Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

what is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

it is a autoimmune disease (associated with antibodies against rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP) resulting in synoviocytes and damaged joint spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe the pathophysiology behind rheumatoid arthritis?

A

citrullination of self antigens which are recognised by T and B cells which produce antibodies -> RF and anti-CCP
Stimulated macrophages and fibroblasts then release TNFalpha and inflammatory cascade leads to proliferation of synoviocytes (RA joint swelling) which grow over the cartilage and leads to restriction of nutrients
activated macrophages also stimulate osteoclast differentiation contributing to bone damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the typical history of a patient with RA?

A
usually female
30-50y/o
progressive, peripheral and symmetrical polyarthritis 
affects MCPs, PIPs, MTPs (sparing DIPS) 
history >6wks 
morning stiffness > 30 mins 
\+ fatigue, malaise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how would you examine clinically for diagnpsis pf RA?

A

soft tissue swelling and tenderness
ulnar deviation + palmar sublaxation of MCPs
swan neck and boutonniere deformities
rheumatoid nodules (espec at elbows)
check median nerve - carpal tunnel association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what investigations are done to diagnose RA?

A
  • RF and anti-CCP
  • FBC - normocytic anaemia (chronic disease), WCC is concerns re septic arthritis
  • inflammatory markers - elevated
  • xray changes in established disease, US/MRI in early disease
  • may need PFTs and HRCT chest is lung involvment (pulmonary ifbrosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the treatment for RA?

A
  • initially DMARD monotherapy - usually methotrexate or combo (leflunomide, hydroxychloroquine, sulfasalazine)
  • steroids
  • symptom control with NSAIDS if no contraindication
  • biologics (anti-TNFs life etanercept) - as last resort

(non drug - OT/PT, podiatry, psychological)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

name some extra articular manifestations of RA - using the 3Cs, 3As, 3Ps, 3Ss

A

3Cs - carpal tunnel syndrome, elevated cardiac risk, cord compression
3As - anemia, amyloidosis, arteritis
3Ps - pericarditis, pleural disease, pulmonary disease
3Ss - sjogrens, scleritis/episcleritis, splenic enlagrment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the xray features of RA?

A
  • Loss of joint space
  • Erosions
  • Soft tissue swelling
  • Sublaxation

LESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is osteoartheritis?

A

the most common type of arthritis - degenerative disorder with progressive loss of articular cartilage + new bone formation +capsular fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the causes of OA (physiology)?

A
  • failure of normal cartilage subject to abnormal or incongruous loading for long periods
  • damaged or defective cartilage failing under normal conditions of loading
  • break up of cartilage due to defective stiffened subchondral bone passing more load to it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are teh key features of cartilage in OA?

A
  • loss of elasticity with a reduced tensile strenght

- cellularity and proteoglycan content are reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are teh risk factors fo developing OA?

A
  • increases with AGE
  • gender - WOMEN
  • OBESITY
  • TRAUMA
  • FHx - for knee and hand OA

A Woman Of Traumatic History

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of OA?

A
  • hip, knee and spine most commonly affects
  • pain provoked by movement and weight bearing
  • intermittent at first , then constant
  • feeling of joint giving way
  • Heberdens and Bouchards nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what rae the key features of OA of xray?

A
  • loss of joint space
  • subchondral sclerosis
  • subchondral cysts
  • osteophytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is teh treatment for OA?

A

non drug:

  • strengthening and range of movement exercises
  • weight loss
  • laterally wedged insoles or walking stick

pharm:
- paracetamol
- NSAIDs
- topical rubefacients, capsaicin
- intraarticular corticosteroids

surgery:
- replacement of joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is fibromyalgia?

A

a common disorder of central pain processing characterised by chronic widespread pain in all 4 quadrants of body + allodynia present (heightened and painful response to innocuous stimuli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the pathogenesis of fibromyalgia

A

can be induced by deliberate sleep deprivation (reduced REM sleep and delta wave sleep) = hyperactivation in response to noxious stimualtion and neural activation in brain regions associated with pain perception in response to non painful stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are teh signs and symptoms of fibromyalgia?

A
  • joint/muscle stiffness
  • profond fatigue
  • unrefreshed sleep
  • numbness
  • headaches
  • IBD (bowel and bladder)
  • depression and anxiety
  • poor concentration and memory fibrofog

only physical abnormalities = tender points of muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the risk factors for developing fibromyalgia?

A
  • affecrs 5% of population
  • female:male = 9:1
  • peak onset 40-50
  • onset may have obvious trigger e.g. emotional or physical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the treatment for fibromyalgia?

A
  • specifically based on symptoms e.g. depression, fatigue, sleep disturbance
  • drug treatment: low dose amitrypytline (or pregabalin)
  • CBT also effective
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is osteoporosis?

A

skeletal condition characterised by low bone mass, deterioration of bone tissue and architecture = compromised bone strength bone strenght and increased fracture risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the risk factors for osteroporosis?

A

non modifiable:

  • advanced age
  • female
  • caucasian
  • FHx
  • Hx of low trauma fracture

modifiable:
- Low BMI
- premature menopaus e
- calcium/vit D deficiency
- inadequate physical activity
- smoking
- XS alcohol
- iatrogenic e.g. corticosteroids, aromatase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how is the diagnosis of osteroporosis made?

A
  • dual energy xray absorptiometry (DEXA) of lumbar spine and hip
  • T score (bone density for age and gender compared to same gender at age of peak density - 25y/o) < 2.5 = osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the treatment of osteopenia and osteroporosis?

A

risk modification in osteopenia : weight bearing exercises, Vit D supplementation, reduced alcohol, smoking cessation, dietary advice about calcium intake + supplements

osteoporosis: vit D and calcium supplementation + oral bisphosphonates (+ denosumab or teriparatide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

name some secondary cuases of osteoporosis?

A
coeliac disease
eating disorders
hyperparathyroidism 
hyperthyroidism 
mutliple myeloma can cause low BMD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is gout?

A

gout is an inflammatory arthritis related to hyperuricemia (occurs in ‘flares’ not constantly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the common joint affected by gout?

A

1st metatarsophalangeal joint is teh most common joint involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how does gout occur?

A

hyperuricaemia and deposition of monosodium urate (MSU) that accumulate in joints and soft tissues result in acute and chronic arthritis, soft tissue masses called tophi, urate nephropathy and uric acid nephrolithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the risk factors for gout?

A

non modifiable factors:

  • age >40yrs
  • male

modifiable risk factors:

  • increased purine uptake (seafood adn meats)
  • alchohol intake
  • high fructose intake
  • obesity
  • CHF
  • CAD (coronary artery disease)
  • dyslipidaemia
  • renal disease
  • organ transplant
  • HTN
  • smoking
  • diabetes
  • urate elevating medicating (diuretics)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how is gout treated?

A

treat acute attacks and prevent recurrent disease

general prevention:

  • maintain optimal weight
  • exercise
  • diet modification
  • reduce alchohol
  • smoking cessation
  • maintain high fluid intake

medications:
- NSAIDS, oral/IM steroids, colchicine (FIRST LINE)
- in chronic cases: urate lowering therapy (ULTs) needed: allopurinol and febuxostat (xanthine oxidase inhibitors reducing urate formation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is lupus?

A

an autoimmune disease (with antibodies to certain cell nucleus components) leading to inadequate T cell suppressor activity with increased B cell activity
= complex multisystem disease characterised by remissions and flares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are teh common symptoms and signs of lupus?

Use SOAPBRAIN

A

Serositis - pleurisy, pericarditis
Oral ulcers
Arthritis
Photosensitivity - or malar/discoid rash
Blood disorders - Low WCC, lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anaemia
Renal involvement - glomerulonephritis
Autoantibodies -(ANA positive in >90%)
Immunologic tests - low complements
Neurologic disorders - seizures or psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what investigations need to be done to diagnose lupus?

A
  • FBC: raised ESR, raised plasma viscosity , anaemia and leukopenia common
  • 95% ANA +ve
  • ANti-Ro and Anti-La common
  • anti-dsDNA
  • antiphospholipid antibodies increase the risk of pregnancy loss and thrombosis
  • urinalysis for renal disease!
  • skin biopsy and renal biopsy can be diagnostic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the treatment for lupus?

A
  • sun protection
  • advice on healthy lifestyle in view of cardiovascular risk
  • hydroxychloroquine is helpful for rash and arthralgia
  • mycophenolate mofetil, azathioprine and rituximab
  • short course predinisolone for flares
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is raynauds phenomenon?

A

a condition due to vasospasm of the digits - painful anf characterised by tupical sequence of colour chnages in response to cold stimulus - also precipitated by stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what triggers raynauds?

A

cold and stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the difference between raynauds phenomenon and syndrome

A

syndrome = idiopathic raynauds phenomenon
raynauds syndrome is common in young females and may improve as they get older (may be familial)
treatment - avoid smoking + keep warm

38
Q

what diseases are associated with raynauds phenomenon?

A

raynauds symptoms developing over age 30 = underlying disease
abnormal nail fold capillaries or puffy fingers or photosensitive rash = rhuematic cause
associated with:
- scleroderma
- SLE
- dermatomyositis and polymyositis
- sjogrens syndromes

physical cuaseS:

  • use of heavy vibrating tools
  • cervical rib
  • sticky blood e.g. cryoglbulinaemia

drug induced: beta blockers

39
Q

what si teh treatment for raynauds?

A
  • keep wamr
  • avoid smoking
  • CCB - 1st line
  • phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors
  • prostacyclins usually effective
40
Q

what are complications of Raynauds phenomenon?

A
  • digital ulcers
  • severe digital ischameia
  • infection
41
Q

how long do raynauds phenomenon episodes last?

A

last minutes but id there is an underlyign disease then can last hours (and pattern often asymmetrical)

42
Q

What is vasculitis?

A

an inflammatory blood vessel disorder causing damage of blood vessel walls with subsequent thrombosis, ischaemia, bleeding and/or aneurysm formation

43
Q

how is a diagnosis through a Hx made of vasculitis?

A

symptoms: fever, weight loss, malaise, fatigue, diminished appetite, sweats
‘glove and sweater approach’
- raynauds?
- MSK: arthralgia, myalgia, proximal muscle weakness
- CNS/PNS: headache, visual loss, tinnitus, stroke, seizure, encephalopathy
- nose bleeds, crusts, ulcers
- heart/lungs: pericarditis, cough, chest pain, heamopytsis, dyspnoea
- GI: abdo pain
- renal: heamaturia
- limbs: neuropathy, digital ulcers/ischaemia

DHx
FHx of vasculitis
age/gender/ethnicity

44
Q

what signs in a physical exam are present in a diagnosis of vasculitis?

A

vital signs: BP raised, pulse
ski: palpalble purpura, livedo reticularis, nodules, digital ulcers, gangrene, nail bed capillary changes
neurologic: cranial nerve exam, sensorimotor exam
ocular exam: visual fields, scelritis, uveitis, epislceritis
cardiopulmonary exam: crackles, pleural rub murmurs, arrythmias
abdo exma: tenderness, organomegaly

45
Q

name the primary vasculitides?

A
  1. small vessel vasculitis: microscopic polyangitis (MPA), granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis (EGPA), IgA vasculitis
  2. medium vessel vasculitis: polyarteritis nodosa (PAN), kawasaki disease (KD)
  3. large vessel vasculitis: takayasu arteritis (TAK), giant cell arteritis (GCA)
46
Q

what can vasculitis occur secondary to?

A
  • infections
  • drugs
  • malignancy
  • connective tissue disease
47
Q

what diagnostic tests are done to diagnose vasculitis?

A
  • urine dipstick +/- microscopy are needed to identify underlying glomerulonephritis
  • FBC, U&Es, LFTs, CRP, PV, ESR
  • ANA, ANCA, RF
  • Complements C3 &C4
  • hep screening for B and C, HIV
  • cryoglobulins
  • serum and urine protein electrophoresis
  • CK, blood cultures, ECG
  • CXR, CT, MRI, ateriography, and CT-PET to determine organ involvement
48
Q

what is the treatment for vasculitis?

A
  • rule out infection, stop offending drugs in secondary causes

1st line: corticosteroids
2nd line: cytotoxic medications, immunomodulatory or biologic agents (e.g. methotrexate, azathiprine, mycophenolate mofetil, rituximab, cyclophosphomide)

49
Q

what is hypermobolity spectrum disorder?

A

a pain syndrome in people with joints that move beyond normal limits - is due to laxity of ligaments, capsules an d tendons (origin may be microtrauma)

50
Q

who gets hypermobility spectrum disorder?

A

10% of popn
often familial
mroe common in women and asian people
usually presents in childhood

51
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of hypermobility spectrum disorder?

A

pain around joints, worsened with activity, with fatigue

  • soft tissue rheumatism
  • abnormals skin: hyperextensible, thin, striae
  • marfanoid habitus
  • arachnodactyly
  • drooping eyelids, myopia
  • hernias and uterine/rectal prolapse
  • recurrent sublaxations or dislocations
52
Q

what si teh treatment for hypermobility spectrum syndrome?

A
imrpove pain (paracetamol) and reduce disability
strenghtening exercises to reduce joint sublaxation 
work on posture and balance 
splinting and possible surgical interventions
53
Q

what is sjogrens syndrome?

A

chronic autoimmune inflammatory disorder characterised by diminished lacrimal and salivary gland secretion
(80% are women )

54
Q

what is secondary from of sjogresn sydnrome associated with?

A

udnerlying rheumatic disease

55
Q

what are teh common signs and symptoms of sjogrens syndrome? (MADFRED)

A
Myalgia 
Arthralgia 
Dry mouth 
Fatigue 
Raynauds phenomenon 
Enlarged parotids 
Dry eyes
56
Q

what are the investgiations done to diagnose sjogrens syndrome?

A

anti ro and anti la antiboides (90% of patients)
RF and anti dsDNA antibodies
Schirmers test - measures tear volume
salivary gland biopsy may be needed

57
Q

what is the treatment for sjogrens syndrome?

A

avoid dry or smoky atmospheres
dry eyes - artifical tears
dry mouth - artifical saliva, sugar free gum
skin emollients, vaginal lubricants
immunosuppressants/steroids (RARELY needed)

58
Q

what is GCA?

A

giant cell arteritis is a chronic vasculitis of alrge and medium sized vessels (most commonly arteries form arch of aorta) that occurs in people >50y/o (often referred to as temporal arteritis)

59
Q

symptoms of GCA?

A
  • headache (70%)
  • localised, unilateral, boring, lancinating in quality over the temple
  • tongue or jaw claudication upon mastication
  • visual findings include amaurosis fugax, blindness, diplopia and blurring (occlusive arteritis can result in anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy and acute visual loss)
  • scalp tenderness over temporal artery
60
Q

what are the risk factors for GCA?

A
  • age
  • increased prevalence in northern latitude
  • women (x2-4 more common)
  • common in white people
  • strong association with polymyalgia rheumatica (50%)
  • genetic predisposition: HLA-DR4
61
Q

how is a diagnosis of GCA made?

A

presence of any 2 or more of the following in patients >50y/o with:

  • raised ESR, CRP or PV
  • new onset of localised headache
  • tenderness and decreased pulsation of temporal artery
  • new visual symptoms
  • biopsy revealing necrotising arteritis
62
Q

how is GCA treated?

A
  • prednisolone 60-100mg PO per day for 2 wks then taper down
  • fro acute visual symptoms, consider 1g methylprednisolone IV pulse therapy fro 1-3 days
  • low dose aspirin therapy to reduce thrombotic risks
63
Q

what is polymyalgia rhuematica?

A

clinical syndrome characterised by pain and stiffness of the shoulder, hip girdles and neck
impacts elderly, associated with mornign stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers

64
Q

who is usually affected by polymyalgia rheumatica?

A
  • increases with age
  • average onest age >70y/o
  • is associated with GCA
65
Q

what are teh symptoms of polymyalgia rheumatica?

A
  • new sudden onset or proximal limb pain and stiffness (neck, shoulders, hips)
  • difficulty rising from chair or combing hair
  • nigth time pain
  • morning stiffness
  • systemic symptoms around 25% (fatigeu, weight loss, low grade fever)
  • decreased range of motion of shoulders, hip and neck
  • muscle strength is usually normal - may be limited by pain or stiffness
  • muscle tenderness
66
Q

how is the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica made?

A

Hx and exam supported by finding raised inflammtory amrkers
check ESR or PV as well as CRP
consider temporal arteyr biopsy if symptoms of GCA

67
Q

what is the treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

prednisolone 15mg daily then tapered slowly

methotrexate can be steroid sparing in relapsing patietns

68
Q

what is systemic sclerosis?

A

multisystem autoimmune disease
increased fibroblast activity resulting in abnormal growth of connective tissue which leads to vascular damage and fibrosis
2 types: limited SSc and diffuse SSc

69
Q

what are the common signs and symptoms of limited SSc? (CREST)

A
usually many yrs of raynauds symptoms before scleroderma 
Calcinosis cutis 
Raynauds phenomenon 
Eosophageal dysmobility 
Sclerodactyly
Telangioectasia
70
Q

what are the common signs and symtpoms of diffuse SSc?

A

less common and higher risk of mortality

characterised by sudden onset of skin involvment, and is proximal to elbows and knees

71
Q

what investigations are doen to diagnose SSc?

A

inflammatory markers usually normal !
XR hands - calcinosis
CXR, HRCT, PFT - pulmonary disease
ECG and ECHO - PA HTN, heart failure, myocarditis and arrythmias
antibodies:
- ANA +ve (90%)
- anti-centromere antibody (limited SSc)
- Scl-70 and anti RNA polymerase III antibodies (diffuse SSc)

72
Q

what is the treatment for SSc?

A
  • no cure
  • psychological support may be needed
  • calcium antagonist for raynauds
  • methotreaxate and mycophenolate mofetil may reduce skin thickening
  • ACEi prevent hypertensive crisis and reduce mortality from renal failure
  • short courses of prednisolone for flares
  • PPI for GI symptoms
73
Q

what are the spondyloarthropathies?

A
these are a group of conditions that affect teh spine and peripheral joints and are associated with the presence of HLA-B27 
they comprise: 
- ankylosing sponylitis 
- enteropathic arthritis 
- psoriatic arthritis 
- reactive arthritis
74
Q

what are the common clinical features of spondyloarthropathies?

A
  • sacroiliac disease (back/buttock pain)
  • inflammatory arthropathy of peripheral joints
  • enthesitis (inflammation at tendon insertions)
  • extra-articular features (skin/eye/gut)
75
Q

describe presentation of ankylosing spondylitis.

A

usually in young men (teens - mid thirties)

presentation with bilat buttock pain, chest wall and thoracic pain

76
Q

what examination + investigatiosn is done to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis?

A

often normal at first
then later: loss of lumbar lordosis, exaggerated thoracic kyphosis, schobers test +ve, reduced chest expansion

CRP maybe raised, MRI spine and SI joints

77
Q

what treatment is needed for ankylosing spondylitis?

A

NSAIDs and physio, TNF inhibitors, IL-17 inhibitors

78
Q

what typical exam findings are found on patients with psoariativ arthritis?

A
  • psoriasis (10%)
  • oligo-arthritis with dactylitis or ‘sausage’ digit
  • symmetrical or monoarthritis
79
Q

what ivnestgiations are done to diagnose psoriatic arthritis

A

CRP often raised

central joint erosions seen early on MRI leading to ‘pencil in a cup’ XR sign

80
Q

what is the treatment for psoriatic arthritis?

A

NSAIDd, DMARDs, TNF inhibitors, IL-17 inhibitors, IL 12/23 inhibitors

81
Q

what is the presentation for reactive arthritis?

A

few days - 2 weeks post infection, acute asymmetrical lower limb arthritis develops
infection usually post dysentery (salmonella /shigella /campylobacter) or post urethritis/cervicitis (chlamydia trachomatis)
skin - circinate balanitis, keratoderma blennorrhagica
eye - conjunctivitis, uveitis
enthesitis

82
Q

what investigations are done to diagnose reactive arthritis ?

A

serology/microbiology
inflammatory markers raised
joint aspirate to rule out septic/crystal arthritis

83
Q

what is the treatment for reactive arthritis?

A

treat infection - ABX
NSAIDs and joint injections
those that do no resolve within 2 yrs -> need DMARDs

84
Q

what are teh two different types of periheral disease in enteropathic arthritis?

A

type 1 - oligoarticualr, asymmetric and has a correlation with IBD flares
type 2 - polyarticular symmetrical and less correlation with IBD flares

(10-20% of those with IBD develop athropathy)

85
Q

what % of patients with enteropathic arthritis develop peripheral disease and axial disease?

A

2/3 peripheral disease

1/3 axial disease

86
Q

what si teh treatment for enteropathic arthropath?

A

NSAIDs may flare IBD so consider DMARDs

TNF inhibitors will treat both bowel disease and arthritis

87
Q

what are the extra articualr manifestations of ankylosing spondylitis? (ALL the As)

A
Anterior uveitis
Aortic incompetence
AV block 
Apical lung fibrosis 
Amyloidosis
88
Q

what are teh features of inflammatory back pain? (IPAIN)

A
Insidious onset 
Pain at night 
Age at onset <40
Improvement with exercise 
No improvement with rest
89
Q

what are dermomyositis and polymyositis?

A

rare idiopathic muscle diseases that are characterised by inflammation of striated muscle
peak onset 40-50 y/o

90
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of dermomyositis and polymyositis?

A

insidious onset of muscle proximal weakness, often painless

SOB, rash, raynauds

91
Q

what are the ivnestgiations to diagnose dermomyositis and polymyositis?

A
some have raised inflammatory markers 
FBC usually normal 
kidney not affected 
rasied ALT (from muscle) 
80% ANA +ve 
myositis seen on MRI
92
Q

what is the treatment for dermomyosisit and polymyositis?

A

high dose corticosteroids
inflammatory markers and CK used to monitor disease
repeat EMG studies/MRI or biopsy may be needed
long term control - methotrexate or azathioprine (or rituximab or IV immunoglobulin)