a very wide runway which is remote from street or town lighting is
A. the aircraft appears to be higher than it actually is during the flare prior to touchdown
B. the aircraft appears to be lower than it actually is during the flare prior to touchdown
C. the aircraft appears to be travelling faster than it actually is during the landing roll
D. the aircraft appears to be higher than it actually is during the approach

A

B. the aircraft appears to be lower than it actually is during the flare prior to touchdown

144
Q

One illusion which may be experienced on a dark night approach to a narrow runway which is remote from street or town lighting is
A. the aircraft appears to be higher than it actually is during the flare prior to touchdown
B. the aircraft appears to be lower than it actually is during the flare prior to touchdown
C. the aircraft appears to be travelling slower than it actually is during the landing roll
d]
the aircraft appears to be lower than it actually is during the approach

A

A. the aircraft appears to be higher than it actually is during the flare prior to touchdown

145
Q

You are making an approach by day into a runway where the terrain slopes up from the threshold of intended landing. The most likely misjudgment during this approach would be
A. an overestimate of your height above the runway threshold
B. an underestimate of your height above the runway threshold
C. an underestimate of your speed during the approach
D. an overestimate of the length of the runway

A

B. an underestimate of your height above the runway threshold

146
Q

During a constant angular acceleration in the yawing plane, the hair-like cells in the semicircular canals of the inner ear will be
A. deflected in the same direction as the turn
B. deflected in the opposite direction as the turn
C. in an upright position
D. waving to and fro

A

C. in an upright position

147
Q

Which of the following organs mediates the sense of balance?
A. eustachian tube
B. the eardrum
C. the semicircular canals
D. the cochlea

A

C. the semicircular canals

148
Q

The effects of vertigo may be reduced or eliminated by
A. rapidly scanning between the instruments and features on the ground
B. looking for the horizon when visibility is poor
C. concentrating on the artificial horizon only
D. scanning all of the instruments and ignoring any sensations that are not confirmed by instrument indications

A

D. scanning all of the instruments and ignoring any sensations that are not confirmed by instrument indications

149
Q

The susceptibility to disorientation is increased if the pilot is suffering from anxiety, stress or mental fatigue
A. this statement is false
B. this statement is true

A

B. this statement is true

150
Q

The proprioceptive system generates sensation from
A. the semicircular canals
B. the otolith
C. the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons
D. the skin

A

C. the skeletal muscles, joints and tendons

151
Q

The autokinetic illusion is responsible for
A. an isolated distant light appearing to move when stared at for a period of time
B. brightly lit towns appearing closer than they actually are on a dark night
C. a pilot rounding out too high when landing on a wide runway on a dark night
D. a pilot confusing acceleration on take-off for a steep climb

A

A. an isolated distant light appearing to move when stared at for a period of time

152
Q

When viewed from the cockpit of an aircraft, a small town which is approximately five nautical miles away will appear to be
A. closer than it actually is on a dark night
B. closer than it actually is in daylight
C. further away than it actually is on a dark night
D. further away than it actually is in daylight

A

A. closer than it actually is on a dark night

153
Q

The somatogravic illusion causes the pilot to think that
A. deceleration in a descent is level flight
B. deceleration in level flight is a climb
C. acceleration in a climb is level flight
D. acceleration in level flight is a climb

A

D. acceleration in level flight is a climb

154
Q

Quesiast gravic illusion (falsely identifying a level acceleration as a steep climb], is most likely to be encountered
A. during a go-around in a high performance aircraft when flying visually
B. just after the transition from instrument to visual flight
C. during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night
D. during and just after take-off in a high performance aircraft on a dark night

A

C. during an approach to a poorly lit runway on a dark night

Human Performance And Limitations (1 decks)

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