Role of ... Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

What does gross pathology refer to?

A

Refers to the macroscopic assessment of pathology specimens (manifestations of disease in organs, tissues, body cavities etc)

Can be seen with naked eye; patient, surgical specimen, X-ray, autopsy

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2
Q

What different levels do histopathologists look at?

A
  • Gross pathology (naked eye)
  • Microscopy (histology, cytology)
  • Molecular pathology (DNA, RNA, proteins)
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3
Q

Who are histopathologists?

A

Doctors who diagnose and study disease using expert medical interpretation of cells and tissue samples.

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in the UK?

A

Bleeding

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5
Q

How do histopathologists assess tumours?

A

Confirm tumour present

Type of tumour

Stage of tumour

Grade of tumour

Surgical margin status

Lymph node status

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6
Q

What is the KRAS mutation?

A

Mutation present in up to 25% of all human tumours, and this is one of the most frequently activated oncogenes.

(usually present in bowel cancer)

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7
Q

What is anti-EGFR treatment?

A

Anti-epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) have been firmly established as essential drugs for the treatment of metastatic colorectal cancer (CRC).

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8
Q

What is haematology?

A

Study of diseases of the blood, bone marrow and lymphoid organs

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9
Q

What does the presence of immature blast cells indicate?

A

Can indicate AML –> Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

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10
Q

What are the common findings for AML?

A
  • Reduced Hb (anaemia)
  • Raised white count (leukocytosis)
  • Reduced platelet count (thrombocytopenia)
  • Presence of immature blast cells in blood
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11
Q

What are common symptoms for AML?

A
  • Fatigue, paleness, shortness of breath (low RBC)
  • Bruising, rash on hands and feet (low platelets)

Early signs may appear similar to influenza

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12
Q

What is cell morphology?

A

Identifying the shape, structure, form, and size of cells

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13
Q

What is part of the major haemorrhage protocol?

A

Give patient transfusion of RBCs, platelets and fresh frozen plasma

Monitor their full blood count and clotting to guide further transfusions

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14
Q

What can be used to try and reverse the effects of anticoagulants (e.g. in case of major haemorrhage)?

A

Use prothrombin complex concentrate

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15
Q

What is myeloma?

A

A type of bone marrow cancer

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16
Q

What is treatment for haemophilia A?

A

Factor 8 replacement throughout childhood to reduce damage from repeated bleeds into joints and will need additional doses if he suffers any injuries or bleeding

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17
Q

What is CAR-T treatment?

A

New treatment that modifies patient’s own T cells to allow them to recognise and attack their cancer cells

  1. T cells collected from patient
  2. T cells are modified (so they express receptor that targets cancer cell)
  3. Reinfused into patient
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18
Q

IgG 2.3 g/l (6-16)
IgA >0.06 g/l (0.8-4)
IgM 0.1 g/l (0.5-2)

Inadequate levels of anti-pneumococcal Ab

Low levels of memory B cells, normal T cell numbers

What would diagnosis be?

A

Common variable immunodeficiency

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19
Q

What is common variable immunodeficiency?

A

An antibody deficiency that leaves the immune system unable to defend against bacteria and viruses, resulting in recurrent and often severe infections primarily affecting the ears, sinuses, and respiratory tract.

20
Q

What is treatment for common variable immunodeficiency?

A

Immunoglobulin replacement (plasma derived)

21
Q

What is TNF Receptor Associated Periodic Syndrome (TRAPS)?

A

A rare genetic disease with episodes of recurrent fever; abdominal, chest, and muscle pain; red and swollen eyes; and a typical rash lasting for more than one week.

22
Q

Symptoms of TRAPS?

A

Episodes of recurrent fever; abdominal, chest, and muscle pain; red and swollen eyes; and a typical rash lasting for more than one week.

23
Q

What you expect CRP levels to be like in TRAPS?

24
Q

Is Staphylococcus epidermis gram positive or negative?

A

Gram positive

25
What is Staphylococcus epidermis? How can it cause disease?
It is part of the normal human flora, typically the skin flora, but can cause infection if enters the bloodstream --> can cause acute cases of sepsis
26
What is Staphylococcus epidermis a common cause of?
Prosthetic joint infection
27
What is 'community acquired' pneumonia?
You get infected in a community setting. It doesn't happen in a hospital, nursing home, or other healthcare centre
28
Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa gram positive or gram negative?
Gram negative
29
What is Pseudomonas aeruginosa a common cause of? Where is this bacteria typically spread?
It is the most common pathogen isolated from patients who have been hospitalised longer than 1 week. It is a frequent cause of nosocomial infections such as pneumonia, urinary tract infections (UTIs) etc HOSPITAL ACQUIRED INFECTION
30
Is Pseudomonas a common cause of community acquired pneumonia?
No - common cause of hospital acquired infection
31
Is Enterococcus gram positive or negative?
Gram positive
32
Where is Enterococcus found?
Enterococcus is a type of bacteria that is typically present in the gut and bowel
33
What can Enterococcus cause?
The bacteria can cause infection in people when it enters wounds, blood, or urine - is a common faecal contaminant
34
Is Streptococcus pneumoniae gram positive or negative?
Gram positive
35
Which bacteria is responsible for the majority of community-acquired pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
36
Where is Streptococcus pneumoniae normally found? Does it always cause disease?
Most commonly found in the human upper respiratory tract - can carry this bacteria without causing disease
37
How can antibiotics affect urine samples?
May make culture results false 'negative'
38
What is endocarditis?
An infection of the endocardium, which is the inner lining of your heart chambers and heart valves
39
Is Streptococcus mitis gram positive or negative?
Gram positive
40
Where is streptococcus mitis bacteria typically found? How can it cause infection?
It is most commonly found in the throat, nasopharynx, and mouth. Bacteria may spread spread through your bloodstream and attach to damaged areas in your heart --> can cause endocarditis
41
What can protein in pregnancy urine potentially indicate?
Can be a sign of pre-eclampsia, along with high blood pressure
42
How can you decide what antibiotic is right for a urine infection?
Send for a urine sample culture
43
What is Vancomycin?
An antibiotic
44
What is Vancomycin effective against?
Gram positive infections only
45
Is E-coli gram positive or negative?
Gram negative
46
What antibiotic is typically used in MRSA cases?
Teicoplanin (treatment of Gram positive)
47
How handles antibiotic treatments?
Microbiologists