Rheumatology Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

What is the first-line treatment for osteoporosis?

A

A bisphosphonate, alendronic acid with calcium and vitamin D supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is calcitriol?

A

The man-made, active form of vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Behcet’s disease?

A

Auto-immune mediated inflammation of the arteries and veins i.e. systemic vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the classic triad of Behcet’s disease?

A

Oral ulcers, genital ulcers and anterior uveitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the treatment for Behcet’s disease?

A

Symptom management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the classic epidemiology of Behcet’s disease?

A
  • Common in eastern Mediterranean
  • More common and severe in men
  • Affects younger adults 20-40
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the classic preceding events before reactive arthritis?

A
  • History of gastrointestinal or genitourinary infection

- Infection in the last 1-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the presenting features of reactive arthritis?

A
  • Fever
  • Arthritis
  • Enthesitis (inflammation where tendons insert into bones)
  • Conjunctivitis and iritis
  • Skin lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What joins are usually affected in reactive arthritis?

A

Large joints of the lower limb, tend to be asymmetrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the treatment for reactive arthritis?

A

NSAIDs and corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is rheumatic fever?

A

An autoimmune condition that affects the heart, joints, muscles, skin and brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the cause of rheumatic fever?

A

Group A streptococcal throat infection e.g. Streptococcus pyogenes in the last 2-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the major diagnostic criteria for rheumatic fever?

A
  • Erythema marginatum
  • Chorea
  • Polyarthritis
  • Carditis
  • Subcutaneous nodules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the cause of chronic rheumatic heart disease?

A

Chronic changes to heart valves as a result of carditis seen in rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the treatment for rheumatic fever?

A

IM antibiotics (benzathine benzylpenicillin, erythromycin in pen allergic) and symptom management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the key diagnostic factors for rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Active symmetrical arthritis lasting >6 weeks
  • Age 50-55
  • Female
  • Joint pain and swelling
  • Morning stiffness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What joints are commonly affected in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

MCP, PIP and MTP joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the investigations for suspected RA?

A
  • Rheumatoid factor (+ve in 60-70%)

- Anti-CCP (anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody) (+ve in 70%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the treatment for mild RA in patients not planning pregnancy?

A

DMARD e.g. hydroxychloroquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a DMARD?

A

Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the primary treatment option for patients with RA that are pregnant or planning a pregnancy?

A

Prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the treatment for poorly controlled RA?

A

Methotrexate plus biological agent or DMARD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How are flares of rheumatoid arthritis managed?

A

With oral or IM corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What can be used to monitor SLE flares?

A

Complement - they are usually low during active disease

25
What are the classic signs and symptoms of SLE?
- Malar (butterfly) rash - Photosensitive rash - Discoid rash - Mouth ulcers - Fatigue - Arthralgia - Unexplained fever
26
99% of patients with SLE are ___ ________.
ANA positive
27
What blood results would you see in patients suspected of having SLE?
- Anaemia - Leukopenia - Thrombocytopenia - Elevated urea, creatinine ESR and CRP - Positive ANA
28
What is the treatment of choice for SLE?
Hydroxychloroquine
29
What is the first line treatment for SLE patients with lupus nephritis?
Induction therapy, hydroxychloroquine and corticosteroids e.g. cyclophosphamide and prednisolone
30
What is gout characterised by?
Acute onset of severe joint pain, with swelling, effusion, warmth, erythema, and or tenderness of the involved joint(s).
31
What is the difference between gout and pseudogout when analysing the synovial fluid?
Gout = strongly negative birefringent needle-shaped crystals under polarised light Pseudogout = positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals under polarised light
32
The joint most affected (70% of cases) in gout is the _____ ___ joint. However, the _____, _______, ______, _____, _____ and _____ are also commonly affected.
First MTP Foot, ankle, knee, fingers, wrist and elbow
33
What are strong risk factors for gout?
- Male sex - Older age - Post-menopausal - High consumption of meat, seafood and alcohol - Use of diuretics, ciclosporin and pyrazinamide
34
What is the cause of gout?
Chronic hyperuricaemia (uric acid > 0.45 mmol/l)
35
What is the first-line treatment for acute gout?
NSAID plus corticosteroid plus colchicine
36
What is the first-line treatment for recurrent gout 2-3 weeks post acute episode?
Allopurinol and suppressive therapy (NSAID or low dose colchicine)
37
What is allopurinol?
Urate-lowering therapy used to treat gout
38
What is pseudogout also known as?
Calcium pyrophosphate arthritis (CPP)
39
The prevalence of CPP _______ with each decade after the age of __ years.
Doubles 60
40
What are the strong risk factors for pseudogout?
- Old age - Injury new or previous to joints - Hyperparathyroidism - Hemochromatosis - Hypomagnesemia - Hypophosphatasia
41
What is the first-line treatment for pseudogout?
Intra-articular corticosteroids (preferably triamcinolone hexacetonide) with paracetamol
42
What is the first-line treatment for pseudogout when injections are not possible/tolerated?
NSAIDs
43
What type of arthritis is psoriatic arthritis?
Seronegative inflammatory spondyloarthropathy
44
What are the key differences seen in psoriatic arthritis that differentiates it from rheumatoid arthritis?
- Mono- or oligoarticular - DIP joint involvement - Dactylitis - Sacroiliitis - History of psoriasis - Nail changes (pitting)
45
What is the treatment for psoriatic arthritis?
A combination of DMARDs, NAIDS, physiotherapy and intra-articular corticosteroid injections
46
What are patients with psoriatic arthritis at increased risk of?
Myocardial infarction, angina, and hypertension
47
Regard a hot, swollen, acutely painful joint with restriction of movement as ______ ________ until proven otherwise, even in the absence of fever and irrespective of microbiology and blood test results.
Septic arthritis
48
What are the most common organisms seen in septic arthritis?
Staphylococci or streptococci
49
What tests should you do on the synovial fluid of a patient with suspected septic arthritis?
- Fluid microscopy - Gram stain - Polarising microscopy - Culture and sensitivities - White cell count
50
Should you aspirate a joint suspected of being infected before or after starting antibiotic therapy?
Before unless more urgent treatment is indicated
51
What is your management for a suspected infection in prosthetic joint(s) and why?
Refer to orthopaedics because aspiration needs to be done in a sterile operating theatre environment
52
What is the treatment for septic arthritis in an accessible joint with no systemic involvement?
- Empirical IV antibiotics e.g. flucloxacillin/clindamycin - Aspirate the joint to dryness - Analgesia
53
What is the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults who are sexually active?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
54
What is Sjögren's syndrome?
An autoimmune disease characterised by dry eyes and dry mouth (xerostomia) as a consequence of lymphocytic infiltration into lacrimal and salivary glands
55
What antibodies are associated with Sjögren's syndrome?
- ANA - Anti-60 kD (SS-A) Ro - Anti-La auto-antibodies
56
What is polymyalgia rheumatica characterised by?
Pain and morning stiffness in the neck, shoulder girdle and/or pelvic girdle. There is also a rapid response (24-72 hours) to corticosteroids.
57
What condition is polymyalgia rheumatica associated with?
Giant cell arteritis
58
What are the pathological changes seen in bursitis?
- Synovial thickening - Bursal adhesions - Villus formation - Tags - Deposition of chalky deposits