RTC 1 Flashcards
Choose the correct statement regarding FMC (thrust limited) maximum altitude flight:
Select one:
1) HDG SEL provides bank angle limiting function to avoid exceeding thrust limits during turns
2) When using HDG SEL, the drag in a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust
3) ISA deviation has no effect on altitude capability
4) You should never fly more than 10 knots above the lower amber band
When using HDG SEL, the drag in a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust
A double briefing does not have to contain the following:
Select one:
1) Both crew’s intentions on becoming visual & both crew’s intentions on reaching MDA if not visual (i.e. the Go-Around procedure for the aircraft to Flaps up)
2) Where Flaps 1, 5, Landing Gear, Flaps 15, (25), 30/40 are to be selected
3) The Autopilot modes and selections to be used during the approach & The ‘Landing Gate’
4) The autobrake setting to use
The autobrake setting to use
A full test of the GPWS is carried out by the?
F/O, first flight or crew change only
A Monitored Approach does NOT apply to:
Select one:
1) Airports without published Low Visibility Procedures
2) ILS approaches if cloud base is less than 300 feet
3) Circle to land approaches
4) Non Precision Approaches if visibility is less than 3000 meters
Circle to land approaches
When is a new loadsheet required for an LMC (Load Instruction Document not available)? LMC exceeds ….?
LMC exceeds 500kg
A NPA using VNAV must be stabilised by:
1000 feet in IMC conditions, 500 feet in VMC
A runway with more than 25% of its surface area within the required length and width being used, covered with more than 3mm of ‘Slush’ is considered for performance reasons to be a…?
Contaminated Runway
According to the ‘Before Taxi – No Engine Bleed’ Checklist, which of the following is true?
Select one:
1) The FO reads the checklist and completes the actions.
2) The CPT reads the checklist.
3) If wing anti-ice is required for taxi you will configure for a no engine bleed take off just prior to takeoff.
4) Is located on the back side of the winter operations handy dandy.
If wing anti-ice is required for taxi you will configure for a no engine bleed take off just prior to takeoff.
After de-icing with a Type IV fluid, if the Holdover Time expires, what should one do?
Carry out a pre-takeoff contamination check.
After the DAR-01 form has been completed it should:
Be clipped on the Captains control column to serve as a reminder to check that holdover time is still valid prior to departure (Pre-Takeoff Check).
Airfield classifications in Ryanair are as follows:
Category C is the most restrictive category, requiring additional considerations to Category B.
In automatic flight, all MCP ALT changes following an ATC instruction shall be called by the PF and confirmed by the PM. What is our exact procedure?
The PF resets the MCP altitude and keeps finger in contact with the MCP selector and calls ‘SET’ while PM verifies the correct MCP altitude is displayed on the PFD and calls ‘XXX CHECKED
Appropriate Cold Temperature Altitude Corrections shall be made to any published instrument approach procedure altitudes when these are at or below the corrected MSA whenever?
The surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius
An aircraft must be fully stabilized (as defined in the FCOM) passing the …?
The Landing gate
Under which of the following conditions should both the CPT and FO file an ASR?
A Go-Around has been executed below 1000ft AGL.
In which of the following condition is the usage of Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust prohibited?
With a crosswind component exceeding 10 knots
An ‘Emergency Turn’ (engine failure on takeoff) must be flown at what speed and what bank angle?
At V2 (magenta bug) and 15° bank. The turn does not need to be completed before level acceleration unless specified in the ETP. Once above V2+15, bank angle must be increased to 25 degrees.
As a tail strike prevention policy, when crosswind component exceeds 10 knots for takeoff:
No assume temperature thrust reduction is allowed
As part of the evacuation checklist, the F/O will:
Select one:
1) Not pull any fire switches unless a fire switch is illuminated.
2) Pull all engine and APU fire switches and only rotate a fire switch that is illuminated.
3) Pull and rotate all engine and APU fire switches.
4)Pull and rotate engine fire switches only, unless the APU fire switch is illuminated.
Pull all engine and APU fire switches and only rotate a fire switch that is illuminated.
As part of the Route Check, the PF will:
Select one:
1) Call ‘Checked’ and PM executes the route
2) Call ‘Checked’.
3) Call ‘Checked’ and CPT executes the route.
4) Call ‘Checked’ and state the estimated fuel remaining at destination.
Call ‘Checked’ and state the estimated fuel remaining at destination.
Choose the correct statement regarding FMC (thrust limited) maximum altitude flight:
Select one:
1) If speed is allowed to drop it can always be recovered by increasing thrust and maintaining altitude.
2) There is always enough thrust available to make a 25° angle of bank turn.
3) Airplane drag during a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust.
4)The stall speed does not change with altitude.
Airplane drag during a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust. Correct
Which of the following statements is true regarding a tail strike?
Select one:
1) A tail strike on landing requires no action.
2) A tail strike has a dedicated checklist in the QRH entitled ‘Tail Strike’.
3) The tailskid protects the aircraft on landing.
4) A tail strike on takeoff requires no action.
A tail strike has a dedicated checklist in the QRH entitled ‘Tail Strike’.
Under which conditions may crews plan to fly high speed below FL100?
Only in the climb if you are in Class A, B or C airspace and have been authorised to do so by ATC.
Cruise altitude speed must be at least what, when not in LNAV?
At least 10 knots above the lower amber band when not in LNAV
Which is the correct roll mode at 400ft during a GA (providing routing is available)?
LNAV
Which of the following statements is true regarding a Rejected T/O?
Select one:
1) The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake and inform ATC of the RTO. The FO will select flaps 40.
2) The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and wait instructions from the Capt.
3) The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and inform ATC of the RTO.
4) The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will inform ATC of the RTO.
The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and inform ATC of the RTO.
During a single channel or manual approach, the PM should call:
Select one:
1) ‘CONTINUE’ only at the aural ‘MINIMUMS’ call
2) The visual cues only at the aural ‘MINIMUMS’ call
3) The visual cues as they become apparent during the approach
4) ‘GO AROUND’ if not visual passing the landing gate
The visual cues as they become apparent during the approach
During crosswind takeoffs:
Select one:
1) Maximum allowed assumed temperature reduced thrust should be used.
2) A large aileron input has no effect on tail clearance.
3) The control wheel should only be displaced in order to keep wings level.
4) A lower rotation rate should always be used.
The control wheel should only be displaced in order to keep wings level.
During daylight, with failed centre line lights, can you complete a CAT IIIA (CAT3a) approach and if so what are the restrictions (Part A, Chapter 8)?
YES, but RVR must be 300m or greater
During low visibility operations, the crew should:
Select one:
1) Delay extending the flaps until reaching the holding point
2) Have the ILS tuned to the departure runway for take off
3) Request a ‘Follow Me’ car to the runway
4) Use flaps 10 for departure
Have the ILS tuned to the departure runway for take off
Which statement is true regarding visual approaches conducted during night time?
Select one:
1) Visual approaches must be completed.
2) Visual approaches are only permitted if an ‘Rx’ point is generated in the FMC.
3) Visual landing are permitted only if there is a published approach procedure.
4) Visual approaches are only permitted where an existing approach for the runway exists in the FMC.
Visual landing are permitted only if there is a published approach procedure.
During Taxi in and Taxi out…
Select one:
1) The Captain must make all PA’s to passengers.
2) The First Officer must make all PA’s to passengers.
3) PA’s are not permitted.
4) Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted. However, if delays to departure are experienced the Captain may inform the passengers once the parking brake is set.
Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted. However, if delays to departure are experienced the Captain may inform the passengers once the parking brake is set.
During taxi in and taxi out you receive taxi instructions. What are the F/O‘ s actions?
The F/O (RHS) must acknowledge the taxi instructions, write them in the FMC scratchpad and ensure both pilots understand them.
During the climb above FL100 and after the ‘Altimeters’ call, the PF will call for the ‘10 checks’ which will be actioned by the PM. These will be said out loud in an unobtrusive manner in the following flow:
Select one:
1) Lights - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall
2) Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall
3) Fuel - Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond – Seatbelts
4) Fuel - Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall - 121.500
Fuel - Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall - 121.500
During the climb, how are the ‘Ten Checks’ performed by the PM?
Performed aloud ‘Fuel, Lights, APU, Pressurisation & Air Con, Seatbelts, Recall’
During the Descent and Approach preparation, who is responsible for setting the Vref and the Autobrake setting?
The PF is responsible for setting the Vref and Autobrake setting having handed over control to the PM.
During the descent, the ‘10 checks’ are performed aloud by the PM as follows:
Fuel – Lights – Angle of Bank 25° – Check Air Conditioning and pressurisation – Fasten Belts – Recall – PA ‘10 minutes to landing’ - 121.500 Deselected
During the exterior inspection the PM will:
Select one:
1) Not check the cargo holds as it’s not a part of exterior inspection.
2) Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds only if doors are opened.
3) Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Leave hold doors open after inspection.
4) Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Close hold doors after inspection.
Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Leave hold doors open after inspection.
During the flight deck safety inspection and preliminary flight deck procedure, the APU is normally started:
Just prior to closing the L1 door
During the pre-flight planning phase, what weather criteria should be used for the destination alternate?
Select one:
1) For a CAT II approach, use CAT II RVR minima
2) For a CATII approach, use Non-precision RVR / Visibility and ceiling minima
3) For a Non-precision approach, use CAT I RVR minima
4) For a CAT I approach, use Non-precision RVR / Visibility and ceiling minima
For a CAT I approach, use Non-precision RVR / Visibility and ceiling minima
During the takeoff roll, the PM checks N1 against target value, checks the engine instruments on the upper DU and any pop-ups on the lower DU. What will be the appropriate callout?
‘Takeoff thrust set, indications normal’
During your walk around you see a missing security seal. Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
1) Contact Maintrol or get an on duty engineer to replace the seal.
2) You must obtain a new security seal from the crew room.
3) The requirement to check for missing seals is now removed from the exterior inspection procedure.
4) Replace the seal on the commander’s authority.
The requirement to check for missing seals is now removed from the exterior inspection procedure.
May the Electric Hydraulic pumps be switched ON while refuelling is in progress?
Select one:
1) Only when the Bypass Pin is installed
2) Yes
3) No
4) Sometimes
Yes
*answer not 100% confirmed
Engine Start: The PF calls, ‘Monitor Number__’…
Select one:
1) once N2 is observed to pass 46% N1
2) after the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM calls ‘Starter cut-out’
3) as the engine cuts back
4) as the Start Switch moves to the OFF position
after the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM calls ‘Starter cut-out’
When are the Start Levers moved to the idle detent during the engine start procedure?
When N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 25% (or max motoring)
Flight crews, during a climb out, will reduce rate of climb to 3000 FPM if in excess at 3000 feet to level off, 2000 FPM if in excess at 2000 feet to level-off and 1000 FPM if in excess at 1000 feet to level-off. This restriction will be observed:
Select one:
1) According to RVSM regulations
2) At all times. VNAV performance shall be used and monitored if within the above limits
3) Flight crews can change the rate of climb using VS anytime they wish
4) Below FL200 when operating in busy TMA’s or high-density traffic areas
At all times. VNAV performance shall be used and monitored if within the above limits
The correct FMC sequence when briefing a SID is:
RTE PAGE 1 and 2, INIT/REF, LEGS
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Holdover Time?
Select one:
1) Hold over time is calculated from the table in Performance Inflight Vol. 1.
2) Hold over time is calculated from RA173 Holdover Tables found in Docunet/Techlog.
3) Hold over time is calculated from the FCOM tables.
4) Hold over time is provided for generic fluids only.
Hold over time is calculated from RA173 Holdover Tables found in Docunet/Techlog.
Which of the following statements is true regarding holding in icing conditions?
Select one:
1) Is permitted with flaps extended.
2) Is not permitted.
3) With flaps down is allowed only if wing anti-ice is used.
4) Is not permitted with flaps extended.
Is not permitted with flaps extended.
For which of the following approaches are Continuous Descent Approaches (2 operating engines) applicable?
Select one:
1) ILS approaches only
2) All approaches except V/S NPA and SRA’s
3) All approaches
4) Non Precision Approaches only
All approaches except V/S NPA and SRA’s
How can you improve the Captains visual ‘cut-off angle’ during low visibility approaches?
Vertical adjusting pilots seat height up, using flap 40, ensuring crosswind from the right if possible
For how long should the APU be running prior to using it as a bleed air source?
2 minutes
How will the cabin-crew notify the flight crew of a fire in the cabin during taxi?
The crewmember who first sees the fire goes immediately to the nearest interphone, presses 222, and inform the flight crew.
How will the Captain notify the CSS in case of an emergency?
He will press the attendant call button once and use the phrase ‘No 1 to the flight deck’, over the PA.
If a conflict occurs between a TCAS RA and an ATC advisory information, which should the PF follow?
TCAS
If an Autoland proceeds normally after 50 ft, what is the F/O (RHS) callout?
Nothing until the speed brake deploys
If an automatic switch over to a departure frequency is required after take-off, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, the PM selects the frequency once airborne and…
calls ATC as specified in NADP1 or NADP2.
If APU operation is required on the ground and the aircraft buses are powered by AC electrical power, then which fuel pump should be on?
An AC powered fuel pump from left side of fuel manifold should be ON
If conducting a NADP 1 departure and a SID requires a 2500ft QNH level off, when it is acceptable to accelerate?
at ‘ALT ACQ
If remote de-icing is required, which of the following crew actions are mandatory for a tactile check?
If a tactile check is required, the engines must be shutdown.
If ground accumulated fan blade icing is discovered during the walk around, by which means should it be removed?
By using hot air or approved de-icing fluid (licensed aircraft Engineer only for latter)
Which of the following statements is true regarding published Emergency Turn Procedure?
Select one:
1) It is used by ATC for routing you away from high terrain in the event of an engine failure after take-off.
2) It is not required to be completed if on a SID.
3) It is used to quickly return for a landing at the airfield of departure.
4) It must be completed, instead of flying straight ahead following an engine failure on take-off.
4) It must be completed, instead of flying straight ahead following an engine failure on take-off.
If a normal Bleeds ON takeoff is planned,
(On the initial take off briefing on stand)
Select one:
1) it should be mentioned in the takeoff brief.
2) it should be written on the OFP.
3) it needs to be mentioned only on first flight of the day.
4) it does NOT need to be mentioned in the takeoff brief.
4) it does NOT need to be mentioned in the takeoff brief.
(Correct answer is not 100% confirmed)
In case of an APU fire, which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
1) The CPT only calls for memory items.
2) The PF calls for the memory items.
3) The PM calls for the memory items.
4) The CPT calls for the APU fire NNC.
2) The PF calls for the memory items.
In relation to the centre tank fuel pumps, the Captain may elect to leave the centre pump switches off for T/O until passing FL 100. Why?
If he deems that the amount of fuel in the centre tanks is insufficient (453kgs) to keep the fuel low-pressure lights out during T/O.
In the cruise, if speed drops below the top of the lower amber band, how should you immediately increase the speed?
By reducing bank angle and/or increasing thrust to MCT and/or descend
What should one do in the event of a ‘Engine Failure’ on Take-off?
Select one:
1) Always climb straight ahead.
2) Follow the SID unless there is an ‘Emergency Turn’.
3) Climb straight ahead unless there is an ‘Emergency Turn’ and inform ATC.
4) Follow the SID.
3) Climb straight ahead unless there is an ‘Emergency Turn’ and inform ATC.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Low Drag Non-Precision Approaches?
Select one:
1) Are not normally applicable to V/S NPA
2) Are permitted in Class A, B, C, & D airspace only
3) Are not permitted for night time approaches
4) Are not permitted in conjunction with a Continuous Descent Approach (CDA)
1) Are not normally applicable to V/S NPA
What is the maximum ground speed whilst taxiing on a contaminated taxiway?
5 knots
Which of the following statements is true regarding night time circle to land manoeuvres?
Select one:
1) Are permitted provided a visual slope indicator or electronic slope indicator is operational on the landing runway.
2) Are not subject to a ‘Double Briefing’.
3) Are not subject to the ‘Ten Mile Rule’ (Flaps 1).
4) Are prohibited.
1) Are permitted provided a visual slope indicator or electronic slope indicator is operational on the landing runway.
On the ground, prior to switching on the hydraulic pumps, what should be considered?
Personnel are clear of the tow bar OR the bypass pin has been installed
Where do P-RNAV arrivals terminate at?
Final Approach Waypoint
During the pre-flight procedure, prior to first flight, who checks the Ships Library?
The PF
How is the instrument crosscheck performed during the pre-flight procedure?
The PF calls Time (UTC), QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD and standby instruments. PM follows silently
Who is responsible for mentioning what the crew will reject the takeoff for during the initial emergency briefing?
The CPT
Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or not active, crews must make a ‘Two Phase Call’ (inter cockpit). This ‘Two Phase Call’ requires the Captain to establish with the RHS pilot that:
The runway may be entered or crossed & the approach is checked clear both directions (as much as it is possible)
What should the F/O call, prior to taxi?
‘Clear right’
Regarding re-fuelling supervisor duties, which is true when in Spain (check RFS-A List) and Italy?
First establish contact with the flight deck on aircraft intercom system. You must then remain on the intercom system for the duration of the refuelling and disembarkation/boarding process.
When is under normal circumstances a full IRS alignment required?
A full alignment is only required for the first flight of each duty period.
Runway conditions permitting, which is the normal autobrake setting to be used for landing?
The setting is as determined by the crew having consulted the QRH (PI section) or using the OPT.
What cool down period do Ryanair and CFM recommend for the engine hot section thermo-stabilisation?
Three minutes
Self-manoeuvring at night below the MSA is
Prohibited
Should the PF check the landing gear lights on the aft overhead panel during pre-flight preparations?
Yes
The 500 ft call on an ILS approach is:
“Five hundred continue/go-around” (PM), “Check” (PF)
The After T/O checks are done how?
Done silently, except for “Air Conditioning & Press” which is called aloud & the “Altimeters” check, which is challenge & response
The Approach Aids scan flow (FRISC) check is?
Frequencies, Rings, Idents, SBY’s instruments and Courses
The Audio Switch to I/C for Hot mike usage is required from:
After pushback and prior to obtaining taxi clearance. It shall remain ON until completion of the TEN Checks Climbing, after which it will remain crew discretion to either turn the I/C On or Off and shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains On for the remainder of the flight until Park Brake set at stand.
The Autobrake performance is designed to:
To only use the amount of wheel braking required to achieve the selected deceleration rate
The Boeing OPT is:
Is the default performance calculation application
The Cabin Crew must be advised of refuelling when passengers are?
Embarking, disembarking or on board
The check of the intermittent warning horn (TO Configuration) is done when and by who?
Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of the ‘Speedbrake’ check. It is done by the PF
The circuit breaker panel located behind the Capt. seat is referred to as:
The P-18 Panel
The company approved minimum RVR for a CAT I approach is?
550/125/75
The correct point to select Landing Gear Down and Flap 15 on a VS NPA is?
5nm prior to RWxx
The earliest point that flap retraction from F15 to F5 may be commenced on a two engine Missed Approach is?
400ft
The Enhanced GPWS will issue an automatic 500ft aural call at
500 feet Radio Altitude on an approach that has NO GLIDESLOPE
The First Officer will commence the “Before Takeoff” checks when:
The CPT asks for the “Before Takeoff checklist”
The Flight Crew shall give the following to the CSS (Cabin Services Supervisor) prior to departure
No need to give the SEP manual or the CCI’s anymore
(Answer not 100% confirmed)
The following information should be given to ATC on contact with the first radar controller:
Full call sign, SID or cleared routing/heading, passing altitude/FL, Cleared altitude/FL
The following is the correct manoeuvre for a TCAS RA (Resolution Advisory)
If manoeuvring is required disengage autopilot and auto-throttle and follow the correct manoeuvre as depicted on the PFD
The formula that may be used to calculate the additional trip fuel burn when ATOW exceeds FPL TOW on non-tankering sectors is:
2.5% of the additional weight carried in kg, multiplied by the flight time in hours.
The frequency 121.500 MHz must be monitored from which point on?
As part of the Ten Checks
The IFE Switch on the overhead panel is normally left in which position?
ON, the IFE Switch is always turned ON as part of the pre-flight procedure
The initial welcoming PA to passengers should be done when and by whom?
Should be done by the Captain prior to pushback
The landing gate for a circling approach is 300ft AAL. What must be established by 500ft AAL on a circling approach?
Landing configuration only
The maximum allowed crosswind component (winglet aircraft) for takeoff on a slush/standing water runway is:
15 knots
The maximum approach speed additive is:
Vref +15 or landing flaps placard speed – 5kts
The maximum crosswind component on a CATII/IIIA Approach is?
20kts
The Maximum crosswind, dry runway, for takeoff and landing a winglet equipped aircraft is:
33 knots
The maximum tailwind component on a CAT II/IIIA Autoland is?
10 kts
The Maximum taxi speed on the apron in dry conditions is:
15 kts
The minimum flap retraction altitude (MFRA) is found where?
Found on the respective runway RTOW plate or OPT data
The minimum OIL QTY for dispatch is?
12 LITRES
The minimum visual reference required to safely continue an approach below DA/MDA is at least:
Elements of the approach light system including at least two cross bars
The NAV lights should be ON, when?
Whenever AC power is connected to the airplane busses
The PF completes the ‘Before Taxi’ scan flow and BLANKS the lower display completely by pushing the MFD
Select one:
1) This is correct as the ‘Pop up’ feature will reveal the lower display in case of an exceedance or Engine failure
2) This is correct as it will always bring up the ‘Compact Engine Display’ on the Upper DU
3) This is not correct as all engine parameters must be monitored for takeoff and flight
4) This is not correct as engine parameters will not be visible for the takeoff roll making an exceedance impossible to spot
1) This is correct as the ‘Pop up’ feature will reveal the lower display in case of an exceedance or Engine failure
The PRE-FLIGHT instrument scan is which? (Instrument crosscheck)
Time, QNH, ALT, MFRA, FD’s & SBY instruments
The rear hold is checked, as part of the Exterior Inspection, by:
The PM
The rudder trim function is checked when?
On all flights
The Ryanair policy is to use ‘Maximum Assumed Temperature Reduction’ Take-off thrust?
Select one:
1) Only when necessary for noise abatement profiles
2) Always
3) Wherever permitted by OPT or SOP’s
4) Except when there is an Emergency Turn for the runway
3) Wherever permitted by OPT or SOP’s
The standard call in the event of a ‘Passenger Evacuation’ is
“This is an Emergency. Evacuate the aircraft using all available exits’’. This call is to be repeated once
The standard callout at V1 when taking off on a wet runway is?
‘V1‘
The standard FMC fuel cost index is?
As per flight plan
The taxi briefing on departure must always include:
A review of the expected taxi routing to the runway of departure
The TCAS OFF flag must always be called as part of the Preflight, Instrument Cross Check?
Select one:
1) True, called by the PF
2) No. It is normally indicating at this point
3) False, this is an EGPWS call
4) True, called by the PM
2) No. It is normally indicating at this point
The V1 aural call on take-off must
Select one:
1) Be complete by V1
2) Responded to by the Pilot Flying (PF) with a ‘Check’ call
3) Be commenced at V1
4) Be made by the Pilot Flying (PF)
1) Be complete by V1 Correct
The ‘External Inspection’ (walk around) should be done by the:
Pilot Monitoring for the next sector
The ‘FLT ALT’ Selector on the pressurisation panel is set to?
To the filed level or lower if performance limited or ATC level capped
The ‘Immediate Level off Procedure’ is?
‘ALT HOLD’, reset MCP altitude, engage ‘LVL CHG’
The ‘Landing Gate’ for an IMC approach (Precision or Non Precision) is?
1000ft
The ‘Landing Gate’ requires one to be fully stabilised
Select one:
a. With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (IMC)
b. With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet (all approaches)
c. With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (VMC)
d. With all checklists complete at 500 feet (all approaches)
a. With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (IMC)
The ‘Outer Marker’ call on approach is?
“Outer Marker, XXXX feet, No Flags” (PF challenge) : Altitude Checks, No Flags” (PM response)
The “Post Treatment Check” (step 3), as a part of the de -icing/ anti-icing procedure (Ops Manual Part A):
Select one:
a. Does not need to be completed if icing is only present within the “boxed” areas of the wings
b. Has to be done by the handling agent or engineer and may include a post treatment tactile check
c. Can be done visually from within the cabin
d. Has to be supervised by the commander
b. Has to be done by the handling agent or engineer and may include a post treatment tactile check
There is a small amount (1.5mm) of CSFF (Cold Soaked Fuel Frost) on top of the wing behind the engine mount. The CSFF is not completely contained within the black painted lines. Is this acceptable or not?
This is not acceptable for takeoff, remove before departure
The maximum addition to Vref is?
15kts (answer not verified!)
To avoid exceeding flap limit speeds on the approach the maximum approach speed additive is?
15 knots
To determine the actual tailwind component is within limits for landing:
Select one:
a. Use the wind shown on the ND
b. Use FMC tailwind component as shown on PROGRESS Page 3
c. Use the tower reported wind
d. Use FMC tailwind component as shown on APPROACH REF Page
c. Use the tower reported wind
Turbulence is encountered in flight. The Captain will decide whether to switch ON the seatbelt signs. Which pilot is responsible for actually moving the sign from AUTO to ON?
The PM as this is defined as his area of responsibility in flight
Unless stated, the lowest turning altitude on departure is?
400 ft AAL
Visual Approaches are
Select one:
a. Required to be fully stabilised at 1,000 AAL
b. Considered Non Precision Approaches and therefore require a Double Briefing. The ‘Ten Mile Rule’ (Flaps 1) also applies.
c. Required to be flown by the Captain only
d. Required to be manually flown
b. Considered Non Precision Approaches and therefore require a Double Briefing. The ‘Ten Mile Rule’ (Flaps 1) also applies.
What altitude should be set on the MCP prior to ATC clearance being received?
Expected SID plus 100ft
What documentation should be retained in the flight envelope at end of duty?
The Flight Envelope is no longer in use.
What does two-step de-icing mean?
The aeroplane is first de-iced using heated water only or a heated mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water. After completion of the de-icing operation a layer of a mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water, or of de-icing/anti-icing fluid only, is to be sprayed over the AEROPLANE surfaces
What effect on CATIIIA (CAT3A) landing minima does failed or downgraded equipment, causing the lack of Midpoint or Stop End RVR (Part A, Chapter 8)?
No effect, see table „failed or downgraded equipment cat2/3“
What HDG should be selected on the MCP for take-offs?
Runway HDG
What is meant by ‘fail passive’ automatic landing system?
In the event of a failure, autopilot disengagement causes no significant deviation of trim, flight path or attitude
What is normal during pushback and engine-start?
Select one:
a. The CPT handles ground communications and the PF starts the engines all the time
b. The CPT handles ground communications and Starts the engines all the time
c. The CPT handles ground communications and the FO starts the engines all the time
d. The CPT handles ground communications and the PM starts the engines all the time
a. The CPT handles ground communications and the PF starts the engines all the time
What is the correct response after thrust reverser deployment on landing roll out, both indications green?
Reversers Normal
What is the correct sequence of actions during a go-around?
TOGA, Flaps 15, G/A thrust, Gear up
What is the earliest height that Standard (1013hPa) may be set on climb out?
When the aircraft is above 3000ft AAL and when cleared to a FL
What is the earliest point at which the Autopilot may be engaged on NADP2 departure?
1,000 ft AAL
What is the latest point at which the autopilot has to be disengaged on a NPA using VNAV?
At 158ft or E/D (provided FAT and RW waypoint are aligned within 1 degree)
What is the latest point to select flap one (1) on all approach?
10 nm from RW xx point
What is the normal landing flap setting for the Boeing 737?
30 & 40
What is the planning minima for destination alternates and enroute alternates?
a. For NPA (Non Precision Approaches) – NPA minima PLUS 1000m/200ft is required
What is the signal to the Cabin Crew that it is safe for them to move around and get off oxygen after an emergency descent?
“No.1 to the Flight Deck” over the PA and a ding on the cabin ATTEND button
What is the standard callout by the PF after he hears, ‘Flaps Up, No lights’ during normal operations?
‘After Takeoff checklist’
What is true after performing a high speed RTO (>80 kts)?
Select one:
a. Stop on the runway, the crew must never vacate the runway after an RTO
b. The Captain will NOT be required to file an ASR since the OFDM will give all the details required
c. Another takeoff may be attempted without delay if in the opinion of the Captain the aircraft is fit for flight
d. Do not take off again until released by Maintrol
d. Do not take off again until released by Maintrol
What minimum level of fire-fighting equipment do we normally require for the B737 800 series aircraft?
Level 7
What must the PM verify (silently) climbing through FL200, 300 & 400?
Pressurisation is normal
What weight must be recorded on the MAXIMUM WEIGHT FOR TAKE OFF section of the load sheet?
The lower of the placard weight (MTOW) or the performance limiting RTOW
When a crew notices Non Environmental Icing (NEI) on the upper wing surface, which of the following is true?
Select one:
a. It might be possible to take off provided you observe and comply with CSFF dispatch relief procedure, otherwise you must deice.
b. Must fill the main wing tanks, this will melt the CSFF.
c. Must use 2 step de-icing procedure in all circumstances.
d. Carry a minimum of 2000kg of fuel in the centre tanks.
a. It might be possible to take off provided you observe and comply with CSFF dispatch relief procedure, otherwise you must deice.
When a T/O Alternate is required, the planned alternate should be based on one hour flight time at the one engine inoperative cruise speed according to the AFM, in still air the distance is:
427 nm (737-800)
416 nm (737-8200)
When an airplane is anti-iced and a longer holdover time is needed, the crew should consider which fluid?
Using a less diluted Type II or Type IV fluid
What are the planning minima for a destination airport with an ILS approach available?
Select one:
a. The met report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above the actual ILS minima +200ft and visibility +800m
b. For a CAT II/III ILS destination the met report or forecast must indicate that both the RVR/visibility and ceiling, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above CAT I ILS minima
c. For a CAT II/III ILS destination the met report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above CAT I ILS minima
d. The met report or forecast must indicate that both the RVR/visibility and ceiling, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above actual ILS minima
a. The met report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above the actual ILS minima +200ft and visibility +800m
When cleared to a FL what is the standard callout and by whom?
PF ‘Set STD, passing XXX, climbing XXX’
When cleared to an altitude during an approach (no delay anticipated) the following standard call applies?
SET QNH ___, passing XXXX descending XXXX, (No) Flags, Standby Altimeter Set
When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will set their altimeters to Std. When is the standby altimeter set to Standard?
When climbing through MSA
Aircraft 800W
After driftdown, following an engine failure, the aircraft weight is 65000kgs and the OAT is ISA. At Max Continuous Thrust, what is your long range cruise altitude capability?
22500 feet
If your OPT is U/S what would be your LDTA be, given the following conditions;
RWYCC 5/5/5, Pressure Altitude 1000ft, Wind Calm, ISA +10, Flap 30, LW 60T, MANUAL SPEEDBRAKES, NON SFP, MAX MANUAL.
1765 or 1825 (answer to be verified)
Aircraft EI-SIM
At which speed should the PF rotate to maximize tail clearance at lift off? What would be the thrust rating? EGCC RWY23R full length, DRY, 280/30, 10ºC, QNH1003, RTG ?, FLAP5, A/C AUTO, A/I OFF MTOM 71000 kg.
146kts with full 24K
„When crosswind in excess of ten knots exists and no assumed temperature reduction off a given derate is possible, then the next highest derate shall be selected, i.e. 22k derate, no assumed temp possible, select 24k for this takeoff. This is a tailstrike prevention policy.“
MEDIUM TO POOR and 17kts
Aircraft EI-SIM
EGNX RWY27 full length, DRY, wind 290/15 270V310, OAT -20ºC, QNH1001, OPT, FL5, A/C AUTO, A/I OFF TOW 70.0tons. What wind do you enter in the OPT and what MFRA do you set in the BARO window?
310/15 and 1567ft
Manual calculation corrections for an engine bleed off Takeoff for B737-800W, Flaps 5 using OMB-P
Climb 1350Kg, Obstacle 550Kg, Runway 350Kg
Interpret the following
Runway 10 first third is 75% covered with 5mm of Slush
Aircraft EI-SIM
OPT LDTA: EGAE/LDY Rwy26, 4.0 MACG, RWYCC 3/3/3, 320/20, OAT 0ºC, QNH1000, FL40, all systems operational, LW 61000kg. Can you land and why?
No, because I am not allowed reverser credit due to the XWC
RWYCC reported as 3/2/3. What is the crosswind limit for landing?
17kts
[The LOWEST reported RWYCC, within the area being used, will determine the crosswind limit]
SLUSH 7mm
Select one:
a. MEDIUM TO POOR crosswind limit of 15
b. MEDIUM crosswind limit of 15
c. MEDIUM crosswind limit of 20
d. MEDIUM TO POOR crosswind limit of 17
b. MEDIUM crosswind limit of 15
[When more than one RWYCC or contaminant type is reported, anOPT calculation must be completed for each OPT COND, and themost limiting case used for the take-off calculation.]
What is the crosswind limit for takeoff on a wet runway, COG >25%, with one thrust reverser inoperative?
25kts
(Answer not verified, früher wurde crosswind mit asymetric reversers um 5 knoten reduced??)
22K Full - V1 136
RWYCC 3 and a Crosswind Limit of 15
[When more than one RWYCC or contaminant type is reported, anOPT calculation must be completed for each OPT COND, and themost limiting case used for the take-off calculation.]
Select one:
a. AUTO BRK 3 and 25kts
b. Can not land due to crosswind limit
c. AUTO BRK 1 and 25kts
d. AUTO BRK 3 and 23kts
d. AUTO BRK 3 and 23kts
[MEDIUM: crosswind limit is 25kts, but due to cleared width is less than 40m, it has to be further reduced by 1 knot per meter)
Select one:
a. AUTO BRK 3: 2713m
b. AUTO BRK 3: 2693m
c. AUTO BRK 2: 2567m
d. AUTO BRK 1: 2750m
a. AUTO BRK 3: 2713m
(Answer not verified, doesn’t make sense)
