Rheumatology Flashcards

(343 cards)

1
Q

What are some causes of acute monoarthritis?

A

Infection - Staph Aureus/ Streptococcus

Crystal - Gout, Pseudogout

Trauma - Haemarthrosis

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2
Q

What are some causes of chronic monoarthritis?

A

Infective - TB infection

Inflammatory -
Psoriatic Arthritis
Reactive Arthritis
Foreign body

Non-inflammatory -
Osteoathritis
Trauma e.g meniscal tear
Osteonecrosis
Neuropathic e.g Charcot’s

Tumour

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3
Q

What are some causes of acute polyarthritis?

A

Inflammatory -
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Psoriatic Arthritis
Reactive Arthritis

Autoimmune - SLE, Vasculitis

Viral - HIV, Parvovirus , Chikungunya

Crystal - Uncontrolled Gout

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4
Q

What are some causes of chronic ( >3 months ) polyarthritis?

A

Inflammatory - RA, PsA, Reactive Arthritis

Autoimmune - SLE, Vasculitis

Crystal - Uncontrolled Gout

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5
Q

What are some causes of arthritis in the DIPJs ?

A

Psoriatic Arthritis - nail dystrophy on affected digit

Osteoarthritis - most common ( Heberden’s nodes )

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6
Q

If stiffness in the morning lasts longer than 30 minutes what is it likely to be caused by?

A

Inflammatory Arthritis
e.g Rheumatoid Arthritis or Psoriatic Arthritis

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7
Q

WHat is spinal stiffness in the early hours of the morning indicative of?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

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8
Q

In what condition is “ Inactivity Gelling” common in?

A

Osteoarthritis

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9
Q

What conditions do you get dry mouth and/or eyes in?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome
Rheumatoid Arthritis

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10
Q

What conditions do you get mouth ulcers in?

A

SLE
Reactive Arthritis
IBD

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11
Q

What condition do you get Iritis in?

A

Spondyloarthropathies

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12
Q

What conditions do you get Scleritis in?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis ( GPA )

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13
Q

What conditions do you get visual disturbance in?

A

Giant Cell Arteritis ( Temporal Arteritis )
SLE ( retinal vasculitis )

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14
Q

What condition do you get Psoriatic plaques and dystrophic nails in?

A

Psoriatic Arthritis

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15
Q

What conditions do you get Raynaud’s Phenomenon?

A

SLE
Sjogren’s Syndrome
Scleroderma

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16
Q

What conditions do you get Telangiectasis, Calcinosis and Sclerodactyly in?

A

Scleroderma

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17
Q

What is Telangiectasis ?

A

Dilation of capillaries causing them to appear as small red or purple clusters

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18
Q

What is calcinosis?

A

Deposits of calcium in subcutaneous tissue, muscles and visceral organs

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19
Q

What is Sclerodactyly?

A

Localized thickening and tightness of the finger skin that cause a claw like appearance and loss of mobility

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20
Q

What deformities occur in Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Swan-neck deformity
Boutonniere deformity
Rheumatoid nodules

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21
Q

In what condition do you get Tophi in?

A

Gout

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22
Q

What are tophi?

A

Deposits of monosodium urate crystals under the skin

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23
Q

In what conditions do you get digital ulcers?

A

SLE
Vasculitis
Scleroderma

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24
Q

In what condition do you get malae rash and photosensitivity?

A

SLE

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25
In what condition do you get Erythema Nodosum?
Acute Sarcoidosis TB Streptococcal infections
26
What is Erythema Nodosum?
Tender red bumps, usually found symmetrically on the shins
27
In what condition do you get Livedo Reticularis?
SLE
28
What is Livedo Reticularis?
Netlike pattern of reddish-blue discolouration , looks like mottled skin
29
In what autoimmune condition do you get alopecia?
SLE
30
What is alopecia?
Immune system attacks hair follicles leading to bald patches
31
In what conditions can you get Renal Failure and Hypertension?
SLE Vasculitis
32
In what condition can you get renal stones?
Gout
33
In what conditions can you get Microscopic haematuria +/- proetinuria?
SLE Vasculitis
34
In what condition do you get vaginal/urethral discharge?
Reactive or Gonococcal Arthritis
35
In what condition are you more prone to miscarriages and Pre-Eclampsia ?
SLE
36
In what condition do patients present with headaches?
Giant Cell Arteritis
37
What neurological symptoms are you more likely to get with SLE?
Seizures Headaches Psychosis TIA/CVA
38
What neurological symptoms can patients with Vasculitis have?
Seizures Mononeuritis Multiplex
39
What in Mononeuritis Multiplex?
A type of peripheral neuropathy when there is damage to at least two different areas of the peripheral nervous system. Can cause tingling, numbness, pain and paralysis.
40
What symptom affecting nerves can a patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis present with?
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
41
What are the tests to see if a patient has Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Tinel's Test Phalen's Test
42
What is Tinel's Test?
Gently tap over the wrist just below the palm Positive test = if patient feels a tingling , burning or numb sensation in thumb, index, middle and ring fingers
43
What is Phalen's Test
Ask patient to place the backs of their hands together at 90 degree angle for 60 seconds Positive test = tingling, burning or numb sensation in thumb, index, middle and ring fingers
44
What is Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Compression of the median nerve as it traverses through the wrist via the carpal tunnel Symptoms are pain and paresthesia in the median nerve distribution ( thumb, index, middle and lateral half of ring finger ) Grip weakness can also develop as median nerve supplies thenar muscles
45
Which condition presents with peripheral neuropathy?
Polymyositis
46
What respiratory conditions can SLE present with?
Pleural Effusion Pericardial Effusion Alveolitis Pulmonary Hypertension Pleuritic Chest Pain
47
What Respiratory conditions can Rheumatoid Arthritis cause?
Pleural Effusion Alveolitis
48
What respiratory conditions/symptoms can Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis causes?
Pulmonary Infiltration Haemoptysis Sinusitis
49
What respiratory condition can Scleroderma present with?
Pulmonary Hypertension
50
What respiratory symptom can Churg-Straus syndrome ( Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis) present with?
Wheeze
51
What is Churg-Strauss Syndrome?
Also known as Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis Inflammatory disease of small and medium sized blood vessels. Has very high Eosinophil count
52
What is high on an FBC count with Churg-Strauss Sydrome?
Eosinophils
53
How can Antiphospholipid syndrome affect blood vessels?
Can cause recurrent thromboembolism ( DVT/PE )
54
What condition can cause recurrent cytopenia?
SLE
55
What is Cytopenia?
When one or more of your blood cells types is low ( RBCs, WBCs, Platelets )
56
What gastrointestinal symptoms can Scleroderma present with?
Indigestion Constipation
57
What conditions can present with diarrhoea and bloody stools?
Reactive Arthritis Ankylosing Spondylitis Enteropathic Arthritis
58
What conditions can present with weight loss?
Any inflammatory condition ( RA, AS SLE, Scleroderma etc ) Neoplasia
59
60
What causes raised platelets?
Inflammation Bleeding
61
What causes decreased platelets?
SLE
62
What causes neutrophilia?
Inflammation Sepsis Prednisolone usage Infection Stress Vigorous exercise
63
What causes neutropenia?
SLE DMARD toxicity Post infective Chemotherapy
64
What causes a decrease of lymphocytes?
SLE DMARD usage
65
What condition causes raised Uric Acid?
Gout
66
What causes decreased Uric Acid?
Inflammation
67
In what condition are CK, ALT and LDH raised?
Myositis
68
What autoantibodies are raised in SLE?
Anti-dsDNA Anti RO Anti-LA
69
Which autoantibody rises with disease activity in SLE?
Anti-dsDNA
70
Which complement proteins fall in SLE flares?
C3 and C4
71
What autoantibodies are raised in Sjogren’s?
Anti-RO Anti-LA
72
What autoantibodies are raised in Scleroderma ( Systemic Sclerosis ) ?
Anti centomere Anti-Scl70
73
What autoantibodies is raised in Polymyositis?
Anti Jo-1
74
What are the two Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies that are relevant? (ANCA)
C ANCA P ANCA
75
What ANCA antibodies are present in Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis ?
C ANCA
76
Which ANCA antibody is present in patients with Microscopic Polyangiitis?
P ANCA
77
What gene is strongly associated with Ankylosing Spondylitis, iritis and juvenile arthritis ?
HLA-B27
78
What investigation do you do for SLE and vasculitis?
Urinalysis
79
What investigation do you do for suspected septic arthritis?
Synovial fluid anyalsis
80
What investigation do you do for crystal arthropathy?
Synovial fluid analysis
81
What would you see on polarised light microscopy in Gout?
Negatively birefringent needle shaped crystals
82
What would you see on polarized light microscopy in Pseudogout?
Positive birefringent rhomboid shaped crystals
83
What type of biopsy do you do for GCA?
Temporal artery biopsy
84
What type of biopsies do you do dermatomyositis?
Muscle biopsy Skin biopsy
85
What type of biopsies do you do for Vasculitis?
Skin biopsy Renal biopsy
86
What type of biopsy do you do for polymyositis?
Muscle biopsy
87
What type of biopsies do you do for SLE?
Skin biopsy Renal biopsy
88
What type of biopsy do you do for Sjogren’s?
Lip/ salivary gland biopsy
89
What type of biopsy is uncommonly requested but useful in Vasculitis with mononeuritis multiplex neuropathy?
Sural nerve biopsy
90
What is Rheumatoid Arthritis ? And what antibodies are associated with it?
Autoimmune disease associated with antibodies to Fc portion of IgG ( Rheumatoid Factor ) and anti-CCP
91
What is the pathogenesis of RA?
Citrullination of self antigens which are then recognized by T & B cells which can then produce antibodies (RF & anti-CCP) Stimulated macrophages and fibroblasts release TNFa Inflammatory cascade leads to proliferation of synoviocytes , which grows over cartilage and leads to restriction on nutrients, cartilage is damaged Activated macrophages stimulate osteoclast differentiation , causing bone damage
92
What is the typical history with RA?
Female 30-50 Progressive, peripheral, symmetrical polyarthrits
93
What is the typical pattern of RA in the hands and feet ?
Affects MCPs/PIPs/MTPs but typically spares DIPs
94
What are the timing features of RA?
Hx of >6 months Morning stiffness > 30mins
95
What can be seen on examination of RA?
Swelling Tenderness Ulnar deviation Palmar subluxation Swan-neck deformity Boutonniere deformity Rheumatoid nodules Carpal Tunnel
96
Where are Rheumatoid Nodules typically found?
Elbows
97
What investigations are done for RA?
Bloods - Rheumatoid Factor + Anti-CCP FBC Raised CRP + ESR Radiology - USS/MRI more sensitive in early disease X -RAY changes apparent in established disease May need PFTs and HRCT is chest involvement suspected
98
What will a FBC show in RA?
Normocytic Anaemia ( Anaemia of Chronic Disease)
99
Why does anaemia occur in RA?
Inflammation can prevent the body from using stored iron stores to make new RBCs
100
What XRAY changes are seen in RA?
L - Loss of joint space E - Erosions S - Soft tissue swelling S - Subluxation
101
What is the initial treatment for RA?
DMARD monotherapy ( e.g. Methotrexate ) , consider combination therapy NSAIDs - symptom control with PPI cover Can use OT/PT
102
What monitoring is required when a patient is on Methotrexate ( DMARDs) long term?
FBC LFTs - can cause liver fibrosis U&Es - can cause renal impairment
103
What are the effects of long-term steroid use?
Osteoporosis Skin thinning Hypertension
104
What should be used to treat RA in a flare up?
PO / IM or intra-articular Steroids ( normally Prednisolone PO )
105
What should be considered after combination DMARDs if still not helping?
Biologics ( anti-TNFs e.g Infliximab, Etanercept )
106
What are the extra-articular flare ups or Rheumatoid Arthritis? (3Cs 3As 3Ps 3Ss )
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome Cardiovascular Risks Cord Compression Anaemia Amyloidosis Arteritis Pericarditis Pleural Disease (common) Pulmonary Disease (common) Sjogren's Syndrome Scleritis/Episcleritis Splenic Enlargement
107
What is Giant Cell Arteritis?
Chronic Vasculitis of large and medium sized vessels that occur among individuals over 50 Commonly affects the temporal artery
108
Where does GCA commonly cause inflammation?
Superficial temporal artery , other branches of External carotid artery
109
How can GCA present ?
Anterior Ischaemic Optic Neuropathy ( Vision Loss ) Jaw claudication Stroke
110
What are risk factors for GCA?
Above 50 , most above 60 Woman Caucasian Strong association with Polymyalgia Rheumatica HLA-DR4 gene
111
What symptoms does GCA present with?
Headache ( 70% ) - usually localized, unilateral, stabbing and located over the temple Jaw claudication upon mastication Amaurosis Fugax Blindness Diplopia Tenderness over temple area
112
What is Amaurosis Fugax?
Temporary loss of blood flow to one or both eyes causing transient blindness
113
How is the diagnosis of GCA made?
Presence of any 2 or more of the following in patients older than 50 : -Raised ESR, CRP or PV -New onset or localized headache -Tenderness or decreased pulsation of temporal artery -New visual symptoms -Biopsy showing necrotising arteritis
114
How do you treat GCA?
Prednisolone 60-100mg PO per day for at least 2 weeks If they have visual symptoms , consider 1mg methylprednisolone IV pulse therapy for 1-3 days Then put on low dose Aspirin long term to reduce stroke risk
115
What is Polymyalgia Rheumatica?
A clinical syndrome categorised by pain and stiffness of shoulder, hip and neck. Typically have difficulty rising from a chair or brushing their hair.
116
What age people are affected by PR?
Average onset ~70 years
117
What are the symptoms of PR?
New onset stiffness ( neck, shoulder, hips) in elderly Difficulty rising from chair Night time pain Systemic symptoms ~25%
118
What will be seen on examination of a patient with PR?
Deceased ROM of neck, shoulder, hips Strength is normal Muscle tenderness
119
How is diagnosis of PR made?
Typical hx and examination Raised inflammatory markers Association with GCA so TA biopsy if symptomatic
120
What is the treatment of PR?
15mg Prednisolone PO, expect dramatic response within 5 days Then slowly taper
121
If a patient relapses frequently with PR what can be used as a steroid-sparing drug?
Methotrexate
122
What are Spondyloarthropathies?
A group of conditions that affect the spine and peripheral joints associated with the HLA-B27 gene
123
What are the 4 Spondyloarthropathy conditions?
Ankylosing Spondylitis Enteropathic Arthritis Psoriatic Arthritis Reactive Arthritis
124
What clinical features are common in the Spondyloarthropathies?
Sacroiliac/ Axial disease Inflammatory arthropathy of peripheral joints Enthesitis (inflammation at tendon insertions) Extra-articular features (skin/gut/eye)
125
What is the usual patient with Ankylosing Spondylitis?
Young male
126
What are the symptoms of Ankylosing Spondylitis?
Bilateral buttock pain Chest Wall and thoracic pain
127
What can be seen in developed Ankylosing Spondylitis on examination?
Loss of Lumbar Lordosis Exaggerated Thoracic Kyphosis Reduced chest expansion Positive Schober's Test
128
What is Schober's Test?
1. Identify the location of the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) on each side. 2. Mark the skin in the midline 5cm below the PSIS. 3. Mark the skin in the midline 10cm above the PSIS. 4. Ask the patient to touch their toes to assess lumbar flexion. 5. Measure the distance between the two lines. The distance between the two marks should increase from the initial 15cm to more than 20cm, if not positive test due to reduced ROM
129
What investigation should be done for Ankylosing Spondlylitis?
CRP - but may be normal MRI spine and SI joints
130
What is the treatment for Ankylosing Spondyliti
Symptom Control - NSAIDs Physiotherapy Can use TNF inhibitors, IL-17 inhibitors
131
What is Psoriatic Arthritis?
Happens in 10% of people with Psoriasis
132
What are the typical exam findings with Psoriatic Arthritis?
Oligoarthritis Dactylitits ( sausage fingers ) Can be symmetrical or mono also Arthritis Mutans ( 5%)
133
What is the typical XRAY findings in Psoriatic Arthritis?
'Pencil in cup' appearance
134
What can be seen early on MRI or USS in Psoriatic Arthritis?
Central erosions
135
What is the treatment for Psoriatic Arthritis?
NSAIDs DMARDs TNF Inhibitors IL-17 inhibitors IL-12/IL-23 inhibitors
136
How does Reactive Arthritis develop?
Its sterile synovitis after a distant infection ( Salmonella/ Shigella / Campylobacter ) or following urethrits/cervicitis ( Chylamydia )
137
When does Reactive Arthritis present?
Few days - 2 weeks post infection
138
Where does Reactive Arthritis present?
Acute asymmetrical lower limb arthritis Can't see can't wee, cant climb a tree ! ( Conjunctivitis/ Uveitis, Urethritis, Arthritis )
139
What are skin signs of Reactive Arthritis?
Circinate Balanitis ( circular lesions on penis) Keratoderma Blenorrhagia ( Blisters on palms and soles of feet)
140
What other signs can be present in Reactive Arthritis?
Conjunctivitis Uveitis Enthesitis
141
What is Enthesitis?
Enthesis is where a tendon or a ligament meets bone Enthesitis is when these places get inflamed
142
What investigations needed to be done for suspected Reactive Arthritis?
Serology/Microbiology Inflammatory Markers raised May need joint aspirate to rule out septic/crystal arthritis
143
What is the treatment for Reactive Arthritis?
Treat underlying infection NSAIDs , joint injections Most will resolve within 2 years, if they do not ( esp if they have HLA-B27) may need DMARDs
144
What percentage of people with IBD get Enteropathic Arthritis?
10-20%
145
What is the split for peripheral arthritis and axial arthritis in Enteropathic Arthritis?
2/3 get peripheral 1/3 get axial
146
What are two types of peripheral Enteropathic Arthritis?
Type 1 - oligoarticular, asymmetric and correlated with IBD flare ups Type 2 - polyarticular, symmetrical, less correlated with IBD flare ups
147
What is the management for Enteropathic Arthritis?
DMARDs ( NSAIDs can flare IBDs ) TNF inhibitors ( treat bowel disease and the arthritis )
148
What are the extra-articular manifestations of Ankylosing Spondylitis?
5As Anterior Uveitis Aortic Incompetence AV Block Apical Lung Fibrosis Amyloidosis
149
What are the features of inflammatory back pain as opposed to other causes?
IPAIN Insidious onset ( no trauma ) Pain at night Age of onset < 40 Improvement with exercise No improvement with rest
150
What is Lupus?
Autoimmune disease Inadequate T Cell suppressor activity and increased B Cell activity Characterized by remissions and flares
151
What are some common signs and symptoms of SLE?
S - Serositis O - Oral ulcers A - Arthralgia P - Photosensitivity B - Blood disorders R - Renal involvement A - Autoantibodies ( ANA and anti ds-DNA) I - Immunological deficit N - Neurological manifestation (Headache) M - Malar Rash D - Discoid rash
152
Which features may suggest an active SLE flare up?
Malar rash Fever Feeling more tired than usual Painful. swollen joints
153
What can be seen on a FBC with SLE?
Raised ESR Raised Plasma Viscosity Normal CRP Anaemia Leukopenia
154
What autoantibodies are found in SLE?
ANA Anti-Ro and Anti-La Anti-dsDNA
155
What autoantibody rises with disease activity?
Anti-dsDNA
156
What complications do Antiphospholipid antibodies in SLE increase the likelihood of ?
Pregnancy loss Thrombosis
157
Which complement proteins fall with SLE disease activity?
C3 and C4
158
What investigations must be done SLE?
FBC ( anaemia) Autoantibodies Complement ( C3 and C4) Urinalysis ( to see renal involvement ) Renal biopsy ( can be diagnostic and help prognosticate ) Skin biopsy ( can be diagnostic )
159
What is the lifestyle management for SLE?
Sun protection Healthy lifestyle advice in context of CVS risk
160
What is the pharmacological management for SLE flares?
Prednisolone
161
What is the pharmacological management for SLE?
Mycophenolate Mofetil Azathioprine Rituximab Hydroxychloroquine for rash and arthralgia
162
Which gender is SLE more common in?
Females
163
What is the average age of onset for SLE?
Early adulthood
164
Why does UV light trigger SLE?
It alters structure of the DNA in the dermis that renders it more immunogenic
165
Which drugs can trigger an SLE like syndrome?
Isoniazid Minocycline TNF inhibitors
166
Which other system does SLE cause a high risk in?
CVS
167
What is the name of the diagnostic criteria for SLE?
EULAR/ ACR classification
168
What is Raynaud's Phenomenen?
It is painful and is characterized by a typical sequence of colour changes in response to a cold stimulus, also precipitated by stress.
169
What is Raynaud's caused by?
Vasospasm of the digits
170
What do the colours of the hands in Raynaud's indicate?
white- inadequate blood flow blue -venous stasis red -re-warming hyperaemia.
171
What is Raynaud's Sydrome?
This term is used when Raynaud's phenomenon is idiopathic.
172
Who is Raynaud's syndrome common in?
Young women
173
What is the treatment for Raynaud's Syndrome?
Keep hands warm Avoid smoking
174
Which features of Raynaud's Phenomenon make you think its a rheumatic cause?
Over age 30 Abnormal nail-fold capillaries Puffy fingers Photosensitive rash
175
What conditions is RP associated with?
Scleroderma SLE Dermatomyositis Polymyositis Sjogren's Sydrome
176
What are other causes of RP?
Use of heavy vibrating tools Cervical rib Sticky blood ( cryoglobulinemia ) Beta blockers
177
What is the treatment for RP?
CCB are first line Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors Prostacylins
178
What are some complications of RS?
Digital Ulcers Severe digital ischaemia Infection
179
What is Vasculitis?
A large, heterogeneous group of diseases classified by the predominant size, type, and location of inflamed blood vessels
180
What clinical features can occur as a result of the damage to the blood vessel walls?
Thrombosis Ischaemia Aneurysm formation
181
What signs/symptoms are indicative of Vasculitis? Use a systems based approach MSK CNS/PNS Head CVS Resp GI Renal
MSK - Arthralgia, Myalgia, Proximal muscle weakness, Ischaemia CNS/PNS - Headaches, Visual Loss, Tinnitus, Stroke, Seizure, Encephalopathy, Neuropathy Head - Oral ulcers, Epistaxis, Ulcers CVS - Pericarditis Resp - Cough, Chest Px, Hemoptysis, Dyspnea GI - Abdo Px Renal - Haematuria
182
What can be seen on examination in Vasculitis?
CVS / Resp- HTN Crackles, Pleural rubs, murmurs, arrythmias Skin - Palpable Purpura Livedo Reticularis Nodules Digital ulcers Gangrene Nail bed capillary changes
183
What are the small vessel Vasculitides?
-Microscopic polyangiitis (MPA) -Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA, formerly Wegener's granulomatosis) - Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA; formerly Churg-Strauss syndrome) - IgA vasculitis
184
What are the medium vessel Vasculitides ?
- Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) - Kawasaki disease (KD)
185
What are the large vessel vasculitides?
- Takayasu arteritis (TAK) - Giant cell arteritis (GCA)
186
What can secondary Vasculitis be caused by?
Infections Drugs Malignancy Connective Tissue disorders
187
What can Vasculitis cause in the renal system?
Glomerulonephritis
188
What tests are needed for Vasculitis?
FBCs, U&Es, LFTs, CRP, PV, ESR ANA, ANCA, RF ( to rule out) Complement C3 + C4 Cryoglobulins Serum and protein electrophosphoresis CK, Blood cultures, ECG. CXR, CT, MRI, Arteriography, CT-PET to check extent of organ involvment
189
What screening tests also need to be done to rule out viral causes of vasculitis?
Hepatitis Screen (B&C) HIV Screen
190
What is the management plan in Vasculitis?
Rule out infection, stop any offending drugs Then commence on pharmacological management
191
What is the 1st line treatment for Vasculitis?
Corticosteroids
192
What is the second line treatment of Vasculitis?
Cytotoxic medications Immunomodulatory Biologic Agents (e.g Methotrexate, Rituximab)
193
What other condition can present as a Vasculitis like syndrome?
Atrial Myxomas
194
What is an Atrial Myxoma?
A tumour ( overgrowth of cells ) that can be found in the atria
195
How can you exclude an Atrial Myxoma ?
A normal ECHO ( no visible tumour )
196
What are Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis?
Rare idiopathic muscle diseases that are characterized by inflammation of striated muscle
197
What is the peak age of onset for DMST and PMST?
40-50
198
What is the usual presentation of Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis?
Insidious onset of painless, proximal muscle weakness SOB Rash Raynaud's
199
What is the diagnostic criteria for Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis?
-Symmetrical proximal muscle weakness -Raised serum muscle enzyme levels -Typical electromyographic (EMG) changes -Biopsy evidence of myositis -Typical rash of dermatomyositis -PM if >= 3 of the first 4 above criteria -DM if rash and >= 2 of the first 3 above criteria
200
What does the FBC appear like in Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis?
Normal usually
201
What do tests normally show?
Raised ALT but normal LFTs ANA positive (80%) Anti-Jo-1 and Anti-Mi2 Evidence on MRI Doesn't affect kidney
202
What is the treatment for Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis?
High Dose Corticosteroids for first few weeks Long term control with Methotrexate or Azathioprine IVIG also used
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In Dermatomyositis what additional management is needed?
Sun protection Hydroxychloroquine for the rash
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Why can aspiration pneumonia happen in Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis?
Upper oesophagus is striated muscle so swallowing can be affected
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Why can respiratory failure happen in Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis?
Diaphragm involvment
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What do patients with Dermatomyositis have an increased risk of?
Malignancy
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What type of rash is the Dermatomyositis rash?
Photosenstive - appears on sun exposed areas
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What does the Dermatomyositis rash look like?
Linear plaqaues on the dorsal aspects of the hands ( Gottron's papules )
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What are some other signs of Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis?
Dilated nail-fold capilleries Dry-cracked palms and fingers Periorbital oedema Heliotrope rash ( rare)
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What is a heliotrope rash?
Violet rash on the eyelids
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Patients with which conditions can develop Dermatomyositis and Polymyositis?
Scleroderma SLE
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What is Systemic Sclerosis ( Scleroderma) ?
Increased fibroblast activity resulting in abnormal growth of connective tissue which leads to vascular damage and fibrosis.
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What are the two types of Scleroderma?
Diffuse Limited
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What is Limited Scleroderma also known as?
CREST Syndrome
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What are the symptom of CREST syndrome?
C- Calcinosis Cutis R - Raynaud's E - Eosophageal Dysmotility S - Sclerodactlyl T - Telangiectasia
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How does CREST syndrome usually start?
Many years of Raynaud's before any thickening
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What is Diffuse Scleroderma?
Less common Has a sudden onset of skin involvement , proximal to elbows and knees
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Which type of Scleroderma has a higher mortality rate?
Diffuse
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What investigations are done for Scleroderma?
XRAY hands show Calcinosis CXR, HRCT, PFT - pulmonary disease ECG & ECHO - HTN, HF, Myocarditis and Arrhythmias
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What autoantibodies are present in Limited Scleroderma?
ANA Anti-centromere
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What autoantibodies are present in Diffuse Scleroderma?
ANA Scl-70 Anti RNA Polymerase III
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Is there a cure for Scleroderma?
No
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What is the management for Scleroderma?
Psychological support Short courses of Prednisolone for flares ACEi to prevent HTN crisis ( Pulmonary HTN) Methotrexate and Myco Mof may reduce skin thickening PPIs for GI symptoms Calcium Antagonist/ Sildenafil/ Iloprost infusion for Raynaud's
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What is Morphea?
Localized scleroderma
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What crises can take place due to Scleroderma?
Hyptensive Crisis Renal Crisis
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How does a Renal Crisis present?
Accelerated HTN
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What is Sjogren's Syndrome?
Chronic autoimmune inflammatory disorder characterized by diminished lacrimal and salivary gland secretion ( dry eyes, dry mouth, dry vagina ) Can be primary or secondary
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What are the common signs and symptoms of Sjogren's Syndrome?
Myalgia Arthralgia Dry Mouth Fatigue Raynaud’s phenomenon Enlarged parotids Dry eyes
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What investigations are done for Sjogren's?
Autoantibodies - Anti Ro and Anti La ( RF and Anti dsDNA can be seen ) Schimer's test Salivary gland biopsy maybe
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What does Schimer's test measure?
Tear Volume
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What is the treatment for Sjogren’s syndrome?
Avoid dry environments Artificial tears Artificial saliva/ gum Vaginal lubricants (Sialagogues)
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What conditions are the most commonly associated with Sjogren's?
Rheumatoid SLE
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What malignancy is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome?
B Cell Lymphoma
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What are patient's with Anti-Ro antibodies at risk of in pregnancy?
Fetal loss Complete Heart Block of fetus Neonatal Lupus syndrome in newborn
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What will a salivary gland biopsy show in Sjogren’s syndrome?
Focal lymphocyte infiltration of exocrine glands
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What is Hypermobility Spectrum Disorder?
A pain syndrome where peoples joints move beyond normal limits. It is due to laxity of ligaments, capsules and tendons. It is thought the origin of the pain is from microtrauma
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In which population is Hypermobility Spectrum Disorder more common in?
Women Asian people
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What are complications of Hypermobility Spectrum Disorder?
Recurrent subluxation or dislocations
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What are some signs and symptoms of Hypermobility Spectrum Disorder?
Arthralgia worse after activity Fatigue Epicondylitis Hyperextensible skin Papyraceuous Scars Marfanoid habitus Arachnodactylyl Myopia Hernia Uterine/ Rectal prolapses
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What are Papyraceuous Scars?
Atrophic scars that have widened to become paper thin ( Ehlers-Danlos)
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What are Marfanoid Habitus?
Constellation of signs resembling those of Marfan Syndrome
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What is the management for Hypermobility Spectrum Disorder?
Paracetamol Strengthening exercises Splinting/Surgical interventions may be needed
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What are the heritable connective tissue disorders?
Hypermobility Spectrum Disorder Marfan Syndrome Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome Have considerable phenotypic overlap
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What is Osteoarthritis ( OA )?
This is the commonest type of arthritis: a degenerative joint disorder in which there is progressive loss of articular cartilage accompanied by new bone formation and capsular fibrosis.
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What is the pathophysiology of Osteoarthritis?
The pathogenesis of OA involves a degradation of cartilage and remodelling of bone due to an active response of chondrocytes in the articular cartilage and the inflammatory cells in the surrounding tissues. The release of enzymes from these cells break down collagen and proteoglycans, destroying the articular cartilage. The exposure of the underlying subchondral bone results in sclerosis, followed by reactive remodelling changes that lead to the formation of osteophytes and subchondral bone cysts. The joint space is progressively lost over time.
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What are the risk factors for OA?
Older age Women Obesity Trauma
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What are the most commonly affected joints in OA?
Hip Knee Spine Weight-bearing
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What is common at the knee in OA?
Inactivity gelling
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What will XRAY show in OA?
J - Joint Space Narrowing O - Osteophytes B - Bone Cysts S - Subarticular Sclerosis
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What is the treatment options for OA?
Physiotherapy Weight Loss Paracetemol NSAIDs short term Topical NSAIDs Intra Articular corticosteroid injections Replacement
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What nodes are found in OA?
Bouchard's ( PIPJs) Heberden's (DIPJs) Thumb Strongly associated with progression of knee OA
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Are XRAY severity and severity of symptoms associated in OA?
No - there's a big disconnect
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What is Fibromyalgia?
A common disorder of central pain processing characterized by chronic widespread pain in all 4 quadrants of the body (both sides and above and below the waist). Allodynia, a heightened and painful response to innocuous stimuli, is often present.
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What is the probable tigger for Fibromyalgia?
Sleep disturbance
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What is the pathogenesis of Fibromyalgia?
Hyper-activation in response to noxious stimulation, and neural activation in brain regions associated with pain perception in response to non-painful stimuli.
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What are some symptoms of FM?
* joint/muscle stiffness * profound fatigue * unrefreshed sleep * numbness * headaches * irritable bowel/bladder syndrome * depression and anxiety * poor concentration and memory “fibrofog”
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What are risk factors for FM?
Female 40-50 May have obvious trigger e.g emotional pain
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What is the treatment for FM?
Improve sleep Increase physical activity CBT Low dose amitriptyline Pregabalin
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What tests should be done in FM to exclude other diagnoses?
Blood tests such as ESR, CRP, FBC, U+E, LFT, Ca, CK and TFT are recommended to help exclude other pathology
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What is Osteoporosis?
A skeletal condition characterized by low bone mass, deterioration of bone tissue, and disruption of bone architecture that leads to compromised bone strength and an increased risk of fracture
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What are some non modifiable risk factors for OP?
>65 Female White or S Asian Family Hx History of low trauma fracture
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What are some modifiable risk factors for OP?
Low body weight >58kg BMI > 21 Premature Menopause Cal/Vit D Deficiency Low physical activity Smoking Excess Alcohol intake Long term Steroids
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How is diagnosis make for OP?
DEXA scan of lumbar spine and hip if over 75 no need
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What is the T-score on a DEXA scan result?
T-Score is the number of standard deviations away from the mean bone density of a person of the same gender at age 25 ( peak density)
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How do you interpret a DEXA scan result?
T score more than or equal to -1 = normal T score between -1 and -2.5 = osteopenia T score less than -2.5 = osteoporosis
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What is the treatment for Osteopenia?
Weight bearing exercise Vitamin D3 supplementation Reduce alcohol Smoking cessation
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What is the treatment for Osteoporosis?
Vitamin D +/- calcium supplementation plus, 1st Line - Oral bisphosphonates , I.V if not tolerated 2nd Line - Denosumab or Teriparatide
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What are some secondary causes of Osteoporosis?
Coeliac disease Eating disorder Hyperparathyroidism Hyperthyroidism Multiple Myeloma Hypogonadism ( Men )
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What is Gout?
An inflammatory arthritis due to hyperuricaemia
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What is the most commonly affected joint in Gout?
1st Metatarsophalangeal joint ( Big Toe)
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What is the pathology of Gout?
Deposition of monosodium urate (MSU) crystals that accumulate in joints and soft tissues, result in acute and chronic arthritis, soft-tissue masses called tophi, urate nephropathy, and uric acid nephrolithiasis
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How common is a second flare up after initial treatment?
A second flare occurs in ~60% of patients within 1 year and 78% within 2 years of the initial attack.
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What are the non-modifiable risk factors for Gout?
>40 Male
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What are modifiable risk factors for Gout?
Increased purine uptake (meats and seafood) Alcohol intake (especially beer) High fructose intake Obesity Organ transplant Hypertension Smoking Diabetes mellitus Urate-elevating medications e.g. diuretics
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What is the lifestyle management for Gout?
Maintain optimal weight Regular exercise Diet modification (purine-rich foods) Reduce alcohol consumption (beer and liquor) Smoking cessation Maintain fluid intake and avoid dehydration
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What is first line treatment for acute Gout?
NSAIDs Oral/IM Steroids Colchicine
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What is the treatment for Chronic Gout ?
Urate lowering therapy (ULT) Allopurinol
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How does Allopurinol reduce Urate levels?
Its a xanthine oxidase inhibitors so it reduces urate formation
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What is the aim SUA level on term ULT?
< 360micromol/L
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What investigation can be done to diagnose gout?
Synovial fluid aspirate - MSU crystals found
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How quickly should therapy be commenced in a Gout flare up?
Within 24 hours - highly effective in this time period
282
What do the Gout crystals look like through polarised light?
Negatively birefringent
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What type of crystals cause Pseudogout?
Calcium pyrophosphate crystals
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What is a good way to remember the autoantibody for Limited Sclerosis?
Limited ( Central ) Sclerosis = Anti-centromere antibodies Central = centro
285
What test is used to access Hypermobility?
Beighton Score
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What should be given alongside Allopurinol when starting a patient on it?
NSAID or Colchicine 'cover'
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What blood test must be carried out before starting Azathioprine?
TPMT
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Why must TPMT be checked before starting Azathioprine?
Thiopurine Methytransferase enzyme is responsible be metabolising thiopurine drugs . TPMT deficiency can lead to toxicity, causing bone marrow suppresion
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What are the x-ray findings in Ankylosing Spondylitis?
Subchondral erosions Sclerosis Squaring of lumbar vertebrae
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What examination should done before a patient is started on Hydroxychloroquine ?
Ophthalmologic exam Retinopathy can be a side effect
291
What should one suspect if a patient has Malignancy and a raised CK?
Polymyositis
292
What pulmonary condition can Methotrexate cause?
Pneumonitis ( inflammation of lung parenchyma ) leads to pulmonary fibrosis
293
What is the advice for women trying to conceive regarding Methotrexate use?
Methotrexate should be stopped 6 months prior to trying to conceive due to the teratogenic effects
294
Which hand joint is commonly affected in Osteoarthritis?
The base of the thumb ( 1st MCP joint )
295
Why must Methotrexate and Trimethoprim not be concurrently prescribed?
Increases the risk of bone marrow suppression or fatal pancytopenia
296
What do patients who are about to start long term steroids and are over 65 need to also be prescribed?
Immediate bone protection Alendronic Acid, Vitamin D and Calcium supplements
297
What is the key investigation for diagnosing Septic Arthritis?
Synovial fluid aspirate and analysis
298
What is the first line treatment for knee osteoarthritis?
Topical NSAIDs e.g Ibruprofen Gel
299
What is the DEXA scan Z score adjusted for?
Age Gender Ethnicity
300
What is the most important side effect to warn patients about before starting bisphosphonates?
Oesophageal problems
301
A DAS score of above what indicates high disease activity in Rheumatoid Arthritis?
>5.1
302
What is the most common form of Rheumatoid Factor antibody?
IgM against IgG
303
Which condition predisposes you to Pseudogout?
Haemochromatosis In younger patients pseudogout it typically associated with an underlying condition
304
What is Pseudogout?
It is deposition of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joint.
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What is APL syndrome?
An autoimmune disorder characterised by arterial and venous thrombosis, adverse pregnancy outcomes (for mother and foetus), and raised levels of antiphospholipid antibodies
306
How does APL syndrome cause thrombosis?
The patient is in a hypercoagulable state
307
What is the initial management for suspected GCA?
40mg Oral Prednisolone - due to the chance of irreversible blindness is it important to treat GCA immediately Dose can be weaned down over 1-2 years
308
How do you diagnose APL syndrome?
One or more of the following three positive blood tests are needed on two occasions, 12 weeks apart to diagnose APS: Anticardiolipin antibodies Anti-β2-GPI antibodies Positive lupus anticoagulant assay
309
What is the management if GCA is presenting with visual symptoms?
I.V Methylprednisolone Have an urgent same-day assessment by an ophthalmologist. This is usually continued for three days before switching to oral prednisolone
310
What genetic mutation is responsible for Marfan's?
Fibrillin 1 gene mutation
311
What are the symptoms of Marfan's?
Tall and thin Unusually long arms and legs High-arch palate Arachnodactyly ( long, spidery fingers ) Thoracic aortic aneurysm Abdominal aortic aneurysm Aortic regurgitation Aortic root dilation Mitral valve regurgitation/prolapse Spontaneous Pneumothorax Superior lens dislocation Closed-angle glaucoma Hypermobility Contractures Pectus deformities Kyphoscoliosis Spontaneous CSF Leaks
312
What nail changes are consistent with Psoriatic Arthritis?
Pitting Onycholysis ( nail separating from nail bed)
313
What investigations are indicated for Septic Arthritis?
Joint aspiration - send for gram stain, culture and microscopy ( will show extremely high white cell count) At least 2 blood cultures
314
Which eye condition is associated with ankylosing spondylitis?
Iritis ( Also known as anterior UVitis)
315
What are the symptoms on Limited Cutaneous Systemic Sclerosis ( CREST syndrome )
C - Calcinosis R - Raynaud's Phenomenon E- Esophageal dysmotility S - Sclerodactyly T - Telangiectasia
316
Which antibodies is raised in Sjogren's Syndrome?
Anti-Ro Anti-La
317
How long before pregnancy should Methotrexate be stopped?
6 months
318
What does Swan-neck deformity appear like?
MCP flexion PIP hyperextension DIP hyperflexion
319
What is the management for Septic Arthritis?
Blood cultures x 2 Joint aspiration ( WCC > 10,000, Neutrophils < 90%, yellow fluid ) Send for Gram stain, culture, crystals, cell count ABG - Lactate > 3mmol/L I.V Fluids I.V Flucloxacillin for 2 weeks and orally for 4 more weeks May need surgical washout
320
What is the 'Pencil in cup' deformity seen in Psoriatic Arthritis?
Arthritis Migrans ( most severe psoriatic arthritis) - telescoping of affected fingers and toes
321
What does an X-Ray for pseudogout commonly show?
Chondrocalcinosis
322
What are the symptoms of Polymyositis?
Bilateral, proximal (hip and shoulder girdle) muscle weakness, developing over weeks to months Esophageal/ pharyngeal involvement - dysphonia, dysphagia Diaphragm - Type 2 Respiratory Failure
323
How does dermatopolymyositis present?
All the same features as Polymyositis ALSO -Heliotrope rash ( purple discolouration of the eyelid skin) Gottron's Papules - scaly, red papules over the knuckles and extensors Macular erythematous rash
324
What will you find on investigations to confirm antiphospholipid syndrome?
Prolonged aPTT - even though it increases chance of thombosis Lupus coagulant positive Anti-cardiolipin antibody positive Anti–β‎2-glycoprotein 1 antibodies positive
325
What is the treatment for hypermobility syndromes?
Referral to physiotherapy/OT
326
What is the clinical scoring system for hypermobility?
Beighton's score
327
How often must patients on Methotrexate be monitored?
FBC ,U&ES and LFTs every 3 months to check for neutropenia More prone to infections so look out for signs of sore throat, fever, ulcers
328
What is prescribed with Methotrexate?
Folic Acid 5mg, taken once weekly on a different day
329
What is the score used to measure disease activity in Rheumatoid Arthritis?
DAS-28 , looks at 28 joints to decide if tender or swollen
330
331
What are the benign bone tumours?
Osteoma Osteochondroma Giant Cell Tumour
332
What are the malignant bone tumours?
Osteosarcoma Chondrosarcoma Ewing's Sarcoma
333
What are the features of Osteoma?
Benign 'overgrowth' of bone Most typically occurring on the skull Associated with Gardner's syndrome (a variant of familial adenomatous polyposis, FAP)
334
What are the features of Chondrosarcoma?
Most common benign bone tumour More in males, usually diagnosed in patients aged < 20 years Cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone
335
What are the features of Giant Cell Tumour?
Tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma Peak incidence: 20-40 years Occurs most frequently in the epiphyses (end) of long bones X-ray shows a 'double bubble' or 'soap bubble' appearance
336
What are features of a Osteosarcoma?
Most common malignant bone tumour Seen mainly in children and adolescents Occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal (neck portion) region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure, with 40% occuring in the femur, 20% in the tibia, and 10% in the humerus X-ray shows Codman triangle (from periosteal elevation) and 'sunburst' pattern Association with retinoblastoma) Predisposed by Paget's disease of the bone and radiotherapy
337
What are features of Chondrocarcinoma?
Malignant tumour of cartilage Most commonly affects the axial skeleton (spine) More common in middle-age
338
What are the features of Ewing's Sarcoma?
Small round blue cell tumour Seen mainly in children and adolescents Occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones. Tends to cause severe pain X-Ray shows onion skin appearance
339
What is Paget's Disease of Bone?
Paget's disease of the bone is a disease associated with brittle, abnormally shaped, weak bones. This is due to increased bone formation and bone resorption, meaning that bone turnover is very dysregulated and uncontrolled. Unlike normal bone in which the bone remodelling cycle is in balance, the increased bone turnover in Paget's disease results in abnormal bone formation and reduced structural integrity.
340
What does sterile synovitis mean in Reactive Arthritis?
On joint aspiration, the infective organism cannot be recovered , there will be a negative culture
341
What makes the pain worse in lateral epicondylitis?
Resisted wrist extension
342
What is a pharmacological management option for Raynaud's?
CCB - Nifedipine
343
When do you not need to do a DEXA scan to confirm Osteoporosis?
If a patient is over 75 with a fragility fracture In this case you would check their Vit D and Ca2+ levels are normal and then commence them on bisphosphonates. If they were low you would correct them with supplementation