RT 3000 Final Exam Flashcards

Question

T or F: Cancer modifies the way the body metabolizes carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

Answer 1

True. "Malignant tumors can alter enzyme activity and immune system. Cancer alters energy expenditure and basal metabolism, which resilts in changes in carbohydrate, lipid, and protein metabolism."

Answer 2

True. A PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter) line is used to give chemotherapy or other treatments. A PICC line is a long, thin, hollow, flexible tube.

Answer 3

True. Chest tube drainage receptacles should be kept on the patient's bed or bedside table to prevent them from being accidentally tipped over, as they must always be positioned below the patient's chest level to facilitate proper drainage.

Answer 4

True. A PEG-J tube (percutaneous endoscopic gastrojejunostomy) is a tube that is placed through the skin of the abdomen into the stomach, and through the stomach into the small intestine (jejunum). The PEG-J tube contains two tubes in one.

Answer 5

True. A balloon at the tip of a urinary catheter, often called a Foley catheter, is inflated once it is inside the bladder to secure its position and prevent it from slipping out. The inflated balloon acts as an anchor within the bladder, holding the catheter in place.

Answer 6

True. Cachexia accounts for 20% of all cancer-related deaths and is a sign of poor prognosis.

Answer 7

True. Generic and brand names must be unique to prevent one drug from being mistaken for another when drugs are prescribed and prescriptions are dispensed. To prevent this possible confusion, the FDA must agree to every proposed brand name.

Answer 8

False. Depending on the severity of side effects, patients may need to adjust their diet by eating smaller meals more frequently, choosing low-fiber foods, limiting greasy foods, and staying hydrated.

Answer 9

False. Nosocomial infections are the 8th leading cause of death in the U.S.

Answer 10

True. A CVA, which stands for "cerebrovascular accident" or stroke, occurs when blood flow to the brain is blocked, essentially meaning an occlusion of the blood supply to the brain.

Answer 11

False. Cord compressions at C-3 or above are considered life-threatening because they can affect the nerves controlling breathing, potentially causing respiratory failure if not treated immediately.

Answer 12

True. The definitive treatment options for a patient presenting with MSCC are surgery, radiotherapy or symptom control.

Answer 13

False. For mild orthostatic hypotension (postural hypotension), one of the simplest treatments is to sit or lie back down immediately after feeling lightheaded upon standing.

Answer 14

False. Erythema refers to the reddening of the skin in response to radiation exposure. Epilation refers to hair loss, not skin reddening, which is called erythema; both are potential effects of radiation exposure, but epilation specifically means hair loss.

Answer 15

True. A double contrast barium enema involves injecting both barium (a contrast liquid) and air into the colon to create a better visualization of the colon wall during an X-ray examination; the "double contrast" refers to the different appearances of the barium and air on the X-ray image.

Answer 16

True. Paracentesis is a procedure that drains excess fluid called ascites from your abdomen. Ascites occur when fluid collects in a membrane called your peritoneum. Peritoneal fluid is the fluid in the cavity space between the wall of the abdomen and organs. Analysis of ascetic fluid post paracentesis is of diagnostic value in patients with new onset ascites. Causes of interest are those of suspected infection (bacterial peritonitis) and of suspected malignancy. A paracentesis is a procedure that involves removing ascitic fluid from the peritoneal cavity using a sterile technique.

Answer 17

False. An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is an x-ray examination of the kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder that uses iodinated contrast material injected into veins.

Answer 18

True. The Joint Commission established the Universal Protocol as a part of their National Patient Safety Goals, specifically designed to prevent wrong site, wrong procedure, and wrong person surgery. The Universal Protocol outlines key steps like pre-procedure verification, surgical site marking, and a "time-out" procedure to ensure patient safety during surgical interventions, making it a crucial component of the National Patient Safety Goals.

Answer 19

True. An endoscope is a device that goes inside your body to take pictures or videos of organs and other structures. Bronchoscopy is a type of endoscopy. Like all endoscopic procedures, it's a way for your doctor to see inside your body without surgery.

Answer 20

True. A cystoscopy is a medical procedure where a doctor uses a thin, lighted tube called a cystoscope to examine the inside of the urinary bladder and urethra. This procedure is often used to diagnose conditions like bladder infections, bladder stones, or bladder cancer.

Answer 21

True. Radiation side effects can occur at lower doses when a patient has undergone chemotherapy in addition to radiation therapy. This is because chemotherapy can sensitize tissues to radiation, making them more vulnerable to damage. This phenomenon is known as radiosensitization, and it is a common consideration in combined treatment plans for cancer.

Answer 22

True. "% of weight changes is the most accurate measure of nutritional status" - Slide 21 of Patient Assessment Lecture

Answer 23

True. The normal range of hemoglobin is generally higher for men than for women. This difference is due to factors such as hormonal variations, particularly the effects of testosterone, which stimulates red blood cell production. Typical hemoglobin ranges are approximately: Men: 13.8–17.2 g/dL Women: 12.1–15.1 g/dL

Answer 24

True. Conscious sedation, also known as moderate sedation, induces an altered state of consciousness where the patient remains awake and responsive but relaxed and free from pain or anxiety. When administered correctly, it typically does not interfere significantly with cardiac or respiratory function. However, careful monitoring is essential, as some individuals may experience mild effects on these systems depending on the sedative used and their underlying health conditions.

Answer 25

False. The normal heart rate for children and infants is higher than that of adults. Infants and young children have faster metabolic rates and smaller hearts, which require a higher heart rate to maintain adequate blood circulation. Typical heart rate ranges are: Infants (0–1 year): 100–160 beats per minute (bpm) Children (1–10 years): 70–120 bpm Adults: 60–100 bpm

Answer 26

False. Side effects from radiation therapy are not treated in a standard fashion by all physicians. The management of side effects is highly individualized and depends on factors such as the type, location, and dose of radiation, as well as the patient's overall health and specific symptoms. Physicians tailor treatments to address each patient's unique needs, which may include medications, lifestyle modifications, or supportive therapies. Additionally, clinical guidelines may vary, and physician preferences or expertise can influence treatment approaches.

Answer 27

True. Moist desquamation is a more severe skin reaction than erythema. Erythema is an earlier, milder skin reaction to radiation, characterized by redness, warmth, and possible mild discomfort due to increased blood flow in the affected area. Moist desquamation occurs when the skin's outer layer breaks down, leading to weeping, exposed dermis, and increased risk of infection. It typically develops after prolonged or high-dose radiation exposure. Management of moist desquamation often requires more intensive care to promote healing and prevent complications.

Answer 28

True. Cervical dysplasia, which refers to abnormal changes in the cells of the cervix, is considered a significant risk factor for cervical cancer. While not all cases of cervical dysplasia progress to cancer, it can develop into cervical cancer if left untreated, especially in cases of high-grade dysplasia. The primary cause of cervical dysplasia is persistent infection with high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly HPV types 16 and 18. Early detection through Pap smears and HPV testing is crucial for managing cervical dysplasia and reducing the risk of progression to cervical cancer.

Answer 29

True. Changes in vital signs—such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and temperature—can indicate underlying medical problems or changes in a patient's condition. For example: Elevated temperature may signal an infection. Tachycardia (increased heart rate) could indicate pain, fever, dehydration, or cardiac issues. Hypotension (low blood pressure) might suggest shock or blood loss. Changes in respiratory rate can reflect respiratory distress or metabolic imbalances. Monitoring and interpreting vital signs is essential for detecting and addressing potential health concerns promptly.

Answer 30

True. An excisional biopsy of the breast is commonly referred to as a lumpectomy. This procedure involves surgically removing a lump or abnormal tissue from the breast, often for diagnostic purposes or as part of treatment for breast cancer. While the term "lumpectomy" is typically used in the context of removing cancerous or suspicious tissue, the goal of an excisional biopsy is to obtain a definitive diagnosis by removing the entire lesion for pathological examination.

Answer 31

True. "Normal pulse for an adult is 60-90 beats/min"- Slide 17 in Vital Signs lecture

Answer 32

True. Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate (HR) greater than 100 beats per minute (BPM) in adults. It can occur due to various factors, such as fever, stress, anemia, dehydration, or underlying heart conditions. The specific threshold for tachycardia may vary slightly depending on the context, but a rate above 100 BPM is generally considered tachycardic in a resting adult.

Answer 33

False. The normal breathing rate for a resting adult is typically 12-20 breaths per minute. Rates above 20 breaths per minute may indicate tachypnea, which can be a sign of conditions like fever, anxiety, or respiratory distress. Conversely, a rate below 12 breaths per minute could indicate bradypnea, which might be associated with conditions such as respiratory depression.

Answer 34

True. Leukoplakia, which refers to white patches or plaques that form on the mucous membranes of the mouth, is a possible symptom of oral cancer. While leukoplakia itself is often benign, it can sometimes indicate precancerous changes or be associated with oral cancer, especially if the patches are persistent, thickened, or show signs of ulceration. It is important for individuals with leukoplakia to be evaluated by a healthcare provider to rule out or address any potential cancerous or precancerous conditions.

Answer 35

False. A radiation therapist is not typically authorized to administer oxygen unless they are specifically trained and the situation is within their scope of practice. Oxygen administration generally requires a physician's order or approval, and it should be done according to established medical protocols. If a radiation therapist observes a patient having trouble breathing, they should promptly notify the appropriate medical staff (such as a nurse or physician) to assess the situation and determine the necessary intervention.

Answer 36

True. Risk factors for prostate cancer include age and family history. As men age, their risk of developing prostate cancer increases, with most cases occurring in men over the age of 50. A family history of prostate cancer, especially if close relatives (such as a father or brother) have had the disease, also increases the risk. Other factors, such as race (with higher rates in African American men), diet, and lifestyle, can also influence the likelihood of developing prostate cancer.

Answer 37

False. Patients receiving radiation therapy to the abdominal and pelvic areas are typically advised to follow a low-fiber diet, not a high-fiber diet, during treatment. This is because radiation can irritate the gastrointestinal tract, and a low-fiber diet helps to reduce bowel irritation, gas, and diarrhea. High-fiber foods can be more difficult to digest and may exacerbate symptoms like diarrhea. Once the treatment is completed and symptoms improve, patients can gradually return to a normal diet, including fiber. Always, dietary recommendations should be personalized based on the patient's condition and treatment plan.

Answer 38

False. A bone marrow aspiration and a bone marrow biopsy are two distinct procedures, though they are often performed together. Bone marrow aspiration involves using a needle to withdraw a small sample of liquid bone marrow, typically from the hip bone, to examine the cells. Bone marrow biopsy involves removing a small piece of solid bone marrow tissue, often using a larger needle, to assess the structure of the marrow. Both procedures are used to diagnose conditions like leukemia, anemia, or other blood disorders, but they provide different types of information.

Answer 39

True. Signs are objective evidence of disease that can be observed or measured by a healthcare provider, such as a rash, fever, or abnormal heart sounds. Unlike symptoms, which are subjective experiences reported by the patient (like pain or fatigue), signs are observable and measurable indicators of a medical condition.

Answer 40

True. Keeping irradiated skin dry and free from friction can help reduce the risk of moist desquamation, which is a severe skin reaction that can occur after radiation therapy. Moist desquamation involves the breakdown of the skin's outer layers, leading to open sores and weeping skin. To prevent this, it's important to avoid excessive moisture, friction, and irritation in the treated area. Gentle skin care, including the use of mild cleansers and avoiding tight clothing or harsh rubbing, can help protect the skin and minimize the risk of complications.

Answer 41

False. Hydrocortisone creams or lotions should not be applied to irradiated skin immediately prior to radiation treatment without the guidance of a healthcare provider. While hydrocortisone can help reduce inflammation, applying it right before radiation therapy may interfere with the skin's response to the treatment or cause further irritation. It's important for patients to follow specific skincare instructions provided by their radiation oncologist or healthcare team, as certain creams or lotions may need to be avoided before treatment to prevent complications.

Answer 42

True. Acute reactions to radiation therapy, such as skin irritation, fatigue, or gastrointestinal discomfort, typically resolve within 4-6 weeks after completing treatment. These reactions occur because radiation affects healthy tissues as well as cancerous ones. While the acute side effects may be temporary, it's important for patients to follow their healthcare provider's recommendations for managing symptoms during and after treatment. In some cases, side effects may persist longer or lead to chronic issues, requiring further medical attention.

Answer 43

True. Radiation recall dermatitis is a skin reaction that occurs when radiation therapy is administered to an area of the skin that has previously been irradiated. This reaction can be triggered by chemotherapy or certain medications, which cause the skin in the previously irradiated area to become inflamed, red, or irritated. The reaction typically develops a few days or weeks after the new treatment and can range from mild to severe.

Answer 44

True. Head and neck cancer patients receiving radiation to the mouth should clean their mouths frequently to maintain good oral hygiene. Radiation therapy can lead to dry mouth (xerostomia), increased risk of infection, and other oral complications. Regular mouth care, including gentle brushing with a soft toothbrush, rinsing with water or a saline solution, and using fluoride treatments as recommended by the healthcare provider, can help reduce the risk of oral infections, cavities, and discomfort. It's important for patients to follow specific oral care guidelines provided by their healthcare team.

Answer 45

True. Thrush is a yeast infection caused by the overgrowth of Candida fungus, commonly affecting the oral mucosa. It results in white, creamy lesions on the tongue, inner cheeks, gums, or roof of the mouth. Thrush is more common in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those undergoing radiation therapy or chemotherapy. It can also occur in patients with dry mouth, diabetes, or those taking certain medications like antibiotics or corticosteroids.

Answer 46

True. The Radiation Therapist Standards of Practice is published by the American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT). These standards outline the professional and ethical responsibilities of radiation therapists, ensuring high-quality care and safe practices in radiation therapy. They serve as a guide for the education, practice, and professional development of radiation therapists.

Answer 47

True. Charges of medical negligence can be made if a patient is not given enough information prior to a medical procedure to make an informed decision about their own care. This is a violation of the informed consent process, which requires healthcare providers to explain the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a procedure in a way that the patient can understand. If a patient is not adequately informed and suffers harm as a result, it may constitute medical negligence or malpractice.

Answer 48

True. Practice standards define the role of the practitioner and establish criteria used to judge performance. These standards outline the expectations for professional behavior, competencies, and quality of care within a specific field. They serve as a guideline for practitioners to follow in their daily work and are also used to evaluate their performance to ensure safe, effective, and ethical practice.

Answer 49

True. Individuals with an external locus of control believe that outcomes, including their health, are largely influenced by external factors such as luck, fate, or the actions of others, rather than by their own efforts or decisions. They may feel that they have little control over events in their lives, including their health or well-being. In contrast, individuals with an internal locus of control believe they have the power to influence outcomes through their own actions and decisions.

Answer 50

True. Values are indeed expressed in behaviors, language, and the standards of conduct a person endorses or tries to maintain. They influence how individuals make decisions, interact with others, and prioritize various aspects of their lives. A person's values often guide their actions and reflect what they consider important, whether in personal relationships, work, or social settings.

Answer 51

True. Certification is a voluntary method of quality assurance that involves an institution or organization meeting specific standards set by an accrediting or certifying body. It demonstrates that the institution or service provider has met or exceeded established quality benchmarks, often in areas like safety, professionalism, and operational effectiveness. While certification is not legally required, it is a way to ensure that services are provided at a high standard and can help build trust with patients or clients.

Answer 52

False. The American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) is not the accreditation body for radiation therapy educational programs. The ARRT is responsible for certifying and registering radiologic technologists, including those in radiation therapy, after they have completed an accredited program. The accreditation body for radiation therapy educational programs is the Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology (JRCERT). JRCERT is responsible for accrediting radiation therapy programs and ensuring they meet the required educational standards.

Answer 53

True. If a person's private legal rights have been violated, civil law applies. Civil law deals with disputes between individuals or organizations, where one party seeks compensation or remedy for harm caused by the actions of another. This can include issues like breach of contract, property disputes, or violations of personal rights, such as defamation or negligence. In contrast, criminal law addresses offenses against the state or society, where the government prosecutes the accused.

Answer 54

False. A radiation therapist can be held liable for a criminal act in their professional practice. While the physician may have a role in supervising the treatment, the radiation therapist is still responsible for their own actions and can be held accountable for any criminal behavior or malpractice that occurs during the course of their work. This includes adhering to legal and ethical standards in their practice. Both the physician and the radiation therapist have individual responsibilities to ensure patient safety and comply with the law.

Answer 55

True. The student is personally liable for violations of HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) regulations, regardless of where the violations occur, whether in open access areas, the classroom, the clinic, or in course written assignments. HIPAA requires all individuals handling protected health information (PHI) to maintain confidentiality and follow privacy regulations. Students, like healthcare professionals, are responsible for safeguarding patient information and can be held accountable for any breaches of confidentiality, even if they occur outside of direct patient care settings.

Answer 56

True. All mobile and remote devices that contain confidential information or electronic Protected Health Information (ePHI), including home computers, should be password protected. This is essential for maintaining the security and confidentiality of sensitive data, as required by HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). Password protection, along with other security measures such as encryption, ensures that unauthorized individuals cannot access or disclose ePHI, reducing the risk of data breaches and ensuring compliance with privacy regulations.

Answer 57

True. Consequences for noncompliance with HIPAA regulations can include both civil and criminal penalties. Civil penalties are typically imposed for violations due to negligence and can include fines ranging from hundreds to thousands of dollars per violation, depending on the severity and number of violations. Criminal penalties are more severe and apply to intentional violations of HIPAA, such as accessing or disclosing ePHI without authorization. These penalties can include fines and, in more serious cases, imprisonment. The level of penalty depends on factors like the nature of the violation and whether it was committed knowingly or with malicious intent.

Answer 58

True. It is a violation of HIPAA regulations for a student to view a patient's chart without a valid medical, educational, or care-related reason. HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) mandates that access to protected health information (PHI) must be limited to individuals who need it to perform their job or educational duties. Viewing a patient's chart without a legitimate reason constitutes unauthorized access, which can result in serious penalties, including disciplinary action, fines, and potential legal consequences.

Answer 59

True. Criminal penalties for violating HIPAA include a $50,000 fine and up to 1 year in prison for knowingly obtaining and wrongfully sharing protected health information (PHI). These penalties apply when an individual intentionally accesses or discloses PHI without authorization. The severity of the penalty can increase depending on the nature of the violation, with higher fines and longer prison sentences for more egregious offenses, such as those involving intent to sell or misuse the information.

Answer 60

False. A profession is defined as a group of people in a learned occupation, the members of which agree to abide by specified rules of conduct when practicing. The core meaning of "vocation" is a person's individual calling or strong sense of purpose in a career, often with a connotation of higher meaning or societal value.

Answer 61

False. Beneficence and nonmaleficence are related but distinct ethical principles. Beneficence refers to the obligation to do good, promote the well-being of others, and take actions that benefit patients or individuals. It emphasizes the positive duty to help and improve others' situations. Nonmaleficence refers to the obligation to do no harm and avoid causing injury or suffering to others. It emphasizes the negative duty to prevent harm. While both principles aim to protect and improve the well-being of individuals, they focus on different aspects of ethical behavior in healthcare and other professions.

Answer 62

False. When conducting research on humans, it is not important to identify them by using their full names; instead, ethical practice usually involves using pseudonyms or identifiers to protect participant confidentiality and anonymity. When conducting research on humans, it is important to protect their privacy and confidentiality. Identifying participants by their full names is generally avoided to ensure their anonymity and protect sensitive information. Researchers typically use coded identifiers or pseudonyms to maintain confidentiality and comply with ethical standards and regulations like HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) and IRB (Institutional Review Board) guidelines. Full names should only be used when absolutely necessary and with the participant's consent.

Answer 63

Analgesic A patient who is experiencing pain from bone metastases may be prescribed an analgesic. Analgesics are medications specifically designed to relieve pain. For bone metastases, analgesics like opioids or non-opioid pain relievers may be prescribed, depending on the severity of the pain. In some cases, corticosteroids may also be used to reduce inflammation and swelling, which can help alleviate pain. However, analgesics are the primary treatment for pain management.

Answer 64

Superior vena cava syndrome The signs of swelling of the head, neck, and upper extremities, skin discoloration, and dyspnea are indicative of superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS). SVCS occurs when there is a blockage or compression of the superior vena cava, the large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart. This condition can lead to symptoms such as swelling in the upper body, difficulty breathing (dyspnea), and skin discoloration due to impaired blood flow. It is often associated with cancers, particularly lung cancer or lymphoma, that can compress or invade the superior vena cava.

Answer 65

Protective isolation A patient who is hospitalized and receiving total body irradiation (TBI) in preparation for a bone marrow transplant will be placed in protective isolation. Protective isolation (also known as reverse isolation) is used to protect immunocompromised patients, such as those undergoing bone marrow transplants, from infections. Since TBI can significantly weaken the immune system, protective isolation helps reduce the risk of infection by limiting exposure to potential pathogens.

Answer 66

All of the above

Answer 67

3 Phase 3 clinical trials use randomized prospective controlled studies to compare a new treatment intervention with the current standard of care. These trials are designed to gather more comprehensive data on the effectiveness and safety of a new treatment in a larger patient population, often involving multiple centers. If the results are positive, Phase 3 trials provide the evidence needed for regulatory approval of the new treatment.

Answer 68

They are kept confidential and shared only with researchers. The statement that is not true about study protocols is: "They are kept confidential and shared only with researchers." Study protocols are typically shared with relevant regulatory bodies, ethics committees, and other stakeholders, such as funding agencies or institutional review boards (IRBs), to ensure that the study meets ethical and scientific standards. While certain details may be confidential, the protocol is generally not kept solely within the research team. It is intended to be transparent and subject to review by various oversight entities.

Answer 69

Participation is mandatory once the consent is signed. The statement that is not correct about an informed consent for a clinical trial is: "Participation is mandatory once the consent is signed." Participation in a clinical trial is voluntary and can be withdrawn at any time, even after the consent is signed. Signing the informed consent does not mean the participant is obligated to continue with the trial. The consent process is meant to ensure that participants are fully informed about the study's risks, benefits, and alternatives, and that they understand their right to withdraw at any point without penalty.

Answer 70

All of the above

Answer 71

All of the above

Answer 72

a and c only Benefits to using hyperthermia include: Heat is effective on hypoxic cells: Hyperthermia can make hypoxic (low oxygen) tumor cells more sensitive to radiation therapy, as heat can improve oxygenation and make these cells more susceptible to treatment. Heat increases tumor vascularity: Hyperthermia can increase blood flow to the tumor, improving the delivery of oxygen and chemotherapy agents, which can enhance the effectiveness of treatments. However, heat does not enhance the repair of radiation therapy damage. In fact, heat can sometimes impair the repair of radiation-induced damage, making it more effective in combination with radiation.

Answer 73

Mycosis fungoides Total Skin Irradiation (TSI) is usually used to treat advanced cases of mycosis fungoides. Mycosis fungoides is a type of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, a cancer that primarily affects the skin. TSI is used to deliver radiation to the entire skin surface to treat this condition, especially in advanced stages where localized treatments are not effective.

Answer 74

Multiple sites of bone metastasis Hemibody irradiation may be used to treat multiple sites of bone metastasis. Hemibody irradiation is a form of radiation therapy that targets one half of the body, typically used for patients with widespread bone metastases. This treatment helps to reduce pain and control the spread of cancer to multiple areas of the body. It is not typically used for superior vena cava syndrome, mycosis fungoides, or acute lymphocytic leukemia.

Answer 75

Acute lymphocytic leukemia Total body irradiation (TBI) may be used as treatment for acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL). TBI is often part of the conditioning regimen before a bone marrow or stem cell transplant for patients with certain cancers, including ALL. It helps to destroy cancerous cells and suppress the immune system to prepare the body for the transplant. TBI is not typically used for multiple sites of bone metastasis, superior vena cava syndrome, or mycosis fungoides.

Answer 76

a and b The correct answer is a & b (Ulceration and Lymphedema). Radiation-induced fibrosis (RIF) is a common late side effect of radiation therapy, where the affected tissues become stiff and scarred over time. The clinical presentation of RIF can include: Ulceration: This can occur in areas where the skin or mucosal tissues have been irradiated and become damaged over time. Lymphedema: Radiation can damage the lymphatic system, leading to fluid buildup and swelling, particularly in the affected area. Excessive energy is not typically associated with RIF.

Answer 77

a, b, & c The correct answer is a, b & c (Paralysis, Lymphedema, and Sensory Pain). Radiation-induced brachial plexopathy (RIBP) is a condition caused by radiation damage to the brachial plexus, a network of nerves controlling the arm and hand. Symptoms of RIBP can include: Paralysis: Loss of movement or weakness in the arm or hand due to nerve damage. Lymphedema: Swelling due to lymphatic system disruption, which can occur in the arm or shoulder area. Sensory Pain: Pain, numbness, or tingling sensations in the arm or hand as a result of nerve damage. These symptoms can vary in severity depending on the extent of the radiation damage.

Answer 78

The correct answer is Neuropathic. Neuropathic pain is often characterized by a burning, shock-like, or tingling sensation. It results from damage to the nerves themselves, and can be caused by various conditions, including radiation therapy, diabetes, or nerve injury. This type of pain is distinct from somatic pain (which is related to injury to tissues like muscles or skin) and visceral pain (which originates from internal organs).

Answer 79

The correct term is tolerance. Tolerance refers to the need for a larger dose of a medication over time to achieve the same level of pain relief, as the body becomes accustomed to the drug. This can occur with medications like opioids, which are commonly used for pain management. Dependence refers to the physical adaptation to a drug, where withdrawal symptoms occur if the drug is suddenly reduced or stopped. Addiction involves psychological and behavioral patterns, where a person may compulsively seek and use the drug despite negative consequences.

Answer 80

The correct term is addiction. Addiction refers to the psychological craving for a substance, such as opioids, even when the original reason for use (like pain relief) is no longer present. This can lead to compulsive use and seeking of the drug, despite harmful consequences. Tolerance refers to needing larger doses of the drug to achieve the same effect. Dependence refers to physical reliance on the drug, where withdrawal symptoms occur if the drug is stopped or reduced.

Answer 81

The correct term is dependence. Dependence refers to the physical symptoms (abstinence syndrome) that occur when an individual reduces or stops using opioids after prolonged use. These symptoms can include sweating, shaking, nausea, and other discomforts associated with withdrawal. Tolerance refers to the need for increasing doses of the drug to achieve the same effect. Addiction involves the psychological craving and compulsive use of the drug, often despite negative consequences.

Answer 82

The correct answer is All the above. Opioids can be administered through various methods, including: PO (Oral): Opioids can be taken by mouth in the form of tablets, capsules, or liquid. Continuous Infusion: Opioids can be delivered continuously through an intravenous (IV) infusion, often in a hospital setting for pain management. Patch: Some opioids, such as fentanyl, can be delivered through a transdermal patch, providing continuous pain relief over a period of time. PCA (Patient-Controlled Analgesia): PCA allows patients to administer their own doses of opioid medication via an IV pump, providing control over pain management while preventing overdose. These methods offer flexibility in pain management depending on the patient's needs and clinical situation.

Answer 83

The correct answer is: The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938. The federal law that governs the labeling, availability, and dispensing of drugs in the U.S. is called the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938. While the Controlled Substances Act of 1971 regulates specific controlled substances, the broader oversight of drug labeling and availability falls under the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act. The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 governs the labeling, availability, and dispensing of drugs in the U.S. It established requirements for drug safety, labeling, and approval processes for new drugs. The Controlled Substances Act of 1971 regulates the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of drugs that have the potential for abuse, such as opioids and other controlled substances. CFR Title 45, part 46 pertains to the protection of human subjects in research and is not directly related to the labeling or dispensing of drugs.

Answer 84

The correct answer is retrospective studies. Retrospective studies review and analyze data that have already been collected in the past. These studies typically look back at historical data, such as medical records or previous surveys, to find correlations or patterns related to a particular condition or treatment. Past cohorts' studies is not a commonly used term in research. Baseline surveys refer to data collected at the start of a study, often for comparison with future data. Prospective series involves collecting data going forward in time, starting from the point of the study. Case series refers to a descriptive study of a group of patients with a particular condition, often without a control group.

Answer 85

All of the above

Answer 86

The correct answer is All of the above. According to Chitty, the criteria for a profession include: A vital service is provided to society: Professions contribute significantly to the well-being of society. Education takes place in an institution of higher learning: Professionals typically receive specialized education in accredited institutions. Practitioners are accountable and responsible: Professionals are held to high standards of accountability and responsibility in their practice. A professional organization oversees and supports standards of practice: A professional organization is responsible for establishing and maintaining standards of practice within the field. These elements collectively define a profession.

Answer 87

"TIAB" stands for "Title/Abstract," which is a search term used in databases like PubMed to limit search results to only include articles where the specified keywords appear in the title and abstract of the publication.

Answer 88

Medical Subject Heading The Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) thesaurus is a controlled and hierarchically-organized vocabulary produced by the National Library of Medicine.

Answer 89

Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews The Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews (CDSR) is a leading resource for high-quality, evidence-based health care research. It contains systematic reviews of primary research in human health care and policy, and is part of the Cochrane Library, which is widely used by researchers, clinicians, and policymakers to inform decisions based on the best available evidence.

Answer 90

The correct answer is accreditation agencies. Accreditation agencies protect radiologic science students by ensuring that the educational programs they attend meet standardized criteria. These agencies evaluate and accredit programs based on established educational standards, ensuring quality and consistency in training. This helps students receive a comprehensive education that prepares them for professional practice in radiologic science.

Answer 91

The correct answer is culture. Culture refers to all the socially transmitted behaviors, beliefs, arts, customs, and products of human work and thought that are characteristic of a particular population or society. It encompasses language, traditions, values, norms, and practices that are passed down from one generation to the next.

Answer 92

The correct answer is ethnicity. Ethnicity refers to groups of people who are classed according to common racial, national, tribal, religious, or linguistic origin or background. It focuses on shared cultural practices, traditions, and a sense of belonging to a particular group.

Answer 93

The correct answer is race. Race refers to a population that differs from others in the relative frequency of some gene or genes. It is often associated with physical characteristics such as skin color, facial features, and hair type, but it is important to note that race is a social construct with no distinct biological basis.

Answer 94

The correct answer is Implied consent. Implied consent occurs when a patient agrees to a procedure through their actions, such as showing up for a scheduled treatment and not objecting to it. In this case, the patient's continued participation in the treatment process is interpreted as consent, even though they haven't explicitly stated it.

Answer 95

All of the above

Answer 96

The correct answer is administering treatment against a patient's will. Battery is an intentional tort that occurs when physical contact is made with a person without their consent. Administering treatment against a patient's will, such as performing a procedure or giving medication without consent, would constitute battery. The other options, while potentially involving errors or negligence, do not directly involve the intentional physical contact or violation of consent that defines battery.

Answer 97

The correct answer is the physician. The physician is primarily responsible for obtaining informed consent from the patient. This involves explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives, ensuring that the patient understands the information, and giving their voluntary consent. While other healthcare professionals, such as nurses or radiation therapists, may assist in the process or provide additional information, the ultimate responsibility for obtaining informed consent lies with the physician.

Answer 98

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

Answer 99

The correct answer is Protect individuals' medical records and other personal health information. The primary purpose of HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) is to protect the privacy and security of individuals' medical records and other personal health information. HIPAA sets national standards for the protection of health information, ensuring that sensitive data is kept confidential and secure, both in physical and electronic forms.

Answer 100

All of the above

Answer 101

Submit a complaint to the privacy official where the breach occurred.

Answer 102

All of the above

Answer 103

The correct answer is discrimination. Discrimination refers to the unequal treatment or actions taken against people based on their belonging to a certain category, group, or race. It involves physical actions, behaviors, or practices that treat individuals unfairly based on characteristics such as race, ethnicity, gender, or other factors.

Answer 104

The correct answer is Case law. Case law is created from court decisions and judicial rulings. It is also known as common law and evolves over time as courts interpret and apply laws in specific cases. These decisions can set precedents that influence future legal rulings. Constitutional law refers to laws derived from the Constitution. Statutory law refers to laws created by legislative bodies, such as statutes or acts.

Answer 105

The correct answer is civil law. Medical malpractice is a type of civil law case, where a patient sues a healthcare provider for negligence or failure to meet the standard of care, resulting in harm or injury. Civil law deals with disputes between individuals or entities, and the goal is typically to compensate the injured party rather than to punish the wrongdoer, which distinguishes it from criminal law.

Answer 106

The correct answer is osmolality. Osmolality is the measure of the total number of particles (such as ions, molecules, or atoms) in a solution per kilogram of solvent (typically water). It is used to describe the concentration of solute particles in a solution, which is important in various physiological and chemical processes.

Answer 107

The correct answer is intramuscular. Vaccines are most commonly administered via the intramuscular route, where the vaccine is injected into the muscle, typically in the upper arm (deltoid) or thigh. Some vaccines can also be given subcutaneously or intradermally, depending on the type of vaccine, but intramuscular injection is the most common method.

Answer 108

The correct answer is capsule. A capsule is a form of medication that contains powdered or liquid medication inside a gelatin shell. It is designed to be swallowed whole and dissolves in the stomach to release the medication.

Answer 109

The correct answer is antiemetic. An antiemetic is a medication prescribed to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting, which are common side effects of radiation and chemotherapy treatments. These drugs help to control the symptoms and improve the patient's comfort during treatment.

Answer 110

The correct answer is antifungal. Thrush, a fungal infection caused by Candida species, is a common side effect of radiation therapy, especially when it affects the mouth. It is typically treated with antifungal medications, which help to clear the infection.

Answer 111

The correct answer is antibiotic. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections by killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria. The other options listed serve different purposes: Antidepressants are used to treat depression and other mood disorders. Diuretics help remove excess fluid from the body. Corticosteroids are used to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system.

Answer 112

The correct answer is rectally. For patients who are vomiting, an antiemetic is best administered rectally to ensure proper absorption when oral administration may not be effective due to the patient being unable to keep medications down. Other routes, such as buccally (inside the cheek) or transdermally (through the skin), may also be options depending on the specific medication, but rectal administration is often preferred for immediate effect in cases of vomiting.

Answer 113

The correct answers are Fats, Carbohydrates, and Proteins. Macronutrients are nutrients that are required by the body in large amounts and provide energy. These include: Fats Carbohydrates Proteins Vitamins and minerals are essential nutrients but are classified as micronutrients, which are needed in smaller amounts.

Answer 114

The correct answer is immunity. Immunity refers to the body's ability to produce antibodies and other mechanisms to protect against infections and diseases. The production of antibodies is a key part of the immune response, which helps the body recognize and fight off pathogens.

Answer 115

The correct answer is Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube. A PEG tube is a medical device used to provide nutrition to patients who are unable to eat by mouth. It is inserted into the stomach through the abdominal wall using an endoscopic procedure.

Answer 116

The correct answer is disease. A disease refers to any deviation from or interruption of the normal structure or function of an organ or system, characterized by a specific set of signs and symptoms. It can result from infections, genetic factors, environmental influences, or other causes.

Answer 117

The correct answer is infection. Infection refers to the establishment and growth of a microorganism, such as bacteria, viruses, or fungi, on or in a host. It can lead to disease if the microorganism causes harm to the host.

Answer 118

All of the above

Answer 119

The correct answer is Iatrogenic. Iatrogenic diseases are conditions that are caused by medical treatments or drugs. These can result from the long-term use of a drug that damages tissues or causes other disorders.

Answer 120

corticosteroid

Answer 121

The correct answer is antihistamine. An antihistamine is commonly given to patients who have an allergic reaction to contrast materials. It helps counteract the effects of histamine, which is released during an allergic response, and can relieve symptoms like itching, hives, or swelling. In some cases, corticosteroids may also be used to reduce inflammation in more severe reactions.

Answer 122

The correct answer is antidiarrheal. Lomotil and Imodium are both antidiarrheal medications used to treat diarrhea by slowing down the movement of the intestines, allowing for more water to be absorbed and reducing the frequency of bowel movements.

Answer 123

The correct answer is Antihistamine. Antihistamines are commonly prescribed to treat vertigo, especially when it is related to conditions like motion sickness or vestibular disorders. These medications can help reduce dizziness and nausea associated with vertigo.

Answer 124

The correct answer is antianxiety. Valium, Ativan, Xanax, and Librium are all antianxiety medications, which belong to a class of drugs known as benzodiazepines. They are used to treat anxiety disorders, panic attacks, and sometimes other conditions like insomnia or muscle spasms.

Answer 125

The correct answer is solution. A solution is a drug that is completely dissolved in a liquid carrier, meaning the active ingredient is evenly distributed throughout the liquid. This is different from a suspension, where the drug particles are not fully dissolved and may settle over time.

Answer 126

The correct answer is orthostatic hypotension. Orthostatic hypotension refers to a sudden drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person stands up too quickly from a sitting or lying position. This can lead to dizziness or fainting due to reduced blood flow to the brain.

Answer 127

All of the above

Answer 128

The correct answer is All of the above. Brain tumors can increase intracranial pressure (ICP) due to: Their size: As the tumor grows, it takes up space in the skull, which can lead to increased pressure. Cerebral edema: Tumors can cause swelling in the brain, which contributes to increased ICP. Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid: Tumors may block the normal flow of cerebrospinal fluid, leading to a buildup and increased pressure within the skull.

Answer 129

The correct answer is Depression screening. An on-treatment evaluation (OTE) typically includes vital signs, assessment of side effects, and weight to monitor the patient's condition during radiation therapy. Depression screening is not usually part of the routine OTE unless specifically indicated based on the patient's condition or clinical judgment.

Answer 130

The correct answer is a bone scan. A bone scan is the best diagnostic study to detect bone metastases. It uses a small amount of radioactive material to highlight areas of bone damage or abnormal bone activity, which is common in metastatic disease. Other imaging studies, like PET scans, can also be useful but are not as specific for bone involvement as a bone scan.

Answer 131

Head and neck

Answer 132

acute. Radiation pneumonitis is considered an acute condition, meaning it occurs within a short period of time following radiation therapy, typically within a few weeks to months, and is the initial inflammatory phase of radiation-induced lung injury; the chronic phase is known as radiation fibrosis which develops later on. Key points about radiation pneumonitis: Acute phase: Inflammation of the lung tissue shortly after radiation treatment. Chronic phase: Fibrosis of the lung tissue that can develop months or years after radiation therapy.

Answer 133

The correct answer is diarrhea. The BRAT diet (Bananas, Rice, Applesauce, Toast) is often recommended for patients experiencing diarrhea because it consists of bland, low-fiber foods that can help firm up stool and reduce irritation in the digestive tract.

Answer 134

The correct answer is moist desquamation. Silvadene (silver sulfadiazine) is commonly used to treat moist desquamation, a skin condition that can occur as a side effect of radiation therapy. It helps prevent infection and promotes healing of the skin.

Answer 135

The correct answer is 0.05. A p-value of 0.05 or less is generally considered statistically significant. This means that there is a 5% or less probability that the observed results are due to chance, indicating strong evidence against the null hypothesis.

Answer 136

The correct answer is Lung. Dyspnea (difficulty breathing or shortness of breath) is most commonly associated with lung cancer. This is because lung cancer can directly affect the lungs, causing obstruction or fluid buildup, which leads to breathing difficulties.

Answer 137

The correct answer is Technetium-99m. Technetium-99m is the radioisotope commonly used in bone scans. It is injected into the body and is absorbed by areas of increased bone activity, such as bone metastases or infections, making it ideal for detecting bone abnormalities.

Answer 138

The correct answer is Gadolinium. Gadolinium is the contrast material commonly used in MRI imaging. It is a paramagnetic substance that enhances the quality of MRI images by altering the magnetic properties of tissues, allowing for clearer visualization of certain structures and abnormalities.

Answer 139

The correct answer is FDG 18F. FDG 18F (Fluorodeoxyglucose) is the radiopharmaceutical commonly used in PET (Positron Emission Tomography) imaging. It is a glucose analog that is labeled with a radioactive isotope (fluorine-18) and is used to detect areas of increased metabolic activity, such as tumors.

Answer 140

13.3-16.2 g/dl

Answer 141

The correct answer is bacteria. Bacteria are single-celled, prokaryotic microorganisms that can form colonies. They lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles, distinguishing them from eukaryotic cells. Some bacteria can be pathogenic, but not all are harmful.

Answer 142

The correct answer is PET scan. For a PET scan (Positron Emission Tomography), patients are often asked to limit sugar consumption before the procedure because the radiopharmaceutical used (FDG 18F) is a glucose analog. High blood sugar levels can interfere with the uptake of the radiotracer, potentially affecting the accuracy of the scan, especially in detecting areas of increased metabolic activity such as tumors.

Answer 143

The correct answer is D & C (Dilation and Curettage). A D & C procedure is often performed to diagnose endometrial cancer. During this procedure, the lining of the uterus (endometrium) is scraped or suctioned to obtain tissue samples for examination under a microscope. This helps in diagnosing conditions like endometrial cancer. A Pap test and HPV test are used to detect cervical cancer, not endometrial cancer. An IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram) is used to assess the urinary system, not the reproductive system.

Answer 144

All of the above

Answer 145

The correct answer is Posterior iliac crest. For diagnostic purposes, bone marrow is most commonly aspirated from the posterior iliac crest. This site is preferred because it provides an adequate sample and is relatively easy to access. The L3 and L4 interspace is also a possible site, but the posterior iliac crest is the most common location for bone marrow aspiration.

Answer 146

The correct answer is hematocrit. The hematocrit refers to the volume percentage of erythrocytes (red blood cells) in a given blood volume. It is a common laboratory test used to assess the proportion of blood that is made up of red blood cells.

Answer 147

The correct answer is Fever. Pyrexia is the medical term for fever, which is an elevated body temperature often caused by an infection or other underlying condition.

Answer 148

The correct answer is the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method used to measure the oxygen saturation level of hemoglobin in the blood, indicating how well oxygen is being transported to the parts of the body.

Answer 149

The correct answer is 2 liters/min. For a patient with an unknown history of oxygen use, it's generally recommended to start with a lower oxygen flow, such as 2 liters per minute, to avoid potential complications like oxygen toxicity or respiratory depression, especially in patients with conditions like COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). The oxygen flow can be adjusted based on the patient's response and clinical needs.

Answer 150

The correct answer is 15-20. The normal respiratory rate for a resting adult is typically between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. However, the most commonly accepted "normal range" is 15-20 breaths per minute.

Answer 151

The correct answer is 60-90 beats per minute. A normal adult pulse rate typically ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute, but the most commonly accepted "normal range" is 60-90 beats per minute. "Normal pulse for an adult is 60-90 beats/min"- Slide 17 in Vital Signs lecture

Answer 152

The correct answer is irreversible parenchymal lung damage. Inhalation of high concentrations of oxygen over a prolonged period can lead to oxygen toxicity, which can cause irreversible damage to the lung tissue, specifically the parenchyma. This damage can lead to conditions like acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

Answer 153

The correct answer is 20-50 Gy. Diarrhea is a common side effect of radiation therapy to the abdomen or pelvis, and it typically occurs after a cumulative dose of 20-50 Gy using daily fractionation of 1.8-2.0 Gy. This range of radiation dose is associated with damage to the gastrointestinal tract, leading to symptoms such as diarrhea. Pg 224 Table 10-2 in Washington (4th edition)

Answer 154

30-40 Gy Pg 224 Table 10-2 in Washington (4th edition)

Answer 155

20-30 Gy Pg 224 Table 10-2 in Washington (4th edition)

Answer 156

20 Gy Pg 224 Table 10-2 in Washington (4th edition)

Answer 157

The correct answer is General anesthesia. General anesthesia renders a patient unconscious and unable to feel pain, as it affects the entire body and suppresses the central nervous system. This type of anesthesia is typically used for major surgeries.

Answer 158

Laryngeal Edema, Cardiac arrest, Death

Answer 159

The correct answer is Cervix. A cone biopsy (conization) is typically done for cervical cancer. It involves removing a cone-shaped sample of tissue from the cervix to diagnose or treat precancerous changes or early-stage cervical cancer.

Answer 160

Before administering iodinated contrast, it's important to ask patients the following questions to ensure their safety: Do you have a history of any allergic reactions to contrast materials or iodine? This helps identify patients who may have an allergic reaction to iodinated contrast, which can range from mild to severe. Do you have any history of kidney problems, such as chronic kidney disease or kidney failure? Iodinated contrast can affect kidney function, especially in patients with pre-existing kidney issues, increasing the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. Are you currently taking any medications, such as metformin or other diabetes medications? Metformin and certain other medications can interact with iodinated contrast and may require adjustments or monitoring to prevent complications like lactic acidosis.

Answer 161

The Universal Protocol is a set of safety guidelines designed to prevent errors in medical procedures, particularly in surgeries and other invasive procedures. The three key things that must be checked as part of the Universal Protocol are: Patient Identification: Verify the patient's identity using at least two identifiers (e.g., name, date of birth, or medical record number) to ensure the correct patient is receiving the procedure. Procedure Verification: Confirm the correct procedure is being performed on the correct site. This includes checking the procedure to be done, the site, and any relevant images or documentation to ensure accuracy. Site Marking: For procedures involving laterality (e.g., left vs. right), the correct site must be marked on the patient's body to avoid errors, ensuring the procedure is performed on the intended location. https://www.jointcommission.org/standards/universal-protocol/ - Conduct a pre-procedure verification process - Mark the procedure site - Perform a time-out

Answer 162

Critical thinking is important because it enables individuals to make informed decisions by analyzing evidence and considering different perspectives. It enhances problem-solving skills, allowing for effective solutions in complex situations. In healthcare, critical thinking improves patient care, reduces errors, and ensures that decisions are based on facts and best practices.

RT 3000 Final Exam Flashcards

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