RTC 1 Flashcards by Jan Maurer

Choose the correct statement regarding FMC (thrust limited) maximum altitude flight:

Select one:

1) HDG SEL provides bank angle limiting function to avoid exceeding thrust limits during turns

2) When using HDG SEL, the drag in a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust

3) ISA deviation has no effect on altitude capability

4) You should never fly more than 10 knots above the lower amber band

When using HDG SEL, the drag in a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A double briefing does not have to contain the following:

Select one:

1) Both crew’s intentions on becoming visual & both crew’s intentions on reaching MDA if not visual (i.e. the Go-Around procedure for the aircraft to Flaps up)

2) Where Flaps 1, 5, Landing Gear, Flaps 15, (25), 30/40 are to be selected

3) The Autopilot modes and selections to be used during the approach & The ‘Landing Gate’

4) The autobrake setting to use

The autobrake setting to use

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A full test of the GPWS is carried out by the?

F/O, first flight or crew change only

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A Monitored Approach does NOT apply to:

Select one:

1) Airports without published Low Visibility Procedures

2) ILS approaches if cloud base is less than 300 feet

3) Circle to land approaches

4) Non Precision Approaches if visibility is less than 3000 meters

Circle to land approaches

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When is a new loadsheet required for an LMC (Load Instruction Document not available)? LMC exceeds ….?

LMC exceeds 500kg

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A NPA using VNAV must be stabilised by:

1000 feet in IMC conditions, 500 feet in VMC

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A runway with more than 25% of its surface area within the required length and width being used, covered with more than 3mm of ‘Slush’ is considered for performance reasons to be a…?

Contaminated Runway

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to the ‘Before Taxi – No Engine Bleed’ Checklist, which of the following is true?

Select one:

1) The FO reads the checklist and completes the actions.

2) The CPT reads the checklist.

3) If wing anti-ice is required for taxi you will configure for a no engine bleed take off just prior to takeoff.

4) Is located on the back side of the winter operations handy dandy.

If wing anti-ice is required for taxi you will configure for a no engine bleed take off just prior to takeoff.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

After de-icing with a Type IV fluid, if the Holdover Time expires, what should one do?

Carry out a pre-takeoff contamination check.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

After the DAR-01 form has been completed it should:

Be clipped on the Captains control column to serve as a reminder to check that holdover time is still valid prior to departure (Pre-Takeoff Check).

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Airfield classifications in Ryanair are as follows:

Category C is the most restrictive category, requiring additional considerations to Category B.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In automatic flight, all MCP ALT changes following an ATC instruction shall be called by the PF and confirmed by the PM. What is our exact procedure?

The PF resets the MCP altitude and keeps finger in contact with the MCP selector and calls ‘SET’ while PM verifies the correct MCP altitude is displayed on the PFD and calls ‘XXX CHECKED

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Appropriate Cold Temperature Altitude Corrections shall be made to any published instrument approach procedure altitudes when these are at or below the corrected MSA whenever?

The surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An aircraft must be fully stabilized (as defined in the FCOM) passing the …?

The Landing gate

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Under which of the following conditions should both the CPT and FO file an ASR?

A Go-Around has been executed below 1000ft AGL.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In which of the following condition is the usage of Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust prohibited?

With a crosswind component exceeding 10 knots

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

An ‘Emergency Turn’ (engine failure on takeoff) must be flown at what speed and what bank angle?

At V2 (magenta bug) and 15° bank. The turn does not need to be completed before level acceleration unless specified in the ETP. Once above V2+15, bank angle must be increased to 25 degrees.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

As a tail strike prevention policy, when crosswind component exceeds 10 knots for takeoff:

No assume temperature thrust reduction is allowed

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

As part of the evacuation checklist, the F/O will:
Select one:

1) Not pull any fire switches unless a fire switch is illuminated.

2) Pull all engine and APU fire switches and only rotate a fire switch that is illuminated.

3) Pull and rotate all engine and APU fire switches.

4)Pull and rotate engine fire switches only, unless the APU fire switch is illuminated.

Pull all engine and APU fire switches and only rotate a fire switch that is illuminated.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

As part of the Route Check, the PF will:

Select one:

1) Call ‘Checked’ and PM executes the route

2) Call ‘Checked’.

3) Call ‘Checked’ and CPT executes the route.

4) Call ‘Checked’ and state the estimated fuel remaining at destination.

Call ‘Checked’ and state the estimated fuel remaining at destination.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Choose the correct statement regarding FMC (thrust limited) maximum altitude flight:

Select one:

1) If speed is allowed to drop it can always be recovered by increasing thrust and maintaining altitude.

2) There is always enough thrust available to make a 25° angle of bank turn.

3) Airplane drag during a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust.

4)The stall speed does not change with altitude.

Airplane drag during a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust. Correct

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following statements is true regarding a tail strike?

Select one:

1) A tail strike on landing requires no action.

2) A tail strike has a dedicated checklist in the QRH entitled ‘Tail Strike’.

3) The tailskid protects the aircraft on landing.

4) A tail strike on takeoff requires no action.

A tail strike has a dedicated checklist in the QRH entitled ‘Tail Strike’.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Under which conditions may crews plan to fly high speed below FL100?

Only in the climb if you are in Class A, B or C airspace and have been authorised to do so by ATC.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cruise altitude speed must be at least what, when not in LNAV?

At least 10 knots above the lower amber band when not in LNAV

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which is the correct roll mode at 400ft during a GA (providing routing is available)?

LNAV

Which of the following statements is true regarding a Rejected T/O? Select one: 1) The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake and inform ATC of the RTO. The FO will select flaps 40. 2) The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and wait instructions from the Capt. 3) The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and inform ATC of the RTO. 4) The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will inform ATC of the RTO.

The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and inform ATC of the RTO.

During a single channel or manual approach, the PM should call: Select one: 1) 'CONTINUE' only at the aural ‘MINIMUMS’ call 2) The visual cues only at the aural ‘MINIMUMS’ call 3) The visual cues as they become apparent during the approach 4) ‘GO AROUND’ if not visual passing the landing gate

The visual cues as they become apparent during the approach

During crosswind takeoffs: Select one: 1) Maximum allowed assumed temperature reduced thrust should be used. 2) A large aileron input has no effect on tail clearance. 3) The control wheel should only be displaced in order to keep wings level. 4) A lower rotation rate should always be used.

The control wheel should only be displaced in order to keep wings level.

During daylight, with failed centre line lights, can you complete a CAT IIIA (CAT3a) approach and if so what are the restrictions (Part A, Chapter 8)?

YES, but RVR must be 300m or greater

During low visibility operations, the crew should: Select one: 1) Delay extending the flaps until reaching the holding point 2) Have the ILS tuned to the departure runway for take off 3) Request a 'Follow Me' car to the runway 4) Use flaps 10 for departure

Have the ILS tuned to the departure runway for take off

Which statement is true regarding visual approaches conducted during night time? Select one: 1) Visual approaches must be completed. 2) Visual approaches are only permitted if an ‘Rx’ point is generated in the FMC. 3) Visual landing are permitted only if there is a published approach procedure. 4) Visual approaches are only permitted where an existing approach for the runway exists in the FMC.

Visual landing are permitted only if there is a published approach procedure.

During Taxi in and Taxi out... Select one: 1) The Captain must make all PA’s to passengers. 2) The First Officer must make all PA’s to passengers. 3) PA’s are not permitted. 4) Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted. However, if delays to departure are experienced the Captain may inform the passengers once the parking brake is set.

Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted. However, if delays to departure are experienced the Captain may inform the passengers once the parking brake is set.

During taxi in and taxi out you receive taxi instructions. What are the F/O‘ s actions?

The F/O (RHS) must acknowledge the taxi instructions, write them in the FMC scratchpad and ensure both pilots understand them.

During the climb above FL100 and after the 'Altimeters' call, the PF will call for the '10 checks' which will be actioned by the PM. These will be said out loud in an unobtrusive manner in the following flow: Select one: 1) Lights - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall 2) Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall 3) Fuel - Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond – Seatbelts 4) Fuel - Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall - 121.500

Fuel - Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall - 121.500

During the climb, how are the ‘Ten Checks’ performed by the PM?

Performed aloud ‘Fuel, Lights, APU, Pressurisation & Air Con, Seatbelts, Recall'

During the Descent and Approach preparation, who is responsible for setting the Vref and the Autobrake setting?

The PF is responsible for setting the Vref and Autobrake setting having handed over control to the PM.

During the descent, the '10 checks' are performed aloud by the PM as follows:

Fuel – Lights – Angle of Bank 25° – Check Air Conditioning and pressurisation – Fasten Belts – Recall – PA ‘10 minutes to landing’ - 121.500 Deselected

During the exterior inspection the PM will: Select one: 1) Not check the cargo holds as it’s not a part of exterior inspection. 2) Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds only if doors are opened. 3) Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Leave hold doors open after inspection. 4) Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Close hold doors after inspection.

Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Leave hold doors open after inspection.

During the flight deck safety inspection and preliminary flight deck procedure, the APU is normally started:

Just prior to closing the L1 door

During the pre-flight planning phase, what weather criteria should be used for the destination alternate? Select one: 1) For a CAT II approach, use CAT II RVR minima 2) For a CATII approach, use Non-precision RVR / Visibility and ceiling minima 3) For a Non-precision approach, use CAT I RVR minima 4) For a CAT I approach, use Non-precision RVR / Visibility and ceiling minima

For a CAT I approach, use Non-precision RVR / Visibility and ceiling minima

During the takeoff roll, the PM checks N1 against target value, checks the engine instruments on the upper DU and any pop-ups on the lower DU. What will be the appropriate callout?

'Takeoff thrust set, indications normal'

During your walk around you see a missing security seal. Which of the following statements is true? Select one: 1) Contact Maintrol or get an on duty engineer to replace the seal. 2) You must obtain a new security seal from the crew room. 3) The requirement to check for missing seals is now removed from the exterior inspection procedure. 4) Replace the seal on the commander’s authority.

The requirement to check for missing seals is now removed from the exterior inspection procedure.

May the Electric Hydraulic pumps be switched ON while refuelling is in progress? Select one: 1) Only when the Bypass Pin is installed 2) Yes 3) No 4) Sometimes

Yes *answer not 100% confirmed

Engine Start: The PF calls, ‘Monitor Number__’... Select one: 1) once N2 is observed to pass 46% N1 2) after the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM calls ‘Starter cut-out’ 3) as the engine cuts back 4) as the Start Switch moves to the OFF position

after the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM calls ‘Starter cut-out’

When are the Start Levers moved to the idle detent during the engine start procedure?

When N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 25% (or max motoring)

Flight crews, during a climb out, will reduce rate of climb to 3000 FPM if in excess at 3000 feet to level off, 2000 FPM if in excess at 2000 feet to level-off and 1000 FPM if in excess at 1000 feet to level-off. This restriction will be observed: Select one: 1) According to RVSM regulations 2) At all times. VNAV performance shall be used and monitored if within the above limits 3) Flight crews can change the rate of climb using VS anytime they wish 4) Below FL200 when operating in busy TMA’s or high-density traffic areas

At all times. VNAV performance shall be used and monitored if within the above limits

The correct FMC sequence when briefing a SID is:

RTE PAGE 1 and 2, INIT/REF, LEGS

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Holdover Time? Select one: 1) Hold over time is calculated from the table in Performance Inflight Vol. 1. 2) Hold over time is calculated from RA173 Holdover Tables found in Docunet/Techlog. 3) Hold over time is calculated from the FCOM tables. 4) Hold over time is provided for generic fluids only.

Hold over time is calculated from RA173 Holdover Tables found in Docunet/Techlog.

Which of the following statements is true regarding holding in icing conditions? Select one: 1) Is permitted with flaps extended. 2) Is not permitted. 3) With flaps down is allowed only if wing anti-ice is used. 4) Is not permitted with flaps extended.

Is not permitted with flaps extended.

For which of the following approaches are Continuous Descent Approaches (2 operating engines) applicable? Select one: 1) ILS approaches only 2) All approaches except V/S NPA and SRA’s 3) All approaches 4) Non Precision Approaches only

All approaches except V/S NPA and SRA’s

How can you improve the Captains visual ‘cut-off angle’ during low visibility approaches?

Vertical adjusting pilots seat height up, using flap 40, ensuring crosswind from the right if possible

For how long should the APU be running prior to using it as a bleed air source?

2 minutes

How will the cabin-crew notify the flight crew of a fire in the cabin during taxi?

The crewmember who first sees the fire goes immediately to the nearest interphone, presses 222, and inform the flight crew.

How will the Captain notify the CSS in case of an emergency?

He will press the attendant call button once and use the phrase 'No 1 to the flight deck', over the PA.

If a conflict occurs between a TCAS RA and an ATC advisory information, which should the PF follow?

TCAS

If an Autoland proceeds normally after 50 ft, what is the F/O (RHS) callout?

Nothing until the speed brake deploys

If an automatic switch over to a departure frequency is required after take-off, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, the PM selects the frequency once airborne and...

calls ATC as specified in NADP1 or NADP2.

If APU operation is required on the ground and the aircraft buses are powered by AC electrical power, then which fuel pump should be on?

An AC powered fuel pump from left side of fuel manifold should be ON

If conducting a NADP 1 departure and a SID requires a 2500ft QNH level off, when it is acceptable to accelerate?

at ‘ALT ACQ

If remote de-icing is required, which of the following crew actions are mandatory for a tactile check?

If a tactile check is required, the engines must be shutdown.

If ground accumulated fan blade icing is discovered during the walk around, by which means should it be removed?

By using hot air or approved de-icing fluid (licensed aircraft Engineer only for latter)

Which of the following statements is true regarding published Emergency Turn Procedure? Select one: 1) It is used by ATC for routing you away from high terrain in the event of an engine failure after take-off. 2) It is not required to be completed if on a SID. 3) It is used to quickly return for a landing at the airfield of departure. 4) It must be completed, instead of flying straight ahead following an engine failure on take-off.

4) It must be completed, instead of flying straight ahead following an engine failure on take-off.

If a normal Bleeds ON takeoff is planned, (On the initial take off briefing on stand) Select one: 1) it should be mentioned in the takeoff brief. 2) it should be written on the OFP. 3) it needs to be mentioned only on first flight of the day. 4) it does NOT need to be mentioned in the takeoff brief.

4) it does NOT need to be mentioned in the takeoff brief. (Correct answer is not 100% confirmed)

In case of an APU fire, which of the following statements is true? Select one: 1) The CPT only calls for memory items. 2) The PF calls for the memory items. 3) The PM calls for the memory items. 4) The CPT calls for the APU fire NNC.

2) The PF calls for the memory items.

In relation to the centre tank fuel pumps, the Captain may elect to leave the centre pump switches off for T/O until passing FL 100. Why?

If he deems that the amount of fuel in the centre tanks is insufficient (453kgs) to keep the fuel low-pressure lights out during T/O.

In the cruise, if speed drops below the top of the lower amber band, how should you immediately increase the speed?

By reducing bank angle and/or increasing thrust to MCT and/or descend

What should one do in the event of a ‘Engine Failure’ on Take-off? Select one: 1) Always climb straight ahead. 2) Follow the SID unless there is an ‘Emergency Turn’. 3) Climb straight ahead unless there is an ‘Emergency Turn’ and inform ATC. 4) Follow the SID.

3) Climb straight ahead unless there is an ‘Emergency Turn’ and inform ATC.

Which of the following statements is true regarding Low Drag Non-Precision Approaches? Select one: 1) Are not normally applicable to V/S NPA 2) Are permitted in Class A, B, C, & D airspace only 3) Are not permitted for night time approaches 4) Are not permitted in conjunction with a Continuous Descent Approach (CDA)

1) Are not normally applicable to V/S NPA

What is the maximum ground speed whilst taxiing on a contaminated taxiway?

5 knots

Which of the following statements is true regarding night time circle to land manoeuvres? Select one: 1) Are permitted provided a visual slope indicator or electronic slope indicator is operational on the landing runway. 2) Are not subject to a ‘Double Briefing’. 3) Are not subject to the ‘Ten Mile Rule’ (Flaps 1). 4) Are prohibited.

1) Are permitted provided a visual slope indicator or electronic slope indicator is operational on the landing runway.

On the ground, prior to switching on the hydraulic pumps, what should be considered?

Personnel are clear of the tow bar OR the bypass pin has been installed

Where do P-RNAV arrivals terminate at?

Final Approach Waypoint

During the pre-flight procedure, prior to first flight, who checks the Ships Library?

The PF

How is the instrument crosscheck performed during the pre-flight procedure?

The PF calls Time (UTC), QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD and standby instruments. PM follows silently

Who is responsible for mentioning what the crew will reject the takeoff for during the initial emergency briefing?

The CPT

Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or not active, crews must make a ‘Two Phase Call’ (inter cockpit). This ‘Two Phase Call’ requires the Captain to establish with the RHS pilot that:

The runway may be entered or crossed & the approach is checked clear both directions (as much as it is possible)

What should the F/O call, prior to taxi?

‘Clear right’

Regarding re-fuelling supervisor duties, which is true when in Spain (check RFS-A List) and Italy?

First establish contact with the flight deck on aircraft intercom system. You must then remain on the intercom system for the duration of the refuelling and disembarkation/boarding process.

When is under normal circumstances a full IRS alignment required?

A full alignment is only required for the first flight of each duty period.

Runway conditions permitting, which is the normal autobrake setting to be used for landing?

The setting is as determined by the crew having consulted the QRH (PI section) or using the OPT.

What cool down period do Ryanair and CFM recommend for the engine hot section thermo-stabilisation?

Three minutes

Self-manoeuvring at night below the MSA is

Prohibited

Should the PF check the landing gear lights on the aft overhead panel during pre-flight preparations?

Yes

The 500 ft call on an ILS approach is:

“Five hundred continue/go-around” (PM), “Check” (PF)

The After T/O checks are done how?

Done silently, except for “Air Conditioning & Press” which is called aloud & the “Altimeters” check, which is challenge & response

The Approach Aids scan flow (FRISC) check is?

Frequencies, Rings, Idents, SBY’s instruments and Courses

The Audio Switch to I/C for Hot mike usage is required from:

After pushback and prior to obtaining taxi clearance. It shall remain ON until completion of the TEN Checks Climbing, after which it will remain crew discretion to either turn the I/C On or Off and shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains On for the remainder of the flight until Park Brake set at stand.

The Autobrake performance is designed to:

To only use the amount of wheel braking required to achieve the selected deceleration rate

The Boeing OPT is:

Is the default performance calculation application

The Cabin Crew must be advised of refuelling when passengers are?

Embarking, disembarking or on board

The check of the intermittent warning horn (TO Configuration) is done when and by who?

Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of the ‘Speedbrake’ check. It is done by the PF

The circuit breaker panel located behind the Capt. seat is referred to as:

The P-18 Panel

The company approved minimum RVR for a CAT I approach is?

550/125/75

The correct point to select Landing Gear Down and Flap 15 on a VS NPA is?

5nm prior to RWxx

The earliest point that flap retraction from F15 to F5 may be commenced on a two engine Missed Approach is?

400ft

The Enhanced GPWS will issue an automatic 500ft aural call at

500 feet Radio Altitude on an approach that has NO GLIDESLOPE

The First Officer will commence the “Before Takeoff” checks when:

The CPT asks for the “Before Takeoff checklist”

The Flight Crew shall give the following to the CSS (Cabin Services Supervisor) prior to departure

No need to give the SEP manual or the CCI’s anymore (Answer not 100% confirmed)

The following information should be given to ATC on contact with the first radar controller:

Full call sign, SID or cleared routing/heading, passing altitude/FL, Cleared altitude/FL

The following is the correct manoeuvre for a TCAS RA (Resolution Advisory)

If manoeuvring is required disengage autopilot and auto-throttle and follow the correct manoeuvre as depicted on the PFD

The formula that may be used to calculate the additional trip fuel burn when ATOW exceeds FPL TOW on non-tankering sectors is:

2.5% of the additional weight carried in kg, multiplied by the flight time in hours.

The frequency 121.500 MHz must be monitored from which point on?

As part of the Ten Checks

The IFE Switch on the overhead panel is normally left in which position?

ON, the IFE Switch is always turned ON as part of the pre-flight procedure

The initial welcoming PA to passengers should be done when and by whom?

Should be done by the Captain prior to pushback

The landing gate for a circling approach is 300ft AAL. What must be established by 500ft AAL on a circling approach?

Landing configuration only

The maximum allowed crosswind component (winglet aircraft) for takeoff on a slush/standing water runway is:

15 knots

The maximum approach speed additive is:

Vref +15 or landing flaps placard speed – 5kts

The maximum crosswind component on a CATII/IIIA Approach is?

20kts

The Maximum crosswind, dry runway, for takeoff and landing a winglet equipped aircraft is:

33 knots

The maximum tailwind component on a CAT II/IIIA Autoland is?

10 kts

The Maximum taxi speed on the apron in dry conditions is:

15 kts

The minimum flap retraction altitude (MFRA) is found where?

Found on the respective runway RTOW plate or OPT data

The minimum OIL QTY for dispatch is?

12 LITRES

The minimum visual reference required to safely continue an approach below DA/MDA is at least:

Elements of the approach light system including at least two cross bars

The NAV lights should be ON, when?

Whenever AC power is connected to the airplane busses

The PF completes the ‘Before Taxi’ scan flow and BLANKS the lower display completely by pushing the MFD Select one: 1) This is correct as the ‘Pop up’ feature will reveal the lower display in case of an exceedance or Engine failure 2) This is correct as it will always bring up the ‘Compact Engine Display’ on the Upper DU 3) This is not correct as all engine parameters must be monitored for takeoff and flight 4) This is not correct as engine parameters will not be visible for the takeoff roll making an exceedance impossible to spot

1) This is correct as the ‘Pop up’ feature will reveal the lower display in case of an exceedance or Engine failure

The PRE-FLIGHT instrument scan is which? (Instrument crosscheck)

Time, QNH, ALT, MFRA, FD’s & SBY instruments

The rear hold is checked, as part of the Exterior Inspection, by:

The PM

The rudder trim function is checked when?

On all flights

The Ryanair policy is to use ‘Maximum Assumed Temperature Reduction’ Take-off thrust? Select one: 1) Only when necessary for noise abatement profiles 2) Always 3) Wherever permitted by OPT or SOP’s 4) Except when there is an Emergency Turn for the runway

3) Wherever permitted by OPT or SOP’s

The standard call in the event of a ‘Passenger Evacuation’ is

“This is an Emergency. Evacuate the aircraft using all available exits’’. This call is to be repeated once

The standard callout at V1 when taking off on a wet runway is?

‘V1‘

The standard FMC fuel cost index is?

As per flight plan

The taxi briefing on departure must always include:

A review of the expected taxi routing to the runway of departure

The TCAS OFF flag must always be called as part of the Preflight, Instrument Cross Check? Select one: 1) True, called by the PF 2) No. It is normally indicating at this point 3) False, this is an EGPWS call 4) True, called by the PM

2) No. It is normally indicating at this point

The V1 aural call on take-off must Select one: 1) Be complete by V1 2) Responded to by the Pilot Flying (PF) with a ‘Check’ call 3) Be commenced at V1 4) Be made by the Pilot Flying (PF)

1) Be complete by V1 Correct

The ‘External Inspection’ (walk around) should be done by the:

Pilot Monitoring for the next sector

The ‘FLT ALT’ Selector on the pressurisation panel is set to?

To the filed level or lower if performance limited or ATC level capped

The ‘Immediate Level off Procedure’ is?

‘ALT HOLD’, reset MCP altitude, engage ‘LVL CHG’

The ‘Landing Gate’ for an IMC approach (Precision or Non Precision) is?

1000ft

The ‘Landing Gate’ requires one to be fully stabilised Select one: a. With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (IMC) b. With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet (all approaches) c. With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (VMC) d. With all checklists complete at 500 feet (all approaches)

a. With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (IMC)

The ‘Outer Marker’ call on approach is?

“Outer Marker, XXXX feet, No Flags” (PF challenge) : Altitude Checks, No Flags” (PM response)

The “Post Treatment Check” (step 3), as a part of the de -icing/ anti-icing procedure (Ops Manual Part A): Select one: a. Does not need to be completed if icing is only present within the “boxed” areas of the wings b. Has to be done by the handling agent or engineer and may include a post treatment tactile check c. Can be done visually from within the cabin d. Has to be supervised by the commander

b. Has to be done by the handling agent or engineer and may include a post treatment tactile check

There is a small amount (1.5mm) of CSFF (Cold Soaked Fuel Frost) on top of the wing behind the engine mount. The CSFF is not completely contained within the black painted lines. Is this acceptable or not?

This is not acceptable for takeoff, remove before departure

The maximum addition to Vref is?

15kts (answer not verified!)

To avoid exceeding flap limit speeds on the approach the maximum approach speed additive is?

15 knots

To determine the actual tailwind component is within limits for landing: Select one: a. Use the wind shown on the ND b. Use FMC tailwind component as shown on PROGRESS Page 3 c. Use the tower reported wind d. Use FMC tailwind component as shown on APPROACH REF Page

c. Use the tower reported wind

Turbulence is encountered in flight. The Captain will decide whether to switch ON the seatbelt signs. Which pilot is responsible for actually moving the sign from AUTO to ON?

The PM as this is defined as his area of responsibility in flight

Unless stated, the lowest turning altitude on departure is?

400 ft AAL

Visual Approaches are Select one: a. Required to be fully stabilised at 1,000 AAL b. Considered Non Precision Approaches and therefore require a Double Briefing. The ‘Ten Mile Rule’ (Flaps 1) also applies. c. Required to be flown by the Captain only d. Required to be manually flown

b. Considered Non Precision Approaches and therefore require a Double Briefing. The ‘Ten Mile Rule’ (Flaps 1) also applies.

What altitude should be set on the MCP prior to ATC clearance being received?

Expected SID plus 100ft

What documentation should be retained in the flight envelope at end of duty?

The Flight Envelope is no longer in use.

What does two-step de-icing mean?

The aeroplane is first de-iced using heated water only or a heated mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water. After completion of the de-icing operation a layer of a mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water, or of de-icing/anti-icing fluid only, is to be sprayed over the AEROPLANE surfaces

What effect on CATIIIA (CAT3A) landing minima does failed or downgraded equipment, causing the lack of Midpoint or Stop End RVR (Part A, Chapter 8)?

No effect, see table „failed or downgraded equipment cat2/3“

What HDG should be selected on the MCP for take-offs?

Runway HDG

What is meant by 'fail passive' automatic landing system?

In the event of a failure, autopilot disengagement causes no significant deviation of trim, flight path or attitude

What is normal during pushback and engine-start? Select one: a. The CPT handles ground communications and the PF starts the engines all the time b. The CPT handles ground communications and Starts the engines all the time c. The CPT handles ground communications and the FO starts the engines all the time d. The CPT handles ground communications and the PM starts the engines all the time

a. The CPT handles ground communications and the PF starts the engines all the time

What is the correct response after thrust reverser deployment on landing roll out, both indications green?

Reversers Normal

What is the correct sequence of actions during a go-around?

TOGA, Flaps 15, G/A thrust, Gear up

What is the earliest height that Standard (1013hPa) may be set on climb out?

When the aircraft is above 3000ft AAL and when cleared to a FL

What is the earliest point at which the Autopilot may be engaged on NADP2 departure?

1,000 ft AAL

What is the latest point at which the autopilot has to be disengaged on a NPA using VNAV?

At 158ft or E/D (provided FAT and RW waypoint are aligned within 1 degree)

What is the latest point to select flap one (1) on all approach?

10 nm from RW xx point

What is the normal landing flap setting for the Boeing 737?

30 & 40

What is the planning minima for destination alternates and enroute alternates?

a. For NPA (Non Precision Approaches) – NPA minima PLUS 1000m/200ft is required

What is the signal to the Cabin Crew that it is safe for them to move around and get off oxygen after an emergency descent?

“No.1 to the Flight Deck” over the PA and a ding on the cabin ATTEND button

What is the standard callout by the PF after he hears, ‘Flaps Up, No lights’ during normal operations?

‘After Takeoff checklist’

What is true after performing a high speed RTO (>80 kts)? Select one: a. Stop on the runway, the crew must never vacate the runway after an RTO b. The Captain will NOT be required to file an ASR since the OFDM will give all the details required c. Another takeoff may be attempted without delay if in the opinion of the Captain the aircraft is fit for flight d. Do not take off again until released by Maintrol

d. Do not take off again until released by Maintrol

What minimum level of fire-fighting equipment do we normally require for the B737 800 series aircraft?

Level 7

What must the PM verify (silently) climbing through FL200, 300 & 400?

Pressurisation is normal

What weight must be recorded on the MAXIMUM WEIGHT FOR TAKE OFF section of the load sheet?

The lower of the placard weight (MTOW) or the performance limiting RTOW

When a crew notices Non Environmental Icing (NEI) on the upper wing surface, which of the following is true? Select one: a. It might be possible to take off provided you observe and comply with CSFF dispatch relief procedure, otherwise you must deice. b. Must fill the main wing tanks, this will melt the CSFF. c. Must use 2 step de-icing procedure in all circumstances. d. Carry a minimum of 2000kg of fuel in the centre tanks.

a. It might be possible to take off provided you observe and comply with CSFF dispatch relief procedure, otherwise you must deice.

When a T/O Alternate is required, the planned alternate should be based on one hour flight time at the one engine inoperative cruise speed according to the AFM, in still air the distance is:

427 nm (737-800) 416 nm (737-8200)

When an airplane is anti-iced and a longer holdover time is needed, the crew should consider which fluid?

Using a less diluted Type II or Type IV fluid

What are the planning minima for a destination airport with an ILS approach available? Select one: a. The met report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above the actual ILS minima +200ft and visibility +800m b. For a CAT II/III ILS destination the met report or forecast must indicate that both the RVR/visibility and ceiling, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above CAT I ILS minima c. For a CAT II/III ILS destination the met report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above CAT I ILS minima d. The met report or forecast must indicate that both the RVR/visibility and ceiling, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above actual ILS minima

a. The met report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above the actual ILS minima +200ft and visibility +800m

When cleared to a FL what is the standard callout and by whom?

PF ‘Set STD, passing XXX, climbing XXX’

When cleared to an altitude during an approach (no delay anticipated) the following standard call applies?

SET QNH ___, passing XXXX descending XXXX, (No) Flags, Standby Altimeter Set

When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will set their altimeters to Std. When is the standby altimeter set to Standard?

When climbing through MSA

When completing the tech log fuel section, what is the standard fuel density used according to RYR procedures?

0.79

When conducting a CATIIIA (CAT3a) approach in daytime with a RVR of 400 m, if the TWR reports the TDZ lights have failed. The best course of action is to: Select one: a. Ask the tower to check if you are allowed to land b. Go around and check the effect on landing minima. c. Check if the traffic ahead was visual before minima and continue. d. Ask PM to immediately confirm the effect on landing minima.

b. Go around and check the effect on landing minima.

When do the pilots need to do a Takeoff Emergency brief?

Each pilot on their first flight of the day as PF

When do we have to adjust all published altitudes using the Altimeter Cold Temperature Corrections chart on the Winter Ops checklist?

Below corrected MSA when the surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius.

When does a Ryanair flight declare a fuel “Mayday”?

When the calculated fuel on the arrival will be less than final reserve

When flying in severe turbulence, do not use:

Do not use ALT HLD, use CWS

When hearing the EGPWS ‘minimums’ call on a NPA using V/S with no visual contact having been confirmed what is the action?

The PF will push TO/GA and call "Go-around, flap 15" etc.

When is a go around below 500ft mandatory during a low visibility approach? Select one: a. There is no need to Go Around since the aircraft flies and lands automatically b. When the rate of descent is greater than 800 FPM. c. When Pilot incapacitation is suspected d. When the RVR’s drop below minimum required

c. When Pilot incapacitation is suspected

When operating in freezing conditions and taxiing for takeoff on surfaces covered with slush and/or standing water: Select one: a. Recycle the ailerons three times in either direction b. Taxi as fast as possible to increase aerodynamic steering capability c. Delay flap selection until reaching the holding position d. Always do a static run up of the engines to 90% N1 for 30 seconds

c. Delay flap selection until reaching the holding position

When operating the Speedbrake in flight, which pilot selects the Speedbrake?

The PF. He / She also stows it

When performing a cross bleed start, when do you disconnect the ground power: Select one: a. You can commence aircraft pushback with the ground power attached b. Before you start the first engine c. As stated in the supplementary procedures SP 7.4 d. At starter cut out of the number 2 engine

c. As stated in the supplementary procedures SP 7.4

When performing a cross bleed start, where is the information to complete this procedure:

b. Supplementary procedures SP 7.5

When performing a NPA using VNAV, at what point does the PM call “Approaching Descent”

2nm before the nominated descent point

When selecting a Takeoff alternate which criteria must be fulfilled? Select one: a. T/O alternate must be a Ryanair destination b. The T/O alternate must be within 30 minutes from the departure airport c. When the T/O alternate has been decided, the Base CPT. must be notified d. The T/O alternate must be within 427nm in still air

d. The T/O alternate must be within 427nm in still air

When should PF “Bug Up” on a normal NADP2 departure?

1,000ft AAL

When should the EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHTS be armed?

As part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure – PF

When should the LOGO lights be ON?

At night below FL100

When should the recirculation fan switches be turned off?

Never, unless following a QRH procedure

When starting the engines during cold weather operations, which of the following is not true? Select one: a. There are no restrictions for cold weather operations b. Several minutes may be needed for oil pressure to reach the normal operating range. During this period, oil pressure may go above the normal range and the OIL FILTER BYPASS light may illuminate. Operate the engine at idle thrust until oil pressure returns to the normal range. c. If the ambient temperature is below -35 C, you must idle the engine for 2 minutes before changing thrust lever position. d. If the engine has been cold-soaked for one or more hours at ambient temperatures less than -40 C, you must contact maintenance.

a. There are no restrictions for cold weather operations

When starting the engines, the first step is: Select one: a. Announce engine start sequence. Plan to start engines to result in minimum fuel consumption b. Only start engines after the pushback is completed c. There is no requirement to announce engine start sequence d. Plan to start engines as quickly as possible to minimum push back time

a. Announce engine start sequence. Plan to start engines to result in minimum fuel consumption

When tankering fuel? Select one: a. The Lido flight planning system is designed to optimise the use of tanker and will advise the crew of any tanker requirements b. The crew have no limitations to tanker fuel on the B737-800 c. Always tanker when returning to the same airport as departure d. You can tanker a maximum of 10 Tons of fuel on any given flight.

a. The Lido flight planning system is designed to optimise the use of tanker and will advise the crew of any tanker requirements

When the engine is shutdown and the chocks are in place. Normal procedure requires the flight crew: Select one: a. To release the Parking Brake provided that company procedures are followed b. To release Parking Brake on stand even without chocks c. Do not set the Parking Brake until the brakes have been checked d. After excessive braking, to release the Parking Brake for 5-6 seconds, then re-set

a. To release the Parking Brake provided that company procedures are followed

Which of the following is true when setting the FMC for a visual approach if no existing procedure exists? Select one: a. A pilot should generate an RX point at 4.0nm from the runway threshold and make this a hard altitude. b. A pilot should generate an RX point at 4.0nm from the runway threshold, no hard altitude is required. c. A pilot should generate an RX point at least 5.0nm from the runway threshold with a hard altitude d. A pilot should generate an RX point at least 6.0nm from the runway threshold with a hard altitude.

a. A pilot should generate an RX point at 4.0nm from the runway threshold and make this a hard altitude.

When will the 'MINIMUMS' aural call not sound?

When the Captain has not set his minimums (BARO MINS)

When will the First Officer commence the after landing items/flow?

When clear of the active runway & taxi instructions have been received, acknowledged, written in FMC scratchpad and understood by both pilots

Where can one find the Ryanair Non-Normal Flight Patterns and Manoeuvres?

Manoeuvres Section in the QRH

Where is the stab trim setting visible during the taxi when using the OPT Weight and Balance?

FMC Takeoff Page

Where would you find a table to establish the effects on ‘Landing Minima’ during LVO operations for various runway edge and centre line lighting conditions if inoperative?

Operations Manual Part A, Chapter 8

Where would you find the brake-cooling schedule?

QRH Performance Inflight Section (Advisory Information)

Which is correct regarding the ICAO approach ban? Select one: a. An aircraft shall not descent beyond the Outer Marker (OM), or if no OM shall not descend below 1000ft if the RVR/visibility is below limiting value b. ATC can decide if you can continue the approach c. If you have passed the IAF, the approach can always be continued even if weather deteriorates below approach minima d. The approach may not be started if weather is below approach minima

a. An aircraft shall not descent beyond the Outer Marker (OM), or if no OM shall not descend below 1000ft if the RVR/visibility is below limiting value

Which is incorrect when you are planning to travel on the jumpseat? Select one: a. Be travelling in uniform since you are travelling as passive crew b. Be in possession of a valid Ryanair ID, have a valid licence and passport c. Make yourself known to the handling agent, flight crew and get the Captains approval d. You should board the aircraft first and take any seat

d. You should board the aircraft first and take any seat

Which is our mandatory climb mode after all MCP Altitude / Flight Level changes?

VNAV

Which items will the Captain review as part of the Before Takeoff checklist under ‘Takeoff Briefing’?

Packs, Bleeds, Speeds, SID - including initial turn required, STOP altitude, ET if required and adverse weather

Which of the following callouts is correct for a CAT II/IIIA autoland? Select one: a. Captain, ‘Passing ___radio’ b. F/O, ‘___radio, flare armed’ c. Captain, ‘Passing ___feet, flare armed’ d. F/O: ‘Passing ___radio, flare armed’

d. F/O: ‘Passing ___radio, flare armed’

Which of the following is correct regarding a Special EOSID? Select one: a. Special EOSID's do not have speed restrictions b. If there is a speed restriction for the first turn then you should delay bug up until the turn is completed. c. Always Bug Up upon passing the MSA d. You should always bug up at MFRA on all Special EOSID's

b. If there is a speed restriction for the first turn then you should delay bug up until the turn is completed.

Which of the following is true regarding Continuous Descent Approaches? Select one: a. Not allowed for CAT III ILS b. Allowed for V/S NPA c. Allowed on a VNAV NPA d. Allowed for SRA’s

c. Allowed on a VNAV NPA (answer not verified)

Which of the following is true regarding the ‘Emergency Escape Rope’? Select one: a. The ‘Emergency Escape Rope’ should be checked for your station only b. There is no requirement to check the ‘Emergency Escape Rope’ c. The ‘Emergency Escape Ropes’ (both) are attached to the flight deck d. The ‘Emergency Escape Rope is present. There is no need to check it is actually attached to the flight deck

c. The ‘Emergency Escape Ropes’ (both) are attached to the flight deck

Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to takeoff with CSFF on the upper wing surface? Select one: a. There is no precipitation or visible moisture and fuel tank temperature is at or above -16c b. Ambient air temperature is at or above 4c c. There are no restrictions as long as the CSFF is within the required markings d. The CSFF on the upper surface of wing is only within the lines defining the permissible CSFF area with no ice or frost on the leading edges or control surfaces

c. There are no restrictions as long as the CSFF is within the required markings

Which pilot calls the OM (challenge) check first?

Which position should the ISOLATION valve be in for engine start?

OPEN

Which is the correct action if you get a “SINK RATE” GPWS aural CAUTION on approach?

Promptly correct the flight path and continue

Which statement is correct with regard to tail-strikes Select one: a. Flap 5 is the normal departure flap setting and, in addition, when the crosswind component is in excess of 10 kts assumed temperature thrust reduction is not permitted b. Where the crosswind component is in excess of 15kts, assumed temperature method shall be used c. Where the crosswind component is in excess of 15kts, flaps 1 shall be used for T/O d. Flaps 1 or Flaps 5 may be used for take-off’s in conjunction with assumed temperature thrust reductions

a. Flap 5 is the normal departure flap setting and, in addition, when the crosswind component is in excess of 10 kts assumed temperature thrust reduction is not permitted

Which statement is most correct? The runway is wet for departure. Select one: a. De-rated takeoff is not allowed b. Both De-rated and assumed thrust reduction are allowable c. Neither De-rated, nor assumed thrust reduction are allowable d. Assumed thrust reduction is not allowed

b. Both De-rated and assumed thrust reduction are allowable

Which statement is true regarding low drag approaches? Select one: a. The latest point to call for gear down/flaps 15 during an ILS approach is at 3.5 nm Correct b. Low drag approaches are not approved for non-precision approaches c. Low drag approaches are approved for single engine operations d. Low drag approaches are prohibited on straight in visual approaches

a. The latest point to call for gear down/flaps 15 during an ILS approach is at 3.5 nm Correct

Which statement is true regarding Monitored NPA? Select one: a. The First Officer can call continue as soon as he/she has the required visual references b. The Captain can call continue and continue the approach after ALT ACQ, as long as he/she has the required visual references c. At EGPWS call “minimums” with no visual contact a go-around is mandatory d. The approach can be flown by either pilot

c. At EGPWS call “minimums” with no visual contact a go-around is mandatory

Which statement is true regarding operation above the optimum cruise altitude in LNAV? Select one: a. The aircraft may be operated safely up to and including maximum altitude indicated in the FMC with prior consideration b. Crews should never fly above the optimum altitude c. Crews may not fly in heading select above FL300 d. Crews should not fly faster than 10 knots above the minimum manoeuvre speed (lower amber band)

a. The aircraft may be operated safely up to and including maximum altitude indicated in the FMC with prior consideration

Which statement is true regarding takeoff flap settings? Select one: a. A flap 1 departure must be performed by the Captain b. Flap 15 departures are prohibited c. Flap 1 departures are prohibited d. With flap 5 for departure no assumed temperature reduction is allowed

a. A flap 1 departure must be performed by the Captain

Which statement is true regarding the Flight Director: Select one: a. Flight director cannot be used for guidance during rotation b. The flight director has a built in tail strike avoidance function for the flare mode c. The flight director rotation mode should be followed to avoid a tail strike d. The flight director should be turned off during take off

a. Flight director cannot be used for guidance during rotation

Which statement is true regarding the Loadsheet? Select one: a. The MLW and RTOW should reflect your regulated (structural or performance limited) weight b. The MTOW shall always be the RTOW for the runway of departure c. The MTOW is always 71990 d. The MLW and MTOW are always 65317 and 66990 respectively

a. The MLW and RTOW should reflect your regulated (structural or performance limited) weight

Which statement is true regarding weather related missed approaches? Select one: a. A second approach after a weather related missed approach should always be commenced b. A diversion is always mandatory after one weather related missed approach c. Following one weather related missed approach, a second approach should only be commenced if weather information indicates an improvement to three times the previously given weather d. Following two weather related missed approaches, a third approach should only be commenced if weather information indicates an improvement to double the previously given weather

d. Following two weather related missed approaches, a third approach should only be commenced if weather information indicates an improvement to double the previously given weather

Which Take Off speeds should be used? OPT or FMC?

The RTOW/OPT speeds if the FMC speed differs by more than 1 knot

Which ‘ENGINE START IGN’ selection should be made for engine start? R or L?

Position right when operating through a manned maintenance base for the first flight of the day and alternate thereafter

Whilst flying in RVSM airspace if you have a difference between the Captain’s and F/O’s altimeters of 180ft Select one: a. You follow the indications of the altimeter showing the lowest FL b. You follow the indications of the altimeter showing the highest FL Incorrect c. You are not allowed to continue your flight and have to divert d. You split the difference and use the ALT HLD mode to control the airplane’s flight path

You split the difference and use the ALT HLD mode to control the airplane’s flight path

Who checks the engine parameters i.e. OIL QTY etc. prior to engine start up?

PF, during Flight Deck Preparation

Who checks the PA system from the Flight Deck and when?

The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation

Who checks the “Takeoff CONFIG” warning and when? Select one: a. The PM during Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure b. The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure c. The First Officer ONLY d. The Captain ONLY

b. The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure

Who completes the Light Test pre-flight?

Who enters the Zero-fuel weight into the FMC during the Final CDU Preflight?

The First Officer

Who first checks the maintenance status prior to the first flight?

The PF

Who gives the ‘Cabin Crew seats for landing’ call?

PM, normally around 6nm from touchdown

Wing anti-ice shall be used: Select one: a. On the ground only when slush or standing water is present b. Always when de/anti-icing fluid has been applied to the aircraft c. Always when icing conditions exists d. Always on the ground when icing conditions exists unless the aircraft is or will be anti-iced using type II or type IV fluid

d. Always on the ground when icing conditions exists unless the aircraft is or will be anti-iced using type II or type IV fluid

With a two-step de-ice/anti-icing procedure the holdover time begins with the commencement of?

The second (anti-icing) step

You are on ILS CAT I approach with a cloud base of 600ft and visibility of 2000m, what is the latest point to select the landing gear down on approach?

5nm

You are operating an aircraft with halogen bulbs fitted. Entering the runway, the Fixed Landing lights are placed ON. When are the Retractable lights turned ON?

Also when entering the runway (answer not verified)

You are taking off on runway 18.The wind is 270/20G30. What is your crosswind component and which wind would you use in the OPT for the performance calculation? Select one: a. Crosswind is 30kts and 270/30 would be entered in OPT for performance calculation. b. Crosswind is 20kts and 270/20 would be entered in OPT for performance calculation. c. Crosswind is 20kts and 270/30 would be entered in OPT for performance calculation. d. Crosswind is 30kts and 270/20 would be entered in OPT for performance calculation.

d. Crosswind is 30kts and 270/20 would be entered in OPT for performance calculation. (Answer not verified!)

A fast re-alignment should be complete in?

30 seconds

A flashing ALIGN light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit may indicate?

Alignment cannot be completed until the present position is entered

A manual entry of M0.72 for descent speed into the TGT SPD line on the ACT ECON PATH DES page will?

Change the page title to display ACT M.720 PATH DES

Actual navigation performance represents the estimated maximum position error with percentage probability of?

95%

After a normal take-off, which pitch command can you expect?

MCP+20kts

After completing the FMC CDU pre-flight actions, you look at the POS INIT page again. The SET IRS POS line is missing. What is required?

Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRSs have transitioned to the navigation mode

After entering a route in the FMC, pushing the ACTIVATE key:

Arms the route for execution as the active route.

After initial RTA waypoint entry, the displayed ETA is based on?

The active flight plan and performance parameters/entered forecast winds (answer not verified)

After lift-off, the A/T remains THR HLD until?

800 feet Radio Altitude

After localiser and glideslope capture, APP mode can be disengaged by? Select one: a. Re-tuning the VHF NAV receiver b. All of the other answers are correct c. Disengaging the auto-pilots and turning off both F/D switches d. Pushing the TO/GA switch

b. All of the other answers are correct

Bank angle selector on the MCP heading knob operates bank angle for AFDS:

a. Operation in HDG mode and VORLOC mode

Default ‘Required Navigation Performance’ in the final approach environment is?

0.3 nm

Departure or arrival airfields can be selected on the FMC Select one: a. In three or four-digit format (STN or EGSS) b. Must be typed in full (STANSTED) c. In three-digit format only (STN) d. In four-digit format only (EGSS)

d. In four-digit format only (EGSS)

During a Dual Channel ILS approach, at which Radio Altitude should the FLARE mode engage?

50 feet

During a VNAV path descent, the FMC commands thrust as required and pitch to fly a vertical path: Select one: a. VNAV PTH always commands idle thrust b. Which does NOT comply with altitude and speed restrictions in the flight path c. Which complies with altitude and speed restrictions in the flight path d. Which complies only with altitude restrictions

c. Which complies with altitude and speed restrictions in the flight path

During an IRS alignment, a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot be completed due to IRS detection of?

A significant difference between previous and entered position or an unreasonable present position (answer not verified)

During cruise, the primary FMC pages are?

PM - LEGS, PF correct page for phase of flight

During pre-flight a manually entered Speed Restriction (SPD REST) of the following should be entered?

250 knots below FL100

Engaging LVL CHG or VNAV in the climb, automatically engages…?

Engages the A/T in the N1 mode

FMC climb phase begins at thrust reduction altitude and is terminated at which point?

At the top of climb point when the aircraft reaches cruise altitude as selected on the PERF INIT page

FMC logic selects which information as the primary update to the FMC position (all systems operative)?

GPS (answer not verified)

FMC: The acceptable RTA (Required Time of Arrival) entry format for ‘Time 10:30:45 or Before’ (Hours:Minutes:Seconds) in RTA PROGRESS page 2/3 is?

103045B

Fuel on board is automatically displayed as received from…?

Received from the aircraft fuel quantity indication system

How does the ‘MOD CRZ CLB’ page automatically displayed on the CDU?

By entering a higher cruise altitude on the CRZ page

If a return to land is necessary after takeoff, the following FMC requirement is necessary

Enter the new ‘level off’ altitude in the cruise page (answer is not verified)

If an active database expires in flight, what happens?

The expired database continues to be used until the active data is changed after landing

If an engine fails during flight? Select one: a. VNAV immediately disengages and cannot be re-engaged b. Selecting the MOD ENGINE OUT CRZ page provides information only. The execute light does not illuminate c. Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all performance data must be re-entered before VNAV can be re-engaged d. Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all subsequent performance predictions are blanked

Selecting the MOD ENGINE OUT CRZ page provides information only. The execute light does not illuminate

If IRS alignment is lost in flight? Select one: a. The present position is lost b. The navigation mode is lost c. All of the other answers are correct d. The attitude mode may be recovered by selecting ATT mode in straight, level, un-accelerated flight

All of the other answers are correct (answer not verified)

If on the ‘Autothrottle Indicator’ the A/T Disengage light is flashing amber?

The airspeed differs by +10/-5 kts from command speed, inflight and flaps not up (Answer not verified)

If the ANP exceeds the RNP value, the following message will appear on the CDU scratch pad

‘UNABLE REQD NAV PERF–RNP’

If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates?

A system fault affecting the related IRS ATT and/or NAV mode has been detected

If the pilot overrides the autopilot with control column force pitch input and the aircraft is fitted with FCC 8.0 software, which of the following occurs immediately? Select one: a. LNAV disengages b. The auto-pilot engages in LNAV c. The auto-pilot will disconnect. d. LEVEL CHANGE annunciates on the FMA

c. The auto-pilot will disconnect.

In normal operation, what provides the A/T system with N1 limit values?

The FMC

In the FMC, a lateral offset may be specified, however some legs are invalid for offset. These include?

Route discontinuity and DME arcs

LEGS page: What data is available by line selecting the RTE DATA prompt on the ACT RTE LEGS page? Select one: a. Manually entered speed and altitude restrictions for each waypoint b. ETA and forecast wind data for each cruise waypoint c. All of the other answers are correct d. FMC calculated speed and altitude data for each waypoint

b. ETA and forecast wind data for each cruise waypoint

LNAV automatically disconnects when? Select one: a. Reaching a route discontinuity b. All of the other answers are correct c. Selecting HDG SEL d. Losing the capture criteria

b. All of the other answers are correct

LNAV will only engage when which conditions are met?

Engage if the aircraft is outside 3nm and on an intercept heading of 90 degrees or less and the intercept will occur before the active waypoint

LVL CHG climb and descent commands made while using the auto-flight system are based on which airspeed?

The MCP

Moving the STABTRIM autopilot cut-out switch to the CUTOUT position will Select one: a. Cause the autopilot to revert to CWS mode b. Disengage the autopilot c. Does not disengage the autopilot d. Cause VNAV and LNAV to change to LVL CHG and HDG SEL

b. Disengage the autopilot

Normal IRS alignment is initiated by rotating the MSU switch from OFF to?

NAV

Normal Takeoff: Above 1500 feet but before flaps up, the FMA will annunciate?

N1; LNAV; MCP SPD

On the CDU page, when dashes are displayed? Select one: a. Data input is mandatory b. It depends on the CDU page selected c. Data input is optional d. Dashes displayed indicate a failure in the selected line

c. Data input is optional

On the CRZ page, the Turbulence N1 (TURB N1)? Select one: a. Displays proper N1 for turbulence penetration. The value is for reference only. It is not commanded to the A/T b. Is the minimum N1 commanded by the A/T during all flight conditions to ensure safe penetration? c. Is executed on the CRZ page only d. May be line selected to the scratch pad and transferred to the N1 LIMIT page for activation and execution

a. Displays proper N1 for turbulence penetration. The value is for reference only. It is not commanded to the A/T

On the FIX page the ‘RAD/DIS FR’ displays the radial and distance from the fix to the aircraft. Select one: a. This information only applies to radials and distances from airfields b. This information is not updated as the aircraft position changes c. This information is continually updated as the aircraft position changes d. This feature only works if a VOR is selected

c. This information is continually updated as the aircraft position changes

On the ground, the call horn in the nose wheel sounds when? Select one: a. There is a fire warning alert b. A battery drain condition exists (IRS operating from DC power) c. The pilot is calling the ground engineer d. There is no horn in the nose wheel, only in the main wheel bay

b. A battery drain condition exists (IRS operating from DC power)

Pre-flight - PERF INIT page: Which parameter is NOT considered in the automatic TRIP/CRZ ALT calculation (R1)?

RESERVES

RIBETS - Route Briefing: When the PM is reading the flight plan details from the PLOG he/she should read the flight number as follows:

“Romeo, Yankee, Romeo 1234”

Selecting an approach or runway on the ARRIVALS page: Select one: a. Will automatically delete a previously selected approach or runway. b. Will automatically apply the appropriate transition from the STAR c. Will generate a message ‘CONFIRM ARRIVAL’ d. Will not delete the previously selected approach or runway

a. Will automatically delete a previously selected approach or runway.

The A/C is in level flight with the ALT HOLD engaged. Changing the MCP altitude by more than 100 feet from current altitude…

… Arms the V/S mode

The AFS provides speed, pitch and thrust commands to avoid exceeding the following limit speeds: Select one: a. There is no protection for any speed exceedances b. Minimum speeds only c. Vmo/Mmo plus Flap and Gear placard speed d. Flap placard speeds only

c. Vmo/Mmo plus Flap and Gear placard speed

The ALT HOLD mode of the AFDS is inhibited Select one: a. Go-Around b. After Glide slope capture c. VNAV mode d. In LVL CHG mode

b. After Glide slope capture

The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of?

The autopilot flight director system (AFDS) and the auto-throttle (A/T)

The autopilot cannot be engaged Select one: a. Until a vertical mode has been selected b. Both a vertical and lateral mode has been selected c. A lateral mode has been selected d. While force is applied to the control wheel

d. While force is applied to the control wheel

The current Headwind/Tailwind component may be viewed in

Progress Page 2

The FMC Advisory Message ‘BUFFET ALERT’ indicates? Select one: a. The A/C is in a partial or full stall b. The aircraft is now experiencing airframe buffet c. Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than specified d. Clear air turbulence has been detected in the immediate flight path

c. Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than specified

The FMC Advisory Message ‘DRAG REQUIRED’ indicates the aircraft is 10 knots or more above the FMC target speed or within 5 knots of Vmo/Mmo Select one: a. False in both cases b. True in both cases c. True in relation to target speed only d. True in relation to Vmo/Mmo only

b. True in both cases

The FMC gets position information from

The GPS/GNSS plus inertial, VOR and DME’s

The FMC uses the IRS position as reference when external position updating is not available. When IRS is the only position reference, Select one: a. The FMC applies an automatic correction to determine the most probable FMC position b. The pilot must allow for possible errors in position c. The FMC does not apply any correction to determine the most probable FMC position d. The pilot must manually enter present position and update

a. The FMC applies an automatic correction to determine the most probable FMC position

The fuel quantity displayed on the PROGRESS page 1/3 is?

Total fuel quantity remaining direct from the aircraft fuel quantity indication system

The purpose of the FIX INFO page is to? Select one: a. FIR boundaries automatically appear b. Identify waypoint fixes for displays on the navigation displays c. To see the MSA d. The only purpose is to complete a fuel check

b. Identify waypoint fixes for displays on the navigation displays

The RTE LEGS page can be used Select one: a. To monitor route progress and modify the route b. To monitor route progress only c. This page should never be selected inflight d. To modify the route only

a. To monitor route progress and modify the route

The SELECT DESIRED WPT page is automatically displayed when: Select one: a. The waypoint is not recognised b. The destination airfield has not been entered c. The FMC encounters more than one location for the same waypoint name after a waypoint entry d. This page always displays when selecting a VOR

c. The FMC encounters more than one location for the same waypoint name after a waypoint entry

The transition altitude of the PERF INIT page? Select one: a. Is automatically entered when the TRIP/CRZ altitude is entered in the FMC b. Displays 10,000 feet at FMC power up c. Changes after selecting a departure procedure with a different transition altitude d. Cannot be manually changed by the crew to a new altitude

c. Changes after selecting a departure procedure with a different transition altitude

To climb in the shortest horizontal distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this FMC page?

CLB

Trimming the stabilizer with the electrical trim switch on the control wheel when the auto-pilot is engaged Select one: a. Will disengage the autopilot b. Cause the autopilot to revert to CWS mode c. Will NOT disengage the autopilot d. Cause VNAV and LNAV to revert to LVL CHG and HDG SEL

a. Will disengage the autopilot

VNAV is terminated by? Select one: a. All of the other answers are correct b. Capturing G/S c. Selecting a different pitch mode d. Reaching the end of an LNAV route

a. All of the other answers are correct

Waypoints on the RTE LEGS page can be entered and moved. This includes? Select one: a. Deleting existing waypoints b. All of the other answers are correct c. Adding new waypoints d. Re-sequencing existing waypoints

b. All of the other answers are correct

What do crews use to communicate with the FMC? Select one: a. A single FMA b. FMAs c. Two independent CDUs d. Independent ADIRUs

c. Two independent CDUs

What does MOD on the RTE page indicate?

b. The route has been modified and the change is not executed Correct

What does the DES NOW prompt on the PATH DES page provide?

Execution allows early initiation of a descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the computed path

What information is available with the IRS mode selector at ATT?

Only attitude and heading information

What is the aircraft’s main source of attitude and heading information?

Two IRSs

What is the CO switch’s function, which is found below the IAS/MACH window on the MCP?

To change IAS/ MACH display between IAS and MACH

What is the indication on the ‘Autopilot Indicator’ light if the stabilizer is out of trim below 800ft on a Dual Channel approach?

Steady red

What is the minimum altitude for selecting CMD on the second autopilot during a dual channel A/P approach?

800 feet RA

What pitch mode is annunciated after take-off when the auto-pilot is first engaged in CMD?

MCP SPD

What would the indication be on the ‘Autopilot Indicator’ if the ALT ACQ was inhibited during an A/P go-around if the stabilizer is out of trim?

Steady red

When aligning the IRS between 78 degrees 15 minutes North or South latitude? Select one: a. The alignment process begins when the ON DC light illuminates and the ALIGN light extinguishes b. Alignment time will vary from 5 minutes to 17 minutes depending on A/C latitude c. Rotate the MSU switch from OFF to ALIGN d. Aircraft present position is not a required entry

b. Alignment time will vary from 5 minutes to 17 minutes depending on A/C latitude

When an MCP switch/button (eg LVL CHG, HDG) is illuminated it means?

The mode is armed or active but may be de-selected

When APP mode is engaged Select one: a. The information used by auto-pilot B is derived from the number 2 course selector and the number one VHF NAV receiver b. The information used by auto-pilot A is derived from the number 1 course selector and the number two VHF NAV receiver c. The information used by auto-pilot A is derived from the number 2 course selector and the number one VHF NAV receiver d. The information used by auto-pilot A is derived from the number 1 course selector and the number one VHF NAV receiver

d. The information used by auto-pilot A is derived from the number 1 course selector and the number one VHF NAV receiver

When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the A/C will roll wings level when the bank angle is?

6 degrees or less

When descending at a set/constant Mach the IAS will?

Increase

When does an IRS automatically enter the navigation mode?

When the mode selector is in NAV, present position entered, and alignment is complete

When HDG SEL is engaged, the bank angle selector will not…

…prevent aerodynamic loads being exceeded

When selecting an altitude in the MCP altitude display window? Select one: a. The selected MCP altitude is transmitted to ATC via mode S transponder b. The selected altitude is a reference for alerting c. The aircraft will level off at this altitude in all vertical modes if unrestricted d. All of the other answers are correct

d. All of the other answers are correct

When the aircraft gross weight is not available from the FMC, the Approach Ref page will normally?

Be displaying box prompts

When the ALT INTV switch on the MCP panel is pushed during a VNAV descent?

The next FMC altitude constraint is deleted if above the selected MCP altitude

When the FMC is not receiving the required fuel data from the fuel quantity indication system:

The last received fuel quantity will be displayed with a warning message (Answer is not verified)

When the FMC is not receiving valid fuel data?

The scratch pad message “VERIFY GW AND FUEL” may be displayed. The pilot is responsible for periodic entry of fuel weight in order to keep gross weight value current

When the IRSs are operating in the normal navigation mode, they provide?

All this: a. Track, present position and wind data b. All of the other answers are correct c. Acceleration, vertical speed and ground speed d. Attitude and true and magnetic heading

When the SPD INTV switch on the MCP is pushed, with VNAV engaged? Select one: a. IAS/ MACH window remains blanked b. IAS/ MACH window is displayed but may not be changed c. IAS/ MACH is displayed and may be changed d. IAS/ MACH value changes from Mach to IAS or vice versa

c. IAS/ MACH is displayed and may be changed

Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?

N1 and ARM (Answer is not verified)

Which mode must be armed before the second auto-pilot can be selected?

APP

Which of the following is not a major component of the inertial system? Select one: a. Instrument display unit (IDU) transfer switch b. Mode select unit (MSU) c. Air data inertial reference units (ADIRU) d. Inertial system display unit (ISDU)

a. Instrument display unit (IDU) transfer switch

Which of the following is true of a VNAV PTH descent? Select one: a. VNAV may revert to LVL CHG to prevent over speed b. VNAV Path will just maintain the path regardless of speed c. Airspeed is maintained constant d. Airspeed window opens and remains constant

a. VNAV may revert to LVL CHG to prevent over speed

What occurs when the TO/GA switch is pressed once below 2000 feet Radio Altitude during a single channel autopilot ILS approach?

All this occurs: a. The auto-pilot disengages b. The pitch mode will change to TOGA mode c. The A/T (if armed) advances thrust levers to a reduced go-around thrust d. All of the other answers are correct

Which page on the FMC can you locate the date of the active navigation database?

IDENT

With regards to command speed limiting, the AFS provides speed, pitch and thrust commands to avoid exceeding which limits?

All this: a. All of the other answers are correct Correct b. Flap & Landing Gear Placards c. Vmo/Mmo d. Minimum Speeds

With VNAV engaged, the A/T speed is commanded from the?

FMC

CWS’ mode: Select one: a. Is an auto throttle mode only b. Is never to be used c. Is not an autopilot mode d. Is an autopilot mode

d. Is an autopilot mode

3% contingency with ERA. Which statement is true? Select one: a. None of other answers b. Every Ryanair flights plan 5% contingency fuel c. An enroute alternate aerodrome may be selected for the purposes of reducing Contingency fuel to 3% d. Every Ryanair flight plans 3% contingency with ERA

c. An enroute alternate aerodrome may be selected for the purposes of reducing Contingency fuel to 3%

Does the aircraft registration have to match the registration on the OFP?

Yes

Fuel Bias is specific to individual aircraft Select one: a. An average fuel bias is applied to all flight plans b. True c. Fuel Bias is the same for every Ryanair aircraft d. Fuel Bias does not apply to Ryanair aircraft

b. True

Is Ryanair ETOPS approved? Select one: a. Only in the Winter b. No. However ETOPS/ETP may appear on a MNPS flight plan c. Yes d. Only in the Summer

b. No. However ETOPS/ETP may appear on a MNPS flight plan

Variable Alternates. Which statement is true? Select one: a. Ryanair does not use variable alternates b. Alternates will vary based on airport suitability checks and weather conditions c. Lido does not check alternate suitability d. Alternates always stay the same

b. Alternates will vary based on airport suitability checks and weather conditions

What Cost Index is to be entered in the FMC pre-flight? Select one: a. CI 30 b. Variable CI c. Flight Plan specified Cost Index or fixed Mach Number d. CI 50

c. Flight Plan specified Cost Index or fixed Mach Number

What lateral clearance is the Route MORA based on?

10NM either side of the route centerline

What wind value should be entered into the FMC during pre-flight?

TOC WIND and AVG WIND

Where can you find operational information such as handling frequencies and de-icing details for your departure and destination airports in the briefing pack?

In the Company NOTAM section at the back of the NOTAM pack

Where is the primary location for your briefing package for your flight duty?

EFL App

Which Cruise Altitude takes precedence?

Operational Flight Plan (Cruise Altitude) if lower than FMC Opt if not ATC capped

Which formula is used to calculate additional trip fuel burn when ATOW exceeds OFP TOW on non tankering sectors?

2.5% of additional weight in kg, multiplied by flight time in hours

A runway could be downgraded to a more conservative value from the RCR by: Select one: a. AIREP. b. The aircraft Commander if in his/her opinion this is appropriate under the current conditions. c. All of the other answers are correct. d. In conditions of heavy rainfall on a grooved runway.

c. All of the other answers are correct.

A runway contaminated with Dry or Wet Snow over Ice: Select one: a. Is considered as contaminated for takeoff and slippery for landing b. Use WET SNOW as an OPT condition. c. Has a RWYCC 0, and takeoff or landing are prohibited d. Should be considered as MEDIUM for takeoff and MEDIUM for landing

c. Has a RWYCC 0, and takeoff or landing are prohibited

Aircraft 800W After driftdown, following an engine failure, the aircraft weight is 65000kgs and the OAT is ISA. At Max Continuous Thrust, what is your long range cruise altitude capability?

22500 feet

If your OPT is U/S what would be your LDTA be, given the following conditions; RWYCC 5/5/5, Pressure Altitude 1000ft, Wind Calm, ISA +10, Flap 30, LW 60T, MANUAL SPEEDBRAKES, NON SFP, MAX MANUAL.

1765 or 1825 (answer to be verified)

Aircraft EI-SIM At which speed should the PF rotate to maximize tail clearance at lift off? What would be the thrust rating? EGCC RWY23R full length, DRY, 280/30, 10ºC, QNH1003, RTG ?, FLAP5, A/C AUTO, A/I OFF MTOM 71000 kg.

146kts with full 24K „When crosswind in excess of ten knots exists and no assumed temperature reduction off a given derate is possible, then the next highest derate shall be selected, i.e. 22k derate, no assumed temp possible, select 24k for this takeoff. This is a tailstrike prevention policy.“

You are planning takeoff dispatch, the runway surface has improved and is covered with Slush. The airport operator has upgraded the RWYCC 1 Ice to RWYCC 2, what runway surface condition would be entered into the OPT. Select one: a. RWYCC 3 MEDIUM as this is an Upgraded runway. b. RWYCC 2 MEDIUM TO POOR c. Airport Operators and not allowed to Upgrade from RWYCC 1 or 0 d. RWYCC 2 SLUSH Greater than 3mm

b. RWYCC 2 MEDIUM TO POOR

You are arriving into EGNX 27, the Runway Condition Code of 5/5/5 has been given. You have observed a moderate rain shower in the vicinity of the airport, with no update of the RWYCC what condition would you use in OPT for the LDTA? Select one: a. Use Slippery Wet RWYCC 3 MEDIUM b. Assume a RWYCC of 1 POOR, Landing Prohibited c. Assume a RWYCC of 2 MEDIUM TO POOR d. Wet runway RWYCC 5 GOOD

c. Assume a RWYCC of 2 MEDIUM TO POOR

MEDIUM TO POOR and 17kts

During a EOSID all turns below MFRA are based on a bank angle of 15º. Once at Flaps UP Manoeuvering Speed bank angle for the EOSID must be increased to 25º. Select one: False True

TRUE

Aircraft EI-SIM EGNX RWY27 full length, DRY, wind 290/15 270V310, OAT -20ºC, QNH1001, OPT, FL5, A/C AUTO, A/I OFF TOW 70.0tons. What wind do you enter in the OPT and what MFRA do you set in the BARO window?

310/15 and 1567ft

Manual calculation corrections for an engine bleed off Takeoff for B737-800W, Flaps 5 using OMB-P

Climb 1350Kg, Obstacle 550Kg, Runway 350Kg

In the RTOW’s/ OPT, the Climb Limited Weights are based on:

The 2.4% climb gradient required in the 2nd segment [Take-Off Climb Limited Weight: The weight that permits an aircraft to achieve a 2.4% gross climb gradient atbeginning of the second segment climb, with one engine inoperative]

Interpret the following

Runway 10 first third is 75% covered with 5mm of Slush

It is prohibited to takeoff in slush/standing water with a depth greater than ____, or Dry Snow with a depth greater than ____.

13mm / 100mm

It is prohibited to takeoff or land on a runway where the RWYCC is:

RWYCC 1 and 0

Line up allowance: Select one: a. Is accounted for in the RTOW/OPT calculations b. Is never accounted in the RTOW tables c. Is always based on 90º entry d. Must be subtracted from the RTOW figures based on 10kg/m

a. Is accounted for in the RTOW/OPT calculations

Aircraft EI-SIM OPT LDTA: EGAE/LDY Rwy26, 4.0 MACG, RWYCC 3/3/3, 320/20, OAT 0ºC, QNH1000, FL40, all systems operational, LW 61000kg. Can you land and why?

No, because I am not allowed reverser credit due to the XWC

RWYCC reported as 3/2/3. What is the crosswind limit for landing?

17kts [The LOWEST reported RWYCC, within the area being used, will determine the crosswind limit]

RW27 wind 280/35G55 what wind do you enter in the PERFORMANCE-TAKEOFF calculation on the OPT to work out, 1) The crosswind component? 2) The take-off performance?

1)280/55 2)280/35

RWY27 wind 290/30G55 what wind do you enter in the PERFORMANCE-TAKEOFF calculation on the OPT to work out 1) The crosswind component? 2) The take-off performance settings? Select one:

(1) 290/55 & (2) 290/30

SID’s are normally designed in accordance with the following criteria: Select one: a. One engine inoperative b. Normal all engine operations c. A climb gradient of 2.5% d. Will always assure one engine out obstacle clearance requirements are met

b. Normal all engine operations

The '3 Kelvin Spread Rule: Select one: a. Is a consideration when air temperature and dew point are both +3ºC b. Is one criteria used to downgrade OPT COND on slush covered runways c. May be used as an indicator that runway conditions may be more slippery than anticipated d. States the runway may be more slippery when OAT is in the range 0 to -3ºC

c. May be used as an indicator that runway conditions may be more slippery than anticipated

The Crosswind limits are based on the wind velocity measured where and reported by whom?

At a 10m height, as reported by the tower

The tables in the QRH Performance Inflight, Normal Configuration landing Distances are Select one: a. Are factored +67% for a Dry runway and another 15% for a Wet runway b. Are all factored +67% c. Are un-factored d. Are all factored +15%

d. Are all factored +15%

If you have accelerated after MFRA and are carrying out an EOSID and at Flaps Up Manouvering Speed, what bank angle should be used?

25 degrees

To determine the LDA from the Navtech chart Select one: a. Always use the figure given on the runway drawing b. Always use the figure in the LDA column c. Always use the figure as shown in the TORA d. Always use the figure as given in the intersection table

b. Always use the figure in the LDA column

When making manual RTOW calculations and determining V speeds from the RTOW chart: Select one: a. Use the Actual TOW and check the Climb and Runway Limited Weight columns b. Use the Max RTOW and check the Runway Limited Weight column c. Use the Max TOW and check the Climb and Runway Limited Weight columns d. Use the Actual TOW and check the zero wind column always

a. Use the Actual TOW and check the Climb and Runway Limited Weight columns

Use the Runway Surface QRG to determine landing OPT COND for a RWYCC 3/3/3 compacted snow, depth 10mm, temperature -12ºC.

MEDIUM

SLUSH 7mm

Select one: a. MEDIUM TO POOR crosswind limit of 15 b. MEDIUM crosswind limit of 15 c. MEDIUM crosswind limit of 20 d. MEDIUM TO POOR crosswind limit of 17

b. MEDIUM crosswind limit of 15 [When more than one RWYCC or contaminant type is reported, anOPT calculation must be completed for each OPT COND, and themost limiting case used for the take-off calculation.]

Using the QRH, what is the Inflight Landing Distance Required using, Flap 40, Autobrake 3 for the following conditions: PA = 2000ft, DRY, HW = 5Kt, 15ºC, LW = 60000kg, ALL REV OP

2045m

V1 (mcg) stands for:

V1 limited by minimum control speed on the ground

What is correct regarding takeoff from a 2500m WET runway with anti-skid inoperative? Select one: a. Takeoff is not allowed from a wet runway with anti-skid inop b. If both thrust reversers are operating, no weight penalty is required c. Use the most restrictive of WET or slippery performance figures d. If the runway is contaminated reduce the corrected V1 by 15Kt

a. Takeoff is not allowed from a wet runway with anti-skid inop

What is RYR policy when determining an ATRT setting from the OPT? Select one: a. Use a captain derived figure all the time b. Never use ATRT c. Use MAX ATM and apply at all times d. Use MAX ATM and apply only when the conditions allow

d. Use MAX ATM and apply only when the conditions allow

What is the correct statement in regard to the LUP (Line-Up Allowance)? Select one: a. Figures given are always for 180o turnaround turns only b. It is shown at the bottom of the RTOW’s and is included in the OPT calculations. c. The RTOW/OPT figures do not allow for LUP d. Figures given are always for 90o entry turns only

b. It is shown at the bottom of the RTOW’s and is included in the OPT calculations.

What is the crosswind limit for landing on a WET (GOOD) runway with one thrust reverser inoperative?

33kts (Answer not verified)

What is the crosswind limit for takeoff on a runway containing slush that is greater than 3mm?

15kts

What is the crosswind limit for takeoff on a wet runway, COG >25%, with one thrust reverser inoperative?

25kts (Answer not verified, früher wurde crosswind mit asymetric reversers um 5 knoten reduced??)

What is the total crosswind component and can you land on RWY 27, dry, and wind from ATC 320/35G45?

35kts, landing not permitted

What is the total crosswind component and can you takeoff from RWY 14 with the following conditions: DRY, and wind from ATC 210/20G40?

38kts, takeoff not permitted

Aircraft 737 800W What is the weight penalty and V1 reduction for a 2000m wet runway when taking off with the anti-skid inoperative when using the OMB / RTOW charts instead of the OPT? Select one: a. 8500kg and V1 adjustment of -19 b. Not allowed to depart on a wet runway c. 7900kg and V1 adjustment of -16 d. 7950kg and V1 adjustment of -19

b. Not allowed to depart on a wet runway

22K Full - V1 136

When making a manual RTOW calculation, an airfield elevation is 1440 feet and the QNH is 1032hPa. What is the pressure altitude?

870ft [1440-(19x30)]=870

When making manual RTOW calculations, QNH corrections are calculated using: Select one: a. Below 1013hPa but it is dependent on variant b. 90kg/hPa below 1013 c. 90kg/hPa above and below 1013 d. 30kg/hPa above and below 1013

a. Below 1013hPa but it is dependent on variant

When performing a no engine bleed takeoff with B737 800W using F5 what extra performance do you get for a field limited take off if using the OMB - P tables instead of the OPT:

+350kgs

Which is true regarding the MFRA for the departure? Select one: a. It is found on the OPT calculation and is temperature corrected b. It’s always airfield elevation +1000 feet unless specified in a memo c. It is only stated on the airfield brief for the airport d. It is found on the OPT calculation and is not temperature corrected

a. It is found on the OPT calculation and is temperature corrected

Which of the following could be considered a contaminated runway? Select one: a. More than 25% of one-third of the runway surface area is covered by water with depth greater than 3mm b. 75% of the runway is covered by water patches of depth less than 3mm c. The entire runway is covered by slush, 2mm deep d. The braking action is reported as MEDIUM

a. More than 25% of one-third of the runway surface area is covered by water with depth greater than 3mm

Which statement is correct regarding tailwind components? Select one: a. Ryanair operations are always limited to a maximum of 10kts tailwind b. Takeoff with tailwind components between -11kts and -15kts is only permitted if specified in the Airfield Brief and shown on the RTOW chart/OPT output c. Takeoff with tailwind component up to -12kts is permitted if the TORA exceeds 2500m d. Maximum certified tailwind component is -10kts

b. Takeoff with tailwind components between -11kts and -15kts is only permitted if specified in the Airfield Brief and shown on the RTOW chart/OPT output

With regard to Takeoff thrust settings from a runway with a Special EOSID: Select one: a. No Derate allowed, but ATRT permitted b. Crews can use Derate and or ATRT as per normal (unless specified otherwise) c. No Derate or ATRT allowed d. Derate is allowed but no ATRT

b. Crews can use Derate and or ATRT as per normal (unless specified otherwise)

RWYCC 3 and a Crosswind Limit of 15 [When more than one RWYCC or contaminant type is reported, anOPT calculation must be completed for each OPT COND, and themost limiting case used for the take-off calculation.]

You are planning an Autoland using Flap 40. The LDR is…?

Increased by 140m

Select one: a. AUTO BRK 3 and 25kts b. Can not land due to crosswind limit c. AUTO BRK 1 and 25kts d. AUTO BRK 3 and 23kts

d. AUTO BRK 3 and 23kts [MEDIUM: crosswind limit is 25kts, but due to cleared width is less than 40m, it has to be further reduced by 1 knot per meter)

Select one: a. AUTO BRK 3: 2713m b. AUTO BRK 3: 2693m c. AUTO BRK 2: 2567m d. AUTO BRK 1: 2750m

a. AUTO BRK 3: 2713m (Answer not verified, doesn’t make sense)

You are planning for a departure with a runway description of Slippery Wet, what COND would you entre into the OPT?

MEDIUM

You are planning to depart from a dry runway with ONE thrust reverser inoperative. Which of the following statements is correct? Select one: a. Add the MEL restriction to the OPT. b. Dispatch is not allowed on slippery or contaminated runways. c. Use slippery takeoff plus No Reverse thrust performance figures. d. Reduce field limit by 1050Kgs and V1 by 2Kt

a. Add the MEL restriction to the OPT.

Your OPT is U/S, the QNH at departure airfield is 1029hPa. What is the weight correction to the Runway Limited Weight when using only RTOW charts? Select one: a. -1440kg b. -480kg c. -1120kg d. No correction required

d. No correction required

Your OPT is U/S. A runway is completely covered with 6mm of slush. Which charts are used to determine takeoff performance? Select one: a. Determine BA from TALPA Matrix, apply BC downgrade criteria, and use Slippery Runway Takeoff Performance from Preamble Annex. b. Dispatch is not permitted with the OPT unavailable on either EFB. c. The WET RTOW page then apply corrections from Slush/Standing Water Takeoff chart from Preamble Annex d. The DRY RTOW page then apply corrections from MEDIUM TO POOR Slippery Takeoff chart from Preamble Annex

b. Dispatch is not permitted with the OPT unavailable on either EFB.

CAT II/III Approach: Below 500 feet AGL a Go-around is mandatory if: Select one: a. Localiser deviation >1/3 Dot or Glideslope deviation >1/3 Dot, No Flare Arm b. Localiser deviation >1/3 Dot, Glideslope deviation >1/3 Dot c. Localiser deviation >1 Dot or Glideslope deviation >1 Dot, No Flare Arm d. Localiser deviation >1/3 Dot or Glideslope deviation >1 Dot, No Flare Arm

d. Localiser deviation >1/3 Dot or Glideslope deviation >1 Dot, No Flare Arm

From what stage during a CAT II/III approach is an automatic go-around available?

Once “FLARE” is armed (Answer not verified)

How will the crew ascertain the status of an airfield with regard to the availability of a CAT II/III approach? Select one: a. Receiving clearance for a CAT II/III approach from ATC b. NOTAMS c. All of the other answers are correct d. By confirming the status of the approach with ATC

c. All of the other answers are correct

Is the height of the captain’s seat important during a CAT II/III approach? Select one: a. No, as the landing is automatic b. The captain should sit as low as possible c. Yes, as this improves the visual segment observed d. No, as the higher the seat the less likely that the captain will see the runway

c. Yes, as this improves the visual segment observed

It is a regulatory requirement that a record is kept of all CAT II/III approaches carried out by an aircraft. Who records this and where?

The Captain records the approach in the aircraft Techlog

On a CAT II/III Approach: Below 500 feet AGL a Go-around is mandatory if: Select one: a. Any of the required airborne equipment becomes inoperative b. Any of the required ground equipment becomes inoperative c. A rate of descent greater than 1000 FPM occurs d. All of the other answers are correct

d. All of the other answers are correct

The CAT III threshold RVR requirement is 200m. What is the RVR requirement for the mid-point?

125 m

The following is true regarding the use of landing lights on a CATII/III approach? Select one: a. Captain may elect to leave landing lights off b. The use of landing lights is always recommended c. Turn off lights only are compulsory d. Landing lights must be used except at night

a. Captain may elect to leave landing lights off

The maximum wind components allowed for a CATII/III approach are

HWC 25 kts: XWC 20 kts: TWC 10 kts

The minimum required take off RVR in the touchdown, midpoint and stop end for a 125m take off approved runway is:

125m/125m/125m

To calculate the crosswind component take

The highest reported wind value (Steady or gust)

What does alternate green and yellow lights on a taxiway centreline mean: Select one: a. You are vacating the runway on a high speed exit in LVP b. The aircraft is not in the ILS critical area and cannot interfere with the ILS signal c. 300m to the end of the taxiway d. The aircraft is still in the ILS sensitive area and can interfere with the ILS signal

The aircraft is still in the ILS sensitive area and can interfere with the ILS signal

What is the minimum required Go-Around climb gradient for a CAT II/III approach?

2.5%

What is the minimum touchdown, midpoint and stop end RVR on a CAT I approach?

550m/125m/75m

What visual reference is required on a CAT IIIA approach to land:

A segment of at least 3 consecutive lights

Where will you find listed the effect of downgraded aircraft equipment on ability to commence/continue a CAT II/III approach?

MEL

Where will you find listed the effect of downgraded ground based equipment on landing minima?

Operations Manual Part A 8.4.1.5

Where will you find the information telling you which runway is CAT III?

The Navtech chart and the CAT III approved runway list is kept on the EFB

RTC 1 Flashcards

(420 cards)