RKAs Flashcards

(65 cards)

1
Q

Maximum ITT for Takeoff

A

1013 C

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2
Q

What sources of power and hydraulics are needed to activate Nose Wheel Steering?

A

C Bus Power

No. 2 Hydraulics

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3
Q

Landing gear handle does what if the gear is not properly sequenced?

A

Flashes after 20 seconds

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4
Q

Source of power for TR controls and indications?

A

A Bus

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5
Q

The battery RCR relay trips open at ______ amps.

A

250

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6
Q

What does the GCU do after a start?

A

Soft charge: reduce gen voltage to 27.5V for 3 minutes.

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7
Q

On the ground landing lights are limited to _______?

A

15 min on followed by 45 min off

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8
Q

Emergency Lights should last for?

A

15 min

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9
Q

The fire pull handle shuts off fuel where?

A

Base of the feeder tanks

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10
Q

Total Fuel capacity with SB?

A

15513

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11
Q

No. 3 transfer pump failure is indicated by the ________?

A

No. 3 XFR pump light

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12
Q

The TFE-731-40 has how much thrust?

A

3700 lbs

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13
Q

How many stages of LP compression are on the engine?

A

4

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14
Q

When an engine computer fails the surge bleed valve does what?

A

Fails to 1/3 open position

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15
Q

If the starter remains engaged above 50% N2 what should you do?

A

Set to “Motor Start/Stop”

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16
Q

What temp does the APU automatically shut down?

A

732 degrees C

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17
Q

High pressure bleed air is provided by which engines in flight?

A

No. 1,2,3 only

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18
Q

Secondary HP and LP bleed air is supplied by which engines?

A

Engines 1 & 2

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19
Q

What does secondary LP air supply?

A

Wing tanks, Feeder Tanks and Hydraulic Tank

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20
Q

Bleed OVHT Light comes on when?

A

310 degrees C

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21
Q

What supplies the wing anti ice?

A

HP1, HP2, HP3 when switch is in auto and LP air

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22
Q

When should the wing anti ice be turned on?

A

After gear retraction

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23
Q

When do the A/C valves fully open after takeoff?

A

2.5 minutes

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24
Q

What cabin altitude does the CABIN light come on?

A

10,000’

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25
At what altitude do the outflow valves fully close?
14,500’
26
How can you dump the cabin?
Guarded Dump switch or “up/down” control knob.
27
What bus is the pressurization controller on?
A Bus
28
What systems are used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs?
Eng 1 and Eng 2
29
When does the “ST Pump No. 2” light come on?
Standby Pump selector in GROUND TEST or if pump runs continuously for 60 seconds.
30
Type of hydraulic fluid used in the Falcon 50 is?
5606 H
31
What airspeed do you fly with a loss of either hydraulic system?
260 KIAS or 0.76M
32
What system are emergency slats on? Which slats do you get and how many?
No. 2 Outboard slats (2)
33
How do you get outboard slats out with a loss of system No.1?
Emergency slat switch
34
What lights do you get with the Emergency Gear Pull Handle?
3 gear lights (green) and 2 main wheel door lights.
35
What system does the Emergency Gear Pull Handle use to extend gear?
No. 1 Hydraulic System
36
What powers the normal gear system?
A Bus
37
What do you loose if you have to use Emergency pitch trim?
Autopilot and Mach Trim
38
Which slats retract last under normal retraction?
Outboards
39
Which bus is Emergency pitch trim powered off?
B Bus
40
What speed are we limited to with Mach trim inop?
.78 Mach
41
Max airspeed with Q Unit Light on?
260 KIAS
42
What hydraulic and electrical system do normal slats use?
No. 1 Hydraulics and no electrics are required
43
Source of power for flaps?
D Bus
44
What happens to air brakes with a loss of electrical power?
Retract
45
What does it mean when there are cyan colored indications on the FMS?
Data manually entered by the pilot.
46
Display of single bearing pointers is controlled by the ________?
DCP
47
Flags appearing on the ADI and HIS indicate a failure of?
On-side IRS
48
Which flight mode is energy management mode?
FLC
49
Max Radio Altimeter altitude is ______?
2500’
50
Flashing ALIGN light and FAULT light indicate _________?
Excessive movement of the aircraft
51
Does the AP switch on the yoke disconnect the YD also?
No
52
Which pitch trim will cause the AP to disconnect?
EMERG AND normal pitch trim
53
What does the NO AIR light indicate IRS panel?
IRU fan intakes are clogging
54
Primary means of navigation of the FMS is?
GPS
55
What does the SEC button do on the WXP?
Reduces scan from 120 degrees to 60 degrees
56
How big is the radar dish?
18 inches
57
What comes on when you turn on the mode select unit?
ALIGN, NO AIR AND ON BATT lights
58
Which displays give you overlays of radar, TCAS and Terrain info?
Rose, VOR Map and FMS present position
59
Normal O2 bottle pressure?
1850 psi
60
What is the capacity of the O2?
76 cu-ft
61
What altitude do the cabin masks drop automatically?
11,200’
62
How much psi drops the masks?
70 psi
63
What airspeed can the TRs be used down to?
0 KIAS
64
Maximum speed Thrust Reverser emergency stow switch can be activated?
230 KIAS
65
What hydraulic system does the thrust reverser work on?
No. 1