Robbins Flashcards

(87 cards)

1
Q

is caused by focal demineralization of tooth structure (enamel and dentin) by acidic products of bacterial sugar fermentation

A

dental carries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

inflammation of the oral mucosa surrounding the teeth, caused by accumulation of dental plaque and calculus

A

gingivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

is an inflammatory process that affects the supporting structures of the teeth (ligaments), alveolar bone, and cementum

A

Periodontitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

a submucosal nodular mass of fibrous connective tissue stroma that occurs primarily on the buccal mucosa along the bite line or the gingiva

A

irritation fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

typically found on the gingiva of children, young adults, and pregnant women. This exophytic inflammatory lesion is red to purple in color and frequently ulcerated. Histologically, they are a highly vascularized proliferation of organizing granulation tissue.

A

pyogenic granulomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

red, ulcerated, nodular lesions of the gingiva that arise from a long-standing pyogenic granuloma, while others develop de novo from cells of the periodontal ligament, complete surgical excision down to the periosteum is required

A

Peripheral ossifying fibroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

oral cavity lesion that contains aggregates of multinucleate, foreign body–like giant cells separated by a fibroangiomatous stroma

A

Peripheral giant cell granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The pseudomembranous form of oral candidiasis is called

A

thrush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a distinctive oral lesion on the lateral border of the tongue caused by EBV

A

Hairy Leukoplakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F until proven otherwise by histologic evaluation, all leukoplakias must be considered precancerous

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a possibly precancerous lesion which is red, velvety, possibly eroded area within the oral cavity that usually remains level with or may be slightly depressed relative to the surrounding mucosa

A

erythroplakia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Approximately 95% of cancers of the head and neck are _____, with the remainder largely consisting of ____

A

SCCs, adenocarcinomas of salivary origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

primary cause of SCC of the oropharynx

A

HPV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

oropharyngeal carcinoma

prognosis is better in
hpv related scc or “classic” scc?

A

hpv related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

postulates that multiple individual primary tumors develop independently in the upper aerodigestive tract as a result of years of mucosal exposure to carcinogens

A

field cancerization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F second primary tumors in the oropharyngeal classic scca have the highest rate among all malignancies and commonly have good prognosis

A

False, they are usually fatal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

mutations in these 3 genes are drivers of cancer development

A

TP53, CDKN2A, PIK3CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

hpv oncoproteins and the proteins they inactivate

A

E6 - p53
E7 - RB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

favored locations are the ventral surface of the tongue, floor of the mouth, lower lip, soft palate, and gingiva

A

classic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

tend to develop without a readily identified premalignant (i.e., dysplastic) component

A

hpv-assoc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

oropharyngeal:

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

appear as raised, firm, pearly plaques or irregular, roughened, or verrucous areas of mucosal thickening

A

classic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

oropharyngeal carcinoma

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

are most often nonkeratinizing neoplasms arising in the reticulated epithelium of the tonsillar crypts within the lingual tonsils, base of tongue, soft palate, and pharynx

A

hpv-assoc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

oropharyngeal carcinoma

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

typically preceded by premalignant lesions, such as leukoplakia and erythroplakia

A

classic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

oropharyngeal cancer

classic hpv neg scca vs hpv-assoc scca:

present as small primary tumors that lack obvious surface mucosal lesions but are accompanied by significant cervical lymphadenopathy

A

hpv assoc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
The histology of this invasive oropharyngeal tumor is characterized by the proliferation of nests and lobules of nonkeratinizing and basaloid cells
HPV-associated SCC
26
Immunohistochemical detection of strong ____ protein expression can serve as a marker for HPV-associated SCC
p16
27
originates around the crown of an unerupted tooth as a result of fluid accumulation between the developing tooth and the dental follicle. Histologically, they are lined by a thin layer of stratified squamous epithelium, and there is frequently a dense chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate in surrounding connective tissue
dentigerous cyst
28
well-defined unilocular or multilocular radiolucencies with a lining consisting of a thin layer of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium with a prominent basal cell layer and a corrugated epithelial surface. it is locally aggressive
keratocystic odontogenic tumor
29
keratocystic odontogenic tumor is usually solitary so multiple cysts should be evaluated for this syndrome
nevoid basal cell carcinoma (Gorlin syndrome)
30
mutations associated with nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin syndrome)
PTCH (Patched), chromosome 9q22
31
common inflammatory lesion found at the tooth apex. The cysts develop as a result of long- standing inflammation of the tooth (pulpitis), often secondary to advanced carious lesions or local trauma. Over time, granulation tissue may develop, with subsequent epithelialization that results in a cyst
radicular cyst
32
two most common and clinically significant odontogenic tumors
odontoma and ameloblastoma
33
most common odontogenic tumor, arises from epithelium and is associated with extensive enamel and dentin deposition. These lesions probably represent hamartomas rather than true neoplasms and are cured by local excision.
odontoma
34
arises from odontogenic epithelium and does not display ectomesenchymal differentiation. It is cystic, slow growing, and locally invasive with a typically indolent course. Treatment requires wide surgical resection to prevent recurrence.
ameloblastoma
35
T/F most people with nasal polyps are atopic
false, only 0.5% of atopic people have nasal polyps
36
a benign, highly vascular tumor that arises within the fibrovascular stroma of the posterolateral wall of the roof of the nasal cavity and occurs almost exclusively in adolescent males who are often fair-skinned and red headed
nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
37
mutation present in the majority of nasopharyngeal angiofibromas
CTNNB1 (beta-catenin)
38
Sinonasal papilloma occurs in 3 forms: in descending order of frequency
exophytic endophytic (inverted) oncocytic
39
Most endophytic sinonasal papillomas have mutations in _____ the remaining harbor _____
EGFR, HPV DNA, 6 and 11
40
Sinonasal papilloma is a benign neoplasm arising from the
respiratory or Schneiderian mucosa lining the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses
41
arise from neuroectodermal olfactory cells within the mucosa, particularly in the superior aspect of the nasal cavity are small, blue, round cell neoplasms typically composed of well-circumscribed nests and lobules of cells separated by fibrovascular stroma
Olfactory Neuroblastoma (Esthesioneuroblastoma)
42
carcinoma uniformly associated with translocations that fuse genes encoding chimeric proteins composed of a chromatin regulator, and a portion of a “chromatin reader” protein, usually BRD4.
NUT midline carcinoma
43
T/F nasopharyngeal carcinoma is characterized by a distinctive geographic distribution, a close anatomic relationship to lymphoid tissue, and an association with EBV infection
T
44
3 patterns of nasopharyngeal carcinoma
keratinizing non-keratinizing basaloid
45
three principal factors that influence development of nasopharyngeal carcinomas are
heredity age EBV infection
46
refers to laryngotracheobronchitis in children that produces a characteristic inspiratory stridor due to airway narrowing
croup
47
develop in the vocal cords often in smokers/ those who strain their voice often, covered by squamous epithelium that may become keratotic, hyperplastic, or even slightly dysplastic overlying a loose myxoid connective tissue core. The latter may be variably fibrotic, fibrinous, or highly vascularized
Reactive Nodules (bilateral) Polyps (unilateral)
48
mutiple laryngeal lesions in children which are caused by HPV types 6 and 11 acquired via the maternal birth canal
juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis
49
T/F Nondysplastic hyperplasias in the larynx have almost no potential for malignant transformation
True
50
most common risk factor for laryngeal carcinoma
tobacco smoke
51
these ear cysts are typically 1 to 4 cm in diameter, lined by keratinizing squamous or metaplastic mucus-secreting epithelium, and filled with amorphous, keratinous debris
cholesteatoma
52
refers to abnormal bone deposition in the middle ear about the rim of the oval window into which the footplate of the stapes fits
Otosclerosis
53
benign lesions usually appear on the upper lateral aspect of the neck along the sternocleidomastoid muscle, lined by stratified squamous or pseudostratified columnar epithelium. The fibrous cyst walls typically contain lymphoid tissue with prominent germinal centers. Cyst contents may be clear and watery or mucinous and may also contain desquamated cells and granular cellular debris
branchial cysts
54
lined by stratified squamous epithelium when located near the base of the tongue or by pseudostratified columnar epithelium in lower locations The fibrous cyst wall often includes lymphoid aggregates or thyroid remnants.
thyroglossal duct cyst
55
also called carotid body tumors
paraganglioma
56
occur frequently in both hereditary and spontaneous paragangliomas
loss-of-function mutations in genes encoding succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) subunits
57
Nests (zellballen) of round to oval chief cells with abundant, clear or granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm and uniform, round to ovoid, sometimes vesicular, nuclei are surrounded by delicate vascular septae
paraganglioma
58
The supporting network of spindle-shaped stromal cells in paragangliomas, collectively called ________, are positive for S-100 protein
sustentacular cells
59
paragangliomas that occur with the adrenal (pheochromocytomas) are associated with the familial _____
MEN2
60
paragangliomas that occur in association with hereditary paraganglioma syndromes (PGL1-4, SDH deficient), usually involve the _____
head and neck
61
T/F Paragangliomas with succinate dehydrogenase A (SDHA) mutations are associated with the highest rates of metastasis (30% to 50%)
False, succinate dehydrogenase B (SDHB)
62
Hereditary head and neck paragangliomas are associated with____ mutations, occur at younger ages, are often multiple, and can be malignant
succinate dehydrogenase gene mutations
63
are these glands mostly serous, mucinous, or mixed? parotid submandibular sublingual
parotid - serous submandibular - mixed, mostly serous sublingual - mixed, mostly mucous
64
most prevalent form of sialadenitis
mucocele
65
most common viral cause of sialadenitis
mumps
66
most often found on the lower lip as the result of trauma, occur at all ages, and present as fluctuant lower lip swellings with a blue translucent hue. They are pseudocysts lined by inflammatory granulation tissue or fibrous connective tissue and filled with mucin and inflammatory cells, particularly macrophages
mucocele
67
____ are epithelial-lined cysts that arise when the duct of the sublingual gland has been damaged
ranula
68
T/F the malignant potential of salivary gland tumors is inversely proportional to gland size, with smaller glands harboring greater numbers of cancers
True
69
the most common salivary gland neoplasm
Pleomorphic adenoma (PA)
70
PA are most commonly seen in the _____ gland
parotid
71
Many cases of PA are associated with chromosomal rearrangements that induce overexpression of
PLAG1
72
In PA cases that lack PLAG overexpression mutations of ____ are usually present
HMGA2
73
The dominant histologic feature of this salivary tumor is morphologic heterogeneity. The epithelial elements resembling ductal cells or myoepithelial cells are arranged as ducts, acini, irregular tubules, strands, or sheets of cells. and are typically dispersed within a background of loose myxoid and hyaline tissue containing islands of cartilage and, rarely, foci of bone
pleomorphic adenoma
74
second most common salivary gland neoplasm that arises almost exclusively in the parotid gland
warthin tumor
75
risk for development of a warthin tumor are increased by 8 fold in
smokers
76
round to oval encapsulated mass with a lining that is composed of a double layer of oncocytic cells; the innermost layer is columnar, while cuboidal cells occupy the outer layer, usually in a lymphoid stroma
warthin tumor
77
most common primary malignant tumor of salivary glands
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
78
fusion protein that is believed to play a key role in the genesis of mucoepidermoid carcinoma
CRTC1-MAML2
79
this salivary tumor demonstrates cords, sheets, or cystic configurations of squamous, mucous, or intermediate cells that have squamous features and small to large mucus-filled vacuoles
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
80
small, poorly encapsulated, infiltrative, gray-pink lesions composed of small cells with dark, compact nuclei and scant cytoplasm.The tumor cells are organized in a cribriform growth pattern that resembles swiss cheese.The spaces between the tumor cells are often filled with hyaline material thought to represent excess basement membrane
adenoid cystic carcinoma
81
gene rearrangement present in a subset of adenoid cystic carcinomas
MYB-NFIB
82
T/F Adenoid cystic carcinomas arising in the parotid tend to have a poorer prognosis than those arising in the minor salivary glands
False, poorer prognosis if in minor salivary glands
83
The cytoplasm of cells of acinic cell carcinomas contain purple granules called
zymogen granules
84
Eosinophilic, granular to vacuolated cytoplasm with no zymogen granules. Tubular, papillary and cystic growth. Sometimes has distinctive eosinophilic secretions in lumina.
secretory carcinoma
85
fusion gene associated with secretory carcinoma
ETV6-NTRK3
86
Solid, trabecular, or tubular growth Perpendicular basal cells on outside of nests Epithelial cells on inside of nests pleomorphic adenoma without the stroma
basal cell adenoma / monomorphic adenoma
87
translocations common in acinic cell carcinomas
NR4A3 translocations