Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Metabolism, Endocrinology & Haematology > Revision > Flashcards

Revision Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two main stores of glycogen?

A

Muscle

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give an example of a cell type that can only use glucose as an energy source

A

RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which glucose transporter is found in the BBB?

A

GLUT3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The GLUT3 transporter is ________ dependent

A

concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the potential risk associated with using protein as an energy source?

How does the body deal with this?

A

Production of ammonia

Urea cycle- excretes as urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where does the bulk of ATP production occur?

A

The electron transport chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does the electron transport chain work to produce ATP?

A

Using the proton gradient to drive ATP synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Glycolysis can be split into which two phases?

A

Investment (uses glucose)

Payback (2ATP per glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In which situations would we use glycolysis as an energy source?

A

As a quick energy source (e.g. sprinting)

Anaerobic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which is the regulator enzyme of glycolysis?

What does it do?

A

Phosphofructokinase

Catalyses the reaction of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 1,6 bisphosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does PFK regulate glycolysis at the muscles and in the liver?

A

Muscles- allosteric (ATP,AMP)

Liver- hormonal (Insulin, glucagon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The main function of the citric acid cycle is the production of what?

A

NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What drives the electron transport down the ETC?

A

Reduction of NADH and FADH2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How would a protonophore act on the ETC?

Give an example of such.

A

Proton gradient dissipated through the protonophore

Energy is released as heat

Dinitrophenoyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of the brown adipose tissue in new born babies?

How does it achieve this?

A

Heat production:

Thermogenin

Uncoupling protein- harnesses the energy in the proton gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the important enzyme used in fatty acid activation?

A

Fatty acyl CoA synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are fatty acids tansported into mitochondria?

A

Carnitine shuttle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can the transport of FA into mitochondria be inhibited?

What is the function of this inhibition?

A

Malonyl CoA

Prevents newly synthesised FA from being immediately transported into mitochondira and oxidised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the useful products produced by FA oxidation?

A

NADH and FADH2 (for ETC)

Acetyl CoA (for citric acid cyle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

High levels of ketones in the blood can cause what condition?

A

Ketoacidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two main upstream effects of alcohol oxidation seen in chronic alcohol consumption?

A

Decrease in NAD+/NADH ratio

Increased Acetyl-CoA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What cellular defences are present to protect against ROS?

A

Superoxide Dismutase (SOD)

Catalase

Glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In RBCs the only source of NADPH is what?

A

Pentose phosphate pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ferrous iron is Fe___

Ferric iron is Fe___

A

Ferrous Fe2+

Ferric Fe3+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Where does iron absorption occur?
Duodenum Upper jejunum
26
Which form of iron can we absorb? Via which transporter?
Fe2+ (ferrous) DMT1
27
Conversion of Fe3+ to Fe2+ is aided by what?
Vitamin C
28
How is iron stored in the body once it has been absorbed?
Ferritin (Fe3+)
29
How do we transport iron out of the enterocyte? What protein inhbits this?
Ferroportin Hepcidin
30
Via what mechanism relating to iron transport can chronic inflammarion cause anaemia?
Production of Hepcidin which inhibits ferroportin and prevents iron from being released from enterocytes
31
A 60 year old presents with gradual onset lethargy. His GP arranges for some blood tests. Hb 83, wcc 3.5, plt 156, MCV 112, retics 10 Signs and symptoms? Possible causes?
Lethargy, SOB, headache Palor, tachycardia, tachypnoea, hypotension B12 deficiency, folate deficiency
32
Give some specific signs of anaemia
Koilonychia Glossitis (B12 def.) Angular stomatitis
33
What are the three locations of RBCs in which a problem ight occur that may cause anaemia?
Bone marrow Peripheral RBCs Removal
34
In which cases of anaemia are reticulocyte levels more likely to be high?
Problems with: Peripheral RBCs and removal of RBCs
35
In what conditions might a patient have anaemia with a LOW reticulocyte count?
Macrocytic anaemia (high MCV) Normocytic anaemia (normal MCV) Secondary bone marrow failure
36
In what conditions might a patient have anaemia with a HIGH reticulocyte count?
Microcytic anaemia (Low MCV)
37
List some causes of microcytic anaemia
Thalassaemia trait Anaemia of chronic disease (may be normocytic) Iron deficiency Lead poisoning Sideroblastic anaemia "TAILS"
38
A 40 year old woman presents to A+E with a one week history of shortness of breath and yellow sclera. She has a FBC taken: Hb 59, wcc 4.1, plt 378, retics 215 What are the possible causes of this presentation?
Bleeding Increased destruction of RBCs
39
A 40 year old woman presents to A+E with a one week history of shortness of breath and yellow sclera. She has a FBC taken: Hb 59, wcc 4.1, plt 378, retics 215 What would you want to ask in the history?
History of trauma Post-partum haemorrhage Bleeding history/Past medical history/Family history/Drug history
40
What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation?
Abnormal activation nof coagulation Small clots form in the small blood vessels and deposit fibrin leading to damage of the RBCs as they pass through = microangiopathies
41
What is autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
Autoantibodies bind to RBC membrane proteins RES cells recognise part of the Ab, attach to it and remove it from the RBC circulation
42
How can autoimmune haemolytic anaemia be broadly classified? What differentiates them?
Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (IgG, maximally active at 37◦ C) Cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (IgM, maximally active at 4◦ C)
43
44
A 40 year old woman presents to A+E with a one week history of shortness of breath and yellow sclera. She has a FBC taken: Hb 59, wcc 4.1, plt 378, retics 215 How would you further investigate this patient?
Examination inc palpating for splenomegaly Check ferritin/look for bleeding (OGD/colonoscopy etc..) Haemolysis screen – check LDH, bilirubin, blood film, also direct antiglobulin test (you will learn more about this later)
45
A 65 year old man has a routine FBC as part of a well man check. His past medical history includes COPD. Hb 194, wcc 6.7, plt 228, haematocrit 0.597 He asks you to explain his blood results...
Haematocrit/Packed cell volume(PCV) = Proportion of blood that is made up of RBC Haemoglobin = concentration in the blood i.e. amount of Hb mass/plasma volume Red cell count = Number of RBC in given volume of blood
46
What is mean cell volume (MCV)?
Mean size of RBC, measured using the amount of light scattered as they pass in a single file past a laser
47
What is red cell distribution width (RDW)?
Variation in the size of the RBC
48
What is mean cell haemoglobin (MCH)?
Average measure of the amount of Hb in each RBC (e.g. Hb/RCC)
49
What is the reticulocyte count? What units is it measured in?
Measurement of the number of young erythrocytes Identified using size and RNA content. x10^9/L
50
How is vitamin B12 acquired? What is required in order to absorb B12?
Diet Intrinsic factor (IF)
51
Which cells are responsible for the production of intrinsic factor? Where are they found?
Parietal cells Stomach
52
Where in the GI tract is B12 absorbed?
Terminal ileum
53
List some causes of low vitamin B12
Dietary deficiency Lack of IF= pericious anaemia Disease of the ileum (Crohn's, ileal resection) Lack of transcobalamin
54
How might folate deficiency occur?
Dietary deficiency Increased use (pregnancy, heamolytic anaemia) Disease of duodenum & jejunum Lack of methylTHF
55
Where is folate absorbed?
Duodenum & jejunum
56
Why do we try and avoid blood transfusion in patients with B12 deficiency?
Can cause fluid overload leading to cardiac failure
57
Which precursor moleculre is used to synthesise the hormones aldosterone, testosterone and progesterone?
Cholesterol
58
What effect does insulin have on hormone sensitive lipase?
Decrease in activity
59
Define the term anaemia?
A Hb concentration below the normal range for that patient dependent on age, sex and ethinicity
60
How does 2,3 Bisphosphate production aid with anaemia?
Shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right so that oxygen is more readily given up at tissues
61
Under normal conditions, what is the approximate lofiespan of RBCs in the circulatory system?
120 days
62
What is a sign of intravascular haemolysis?
Haemoglobinaemia (excess Hb in the blood) Raised MCV (reticulocytes larger than RBCs)
63
Briefly describe the pathophysiology of heriditary spherocytosis?
Increased RBC rigidity resulting in loss of function
64
In a pyruvate kinase deficiency what is the net gain of ATP from glycolysis?
0 ATPs
65
What is measured by a direct Coombs test?
Antibodies bound directly to RBC membrane
66
Which cellular process is most affected by folic acid deficiency?
DNA synthesis
67
What are megakaryocytes?
Precursors of platelets
68
Which neurotransmitter is relased from the primary neurones in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus to stimulate appetite?
Neuropeptide Y Agouti-related peptide (AgRP)
69
70
Which cell plays an imporant fole in recycling iron from old RBCs?
Macrophages
71
Which biochemical finding would you expect in a patient with acromegaly?
Raised IGF-1 production
72
Does parathyroid hormone has direct actions on the GI tract to increase the rate of calcium and phosphate absorption from food?
No, acts via the active form of vitamin D (calcitrol) (outdated- there is some evidence that it does act directly)
73
What effect would glucagon have on the enzyme glycogen synthase in the liver?
Decrease in activity- don't want to replenish glycogen stores as we need glucose
74
What happens to the serum TSH level in hyperthyroidism?
TSH decreases below the normal range | (loss of negative feedback)
75
At approx. what age does the switch of fetal to adult haemoglobin occur ?
3-6 months
76
Where is the hormone oxytocin synthesised? Where is this stored and released from?
Hypothalamus Posterior pituitary
77
What term describes abnormally shaped RBCs?
Poikilocytosis
78
What is the normal range for fasting blood glucose?
3.3-6.0mmol/L
79
TSH is released from where?
Anterior pituitary
80
What is the approximate net weight gain in pregnancy?
8kg
81
The units of MCV are usually stated in femtolitres (fL), how many femtolitres in a litre?
10^15
82
What is the half life of T4? What is the half life of T3?
About 5-7 days About 1 day
83
Which glucose transporter is the primary of glucose in pancreatic beta cells?
GLUT2

Metabolism, Endocrinology & Haematology (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions