Revision night Flashcards

(79 cards)

1
Q

What is the equation for MABP?

A

diastolic + 1/3 (systolic-diastolic)

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2
Q

What do cardio-selective beta blockers target?

A

Beta 1 receptors in the heart

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3
Q

What do non-cardio-selective beta blockers target?

A

both beta 1 and beta 2 receptors so are contraindicated in asthmatics

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4
Q

How often do you check the patient’s pulse in CPR?

A

if the patient starts moving

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5
Q

How many units of alcohol are recommended per week for men and women?

A

14 units for both

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6
Q

What happens to resistance as vessel radius decreases?

A

resistance increases

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7
Q

What is the first line treatment for SVT?

A

Valsalva manoeuvre to increase vagal tone

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8
Q

What does a narrow tachycardia suggest?

A

supraventricular

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9
Q

If you are unsure whether a tachycardia is VT or SVT, what is the recommended treatment?

A

IV adenosine because it with have no affect in VT but will help SVT as it blocks AV node conduction by slowing the ventricles

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10
Q

What is the difference in treatment for VF and sustained VT?

A

VF: cardioversion always required

sustained VT: patient can be cardioverted with amiodarone

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11
Q

What is a common cardiac disease risk score?

A

QRISK2

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12
Q

What is the CHA2DS2-VASc score for?

A

anti-coagulation

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13
Q

What can beta blockers be used to treat?

A
  • hypertension
  • heart failure
  • arrhythmias
  • angina
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14
Q

How do organic nitrates work?

A

vasorelaxation
arterial dilation
increased coronary blood flow

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15
Q

What is furosemide?

A

a thiazide diuretic drug used to treat only the symptoms but won’t cure the disease

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16
Q

What is a continuous machine-like murmur indicative of?

A

patent ductus arteriosus

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17
Q

What is an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the neck?

A

aortic stenosis

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18
Q

What is the main causative organism that IV drug users get with endocarditis?

A

Staph aureus

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19
Q

Which sided murmur is louder on inspiration and which is louder on expiration?

A

left sided is louder on expiration

right sided is louder on inspiration

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20
Q

Which type of diabetes is bad for your heart?

A

both type 1 and type 2

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21
Q

What is tertiary prevention of a disease?

A

reducing the incidence of chronic incapacity in those with symptomatic disease

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22
Q

What is primary prevention of a disease?

A

reducing the onset of disease

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23
Q

What is secondary prevention of a disease?

A

reducing the impact of disease that has already occured

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24
Q

Which side of the vertebral column does the azygous vein go?

A

it ascends to the SVC along the right side of the vertebral column

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25
Which factors of the coagulation cascade does Warfarin block?
2,7,9,10
26
Which factors of the coagulation cascade does Heparin block?
2, 10a
27
Which factors of the coagulation cascade does LMWH block?
10a
28
What type of pulse is seen in shock?
fast but weak
29
What is included in the Tetralogy of Fallot?
Pulmonary stenosis Right ventricular hypertrophy Overriding aorta Ventricular septal defect
30
What are two of the symptoms of AF?
SOB and palpitations
31
What condition gives delta waves on the ECG?
Wolf Parkinson White syndrome
32
What produces aldosterone?
angiotensin 2
33
What do surgeons use to identify the great vessels in the cardiopulmonary bypass?
transverse pericardial sinus
34
What does a low pansystolic murmur in a baby suggest?
ventricular septal defect
35
What do you use to treat an arterial ulcer?
antiplatelet
36
What do you use to treat a venous ulcer?
anticoagulant
37
What is the most common congenital cardiac malformation?
ventricular septal defect
38
Where do thiazide diuretics act?
distal tubule
39
What coronary arteries are affected if there is ST elevation in leads 1-4?
LAD of LCA
40
What murmur is pan systolic and radiates to the left axilla?
mitral regurgitation
41
Where do loop diuretics act?
ascending loop of Henle
42
When do you switch to a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone?
if potassium levels drop below 3.5
43
What is the main cause of the spontaneous pace maker potential that occurs in phase 4?
sodium and potassium influx from the funny current
44
What size does an aneurysm need to be to give EVAR?
mass greater than 5.5cm
45
What length is a normal PR interval?
0.12-0.2s
46
What is the length of a normal QRS?
less than 0.12s
47
What leads will have ST elevation if there is an occlusion of the right coronary artery?
2,3 and aVF
48
What is the feature on the ECG of third degree heart block?
no association between P waves and QRS complexes
49
What appearance does an ECG have for atrial flutter?
saw tooth with no T wave
50
What valve problem is most associated with rheumatic fever?
mitral stenosis
51
What is the main side effect of calcium channel blockers?
ankle oedema
52
What is a major side effect of statins?
myalgia
53
What are the symptoms of digoxin poisoning?
``` seeing yellow slurred speech dizziness confusion tachycardia loss of appetite ```
54
What was cardiomegaly due to?
left ventricular failure
55
What are signs of back pressure into the venous system?
peripheral oedema elevated JVP ascites
56
What is first line treatment for AF?
beta blocker
57
What does SV equal?
EDV - ESV
58
What is the dicrotic notch on a pressure cardiac cycle graph?
the little increase in pressure due to the closure of the aortic valves causing a vibration
59
What is the minimum MAP needed to perfuse the organs?
60
60
Where is ADH released?
posterior pituitary gland
61
What is used to listen stenosis or regurgitation?
``` stenosis = bell regurgitation = diaphragm ```
62
What is the best test for murmurs and endocarditis?
TTE echo
63
What is the blood test parameter for an MI?
Troponin
64
What are the times for each little or big square on the ECG?
``` little = 0.04s large = 0.2s ```
65
What are some added symptoms for MI over angina?
nausea sweating vomiting
66
What syndrome is getting pericarditis 6 weeks post-MI?
Dressler's
67
What is the mostly likely bug after dental surgery for endocarditis?
S. viridans
68
What are the HACEK organisms for endocarditis?
``` Haemophilus Aggregatibacter Cardiobacterium Eikenella Kingella ```
69
What are Osler's nodes and Janeway lesions a sign of?
infective endocarditis
70
What murmur has a slow rising pulse?
aortic stenosis
71
What do rheumatoid fever and AF suggest?
mitral stenosis
72
What are the main anticoagulant drugs?
Warfarin Heparin LMWH
73
What are anticoagulant drugs used to treat?
- DVT - post-op thrombosis - patients with artificial heart valves - AF
74
What does Warfarin target?
factors 2,7,9 and 10 and binds to hepatic vitamin K reductase
75
What does Heparin inhibit?
10a and 2a
76
What does LMWH inhibit?
10a
77
What are the most common antiplatelet drugs?
Aspirin Clopidogrel Tirofiban
78
What are antiplatelets used to treat?
arterial thrombosis
79
What do fibrinolytic drugs do?
open arteries in acute MI or stroke