S2_L2.2: LE Orthoses & Common Gait Dev'ns

Question 1

Identification: A convex transverse band affixed to the sole proximal to the metatarsal heads. It also tends to create a smoother transition from heel strike to foot flat.

Answer 1

Rocker bar

Question 2

Fill in the blanks: A rocker bar is specifically prescribed to pts who have difficulty in transitioning from (1)__ to (2)__ to (3)__.

Answer 2

1. Heel strike
2. Initial contact
3. Foot flat

Question 3

Identification: This protects the heel during heel strike.

Answer 3

Cushion heel

Question 4

Matching Type for MEDIAL Heel Wedge

1. Pes valgus
2. Inversion
3. Pronation
4. Pes planus
5. Supination
6. Pes varus

Choices:
A. Correct flexible
B. Accommodate Rigid

Answer 4

1. A
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. B

Question 5

Matching Type for LATERAL Heel Wedge

1. Pronation
2. Eversion
3. Pes varus
4. Pes cavus
5. Pes valgus
6. Supination

Choices:
A. Correct flexible
B. Accommodate Rigid

Answer 5

1. B
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. B
6. A

Question 6

Fill in the blanks: (1)___ are given specifically if there is a depressed scaphoid bone. It is to correct a flat (2)___ longitudinal arch.

Answer 6

1. Scaphoid pads
2. Medial

Question 7

Case: If a pt does not only suffer from a depressed scaphoid, but also weakness of the plantar muscles and other structures of the medial longitudinal arch, what is recommended for this pt?

Answer 7

Longitudinal arch support

Question 8

Matching Type:

1. Reduces ground-reactive force to the heel
2. Reduces ground-reactive force to ball/head. Improves total efficiency of initial stance all the way to late stance
3. Holds foot dorsiflexed especially during initial stance & during off-loading of forefoot
4. Inhibits demand for DF of toes especially during late stance
5. Inhibits demand for motion in the ankle joint.
6. Reduces propulsive forces to midfoot

Choices:
A. Healing Rocker
B. Lisfranc Rocker
C. Met-head Rocker
D. Ankle Joint Rocker
E. Heel Rocker
F. MPJ Rocker

Answer 8

1. E
2. C
3. A
4. F
5. D
6. B

Question 9

Identification: This is indicated for pt’s with jack foot deformity

Answer 9

Healing rocker

Question 10

Identification: It is the proximal portion of the orthosis. It is a weight-relieving orthosis consisting of uprights, and a shell, band or brim.

Answer 10

Superstructure

Question 11

Identification: It is commonly used for leg length discrepancies. The goal is not to reduce stress or distribute pressure, but to raise one foot in order to shift balance.

Answer 11

Shoe lifts

Question 12

Identification: It is used to realign a flexible flat foot, immobilize
midfoot fracture and correct posterior tibial malfunction

Answer 12

University of California Biomechanics Laboratory (UCBL) Insert

Question 13

Fill in the blanks: The longitudinal arch support, like the full-length insert, is intended to prevent (1)___ of the subtalar joint and (2)___ of the arch.

Answer 13

1. depression
2. flattening

Question 14

Identification: It allows for alternate or reciprocal swiveling and simulates the reciprocal gait.

Answer 14

Swivel walker

Question 15

Identification: It is prescribed for adults with paraplegia

Answer 15

Scott-Craig Knee-Ankle-Foot Orthosis

Question 16

Identification: It is prescribed for patients who cannot achieve full knee extension due to a knee flexion contracture.

Answer 16

Serrated Knee Joint

Question 17

Fill in the blanks: The off-set joint allows the mechanical axis to be (1)___ to the anatomical axis and thus improve (2)___.

Answer 17

1. posterior
2. stability

Question 18

Identification: This is the most common knee control. It is also contraindicated for knee flexion contracture as it can only lock when the knee is in 0º.

Answer 18

Drop-Ring Lock

Question 19

Fill in the blanks: Full-length insert / orthosis tends to reduce gait unsteadiness by improving (1)___ from the (2)___ foot contact area. It is used to relieve pain and activity limitation particularly associated with (3)___.

Answer 19

1. proprioception
2. increased
3. pes cavus

Question 20

Identification: It reduces plantar pressure especially for pt’s who
suffers from insensitivities such as cases like diabetic neuropathy

Answer 20

Metatarsal pad

Question 21

Fill in the blanks: The metatarsal pad is a (1)___ component that may be incorporated in an insert or may be a resilient domed piece glued to the (2)___ sole so that its (3)___ is under the metatarsal (4)___.

Answer 21

1. convex
2. inner
3. apex
4. shafts

Question 22

Identification: 3 functions of the foot in gait

Answer 22

1. Shock absorption
2. Adaptation to surface
3. Propulsion

Question 23

Identification: Appliances that apply forces to the foot. Whether it immobilizes, corrects, or makes the feet adjust to several environments during ambulation.

Answer 23

Foot orthoses

Question 24

Identification: 2 purposes of foot orthosis

Answer 24

1. pain relief
2. inserts can improve wearer’s transition during stance phase

Question 25

Fill in the blanks: Inserts are made of resilient materials to reduce impact (1)___ and (2)___, brought about by ambulation due to the (3)___.

Answer 25

1. shock 2. shear 3. ground reaction force

Question 26

Identification: It acts like a second skin, if a pt has difficulty in identifying or positioning the foot in relation to its body position.

Answer 26

Full-length insert / Full-length orthosis

Question 27

Identification: Its primary purpose is to protect the metatarsal heads if there are painful phases and it shifts the weight/GRF under the metatarsal shafts.

Answer 27

Metatarsal pad

Question 28

TRUE OR FALSE: Metatarsal pads reduces plantar pressure especially for pts who suffer from insensitivities such as cases like diabetic neuropathy.

Answer 28

True

Question 29

Enumerate the advantage and disadvantage of internal modifications.

Answer 29

Advantage: Does not affect the aesthetic appearance of the shoes Disadvantage: Reduces shoe volume.

Question 30

Identification: Helpful for pts who suffer from a flexible pes planus

Answer 30

Longitudinal arch support

Question 31

Differentiate longitudinal arch support from a full-length insert.

Answer 31

The longitudinal arch support does not cover the entire foot.

Question 32

Fill in the blanks: The navicular is also known as (1)____. It is directly in front of the (2)___. It is the (3)____ for the medial longitudinal arch.

Answer 32

1. scaphoid 2. talus 3. primary keystone

Question 33

Fill in the blanks: The scaphoid pad allows (1)___ support that is positioned at the (2)___ border of the insole with the apex between the (3)___ and the (4)___.

Answer 33

1. minimum 2. medial 3. sustentaculum tali 4. navicular tuberosity

Question 34

Identification: It is a more rigid type of internal modification to address midfoot issues (e.g. fractures; flatfoot deformity, or more specifically, a posterior tibial malfunction)

Answer 34

University of California Biomechanics Laboratory (UCBL) Insert

Question 35

Identification: The UCBL landmarks are heel cups extend to the (1)___ area and (2)___ to the metatarsal (3)___.

Answer 35

1. inframalleolar 2. distal 3. heads

Question 36

Identification: This ensures that the patient wears the appropriate shoes and does not reduce shoe volume.

Answer 36

External modification

Question 37

TRUE OR FALSE: The cushion heel is made of resilient material to absorb shock at heel contact. It is indicated for pts with heel pain and when the pt wears an orthosis with flexible ankle.

Answer 37

False Rigid ankle

Question 38

TRUE OR FALSE: The shoe lift alters the entire sole of the shoe to counteract / compensate for a lengthened limb. It balances the GRF on both feet during ambulation.

Answer 38

False Shortened limb

Question 39

Fill in the blanks: The metatarsal bar is a flat strip of firm material placed (1)___ to the metatarsal heads. At (2)___ stance, the metatarsal bar transfers stress from the MTP joints to the (3)___.

Answer 39

1. posterior 2. late 3. metatarsal shafts

Question 40

TRUE OR FALSE: The rocker bar increases the distance the wearer must travel during stance phase, improving early stance, as well as shifting load from the MTP joints to the metatarsal shafts.

Answer 40

False Reduces the distance, Improving late stance

Question 41

Identification: It counteracts a foot that is assuming an over supination. It shifts WB to the medial side of the front of the foot. It compensates for fixed forefoot valgus allowing the entire distal foot to contact the floor.

Answer 41

Lateral Wedge / Reverse Thomas Heel

Question 42

Fill in the blanks: The (1)___ border of the Thomas heel extends forward on the (2)___ side to augment the effect of the (3)___ wedge in supporting the longitudinal arch.

Answer 42

1. anterior 2. medial 3. medial

Question 43

Identification: It elevates the medial part of the foot so that the over pronation will be counteracted and it will tend to automatically position the forefoot into neutral/midline.

Answer 43

Medial heel wedge

Question 44

Fill in the blanks: (1)___ & (2)___ are intended for flexible pes valgus in which the foot moves laterally in relation to a severely (3)___ positioning.

Answer 44

1. medial heel wedge 2. thomas heel 3. pronated

Question 45

Identification: It alters alignment of the rearfoot.

Answer 45

Heel wedge

Question 46

Enumerate the 4 components of AFO

Answer 46

1. foundation 2. ankle control 3. foot control 4. superstructure

Question 47

Enumerate the 4 stage procedure in a reciprocating gait orthosis. (L leg swings)

Answer 47

1. Shift weight to R leg 2. Tuck the pelvis by extending the upper thorax 3. Press on the crutches 4. Allow the L leg to swing through

Question 48

TRUE OR FALSE: A reciprocating gait orthosis is a THKAFO where the hips are joined by one or two more metal rods. The steel cables or rods prevent inadvertent hip extension on the supporting leg.

Answer 48

False Prevents hip flexion

Question 49

Enumerate the 5 orthotic options for pts with paraplegia

Answer 49

1. standing frame 2. swivel walker 3. parapodium 4. scott-craig KAFOs 5. reciprocating gait orthosis

Question 50

Match the orthosis with its features/description. 1. Base has two distal plates that rock slightly to enable swivel gait. 2. Swing to or swing through gait pattern with the aid of crutches or walker. 3. Has joints that permit the wearer to sit 4. Prescribed for children with myelodysplasia 5. Indicated for physiologic standing A. Standing frame B. Swivel walker C. Parapodium D. Scott-Craig KAFOs E. Reciprocating gait orthosis

Answer 50

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. A

Question 51

Match the orthosis with its feature/description 1. For children and adults 2. Has wheels for mobility & platform for UE use 3. Articulated, has knee component to allow sitting 4. For children only 5. Prescribed for adults with paraplegia 6. Integrates spinal orthosis, similar to parawalker A. Standing frame B. Swivel walker C. Parapodium D. Scott-Craig KAFOs E. Reciprocating gait orthosis

Answer 51

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. E

Question 52

TRUE OR FALSE: Scott-Craig KAFOs include either a shoe reinforced with transverse and longitudinal plates and BiCAAL ankle joints set in slight PF or a plastic solid ankle section, as well as pretibial band, a pawl lock with bail release, and a single thigh band.

Answer 52

False Reason: It should be slight DF

Question 53

TRUE OR FALSE: A standing frame consists of broad base, posterior non articulated uprights extending from a flat base to mid torso, chest band, a posterior thoracolumbar band, wheels, and platform for UE

Answer 53

True

Question 54

TRUE OR FALSE: The goals of orthoses for pts with paraplegia are standing to maintain skeletal, renal, respiratory, circulatory and GIT function and form of ambulation.

Answer 54

True

Question 55

Identification: Entire skeleton of the orthosis

Answer 55

Superstructure

Question 56

TRUE OR FALSE: AFOs are made out of metal or plastic. Metal is rarely prescribed because it’s heavier. Both materials can be beneficial for the patient with the same goal.

Answer 56

True

Question 57

Determine whether a valgus or varus correction strap is being described. 1. Exerts a laterally directed force 2. Medial T Strap 3. Pushes medially to correct inversion deformity 4. Restrains pronation 5. Pushes laterally to correct eversion deformity 6. Corrects hindfoot supination 7. Lateral T Strap A. Valgus Correction Strap B. Varus Correction Strap

Answer 57

1. A 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. B

Question 58

Determine whether DF or PF resistance is being described. 1. For too much PF 2. Aids individual with paralysis of the tricep surae to achieve late stance 3. Used for L4 SCI 4. Deals with severe knee recurvatum or foot drop 5. Deals with knee buckling, flexion in WB or stance A. DF Resistance / Anterior Stop B. PF Resistance / Posterior Stop

Answer 58

1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. A

Question 59

Fill in the blanks: If the stop is set to allow slight DF of ~ 5°, knee (1)___ results, can be used to control knee (2)___.

Answer 59

1. flexion 2. hyperextension

Question 60

Fill in the blanks: If the stop is set to allow slight PF of ~ 5°, knee (1)___ results, can be used to control an unstable knee that (2)___.

Answer 60

1. extension 2. buckles

Question 61

Analogy Active knee (1)___ : Passive DF Active knee (2)___ : Passive PF

Answer 61

1. flexion 2. extension

Question 62

Matching Type: 1. DF assistance 2. Permits interchanging shoes, limits footdrop 3. Traditional foundation for AFO, U-shaped fixture 4. Limits all foot and ankle motion 5. Coil spring compresses in stance and rebounds during swing A. Insert / Footplate B. Stirrup C. Posterior Leaf Spring D. Klenzak Joint E. Solid AFO

Answer 62

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. E 5. D

Question 63

Matching Type: 1. Its center is riveted to the shoe through the shank; holds the shoe underneath 2. For stability in cases of hemiplegia, spastic diplegia 3. DF spring assist between the stirrup and bar strip 4. Holds foot to 90° (neutral), assists during heel strike 5. Provides good control of foot but reduces shoe volume A. Insert / Footplate B. Stirrup C. Posterior Leaf Spring D. Klenzak Joint E. Solid AFO

Answer 63

1. B 2. E 3. D 4. C 5. A

Question 64

TRUE OR FALSE: The trimline of a solid AFO is anterior to malleoli to immobilize entire ankle and restrict foot drop.

Answer 64

True

Question 65

Identification: The posterior leaf spring is indicated for patients with DF weakness / foot drop d/t what nerve impingement?

Answer 65

Common peroneal nerve

Question 66

Fill in the blanks: In the posterior leaf spring, the posterior shell is behind the (1)___, proximal shell is at (2)___ of the leg, & distal part should only extend up to metatarsal (3)___.

Answer 66

1. malleoli 2. midpart 3. shafts Additional: Metatarsal heads are excluded as they receive the greatest pressure during forefoot contact

Question 67

Determine whether posterior pin or spring is appropriate 1. Limits PF 2. Knee hyperextension 3. Toe drag, pain with ankle motion 4. Flaccid footdrop 5. Assists DF 6. Plantar spasticity A. Posterior pin B. Posterior spring

Answer 67

1. A 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. A

Question 68

Determine whether anterior pin or spring is appropriate 1. Pain with ankle motion 2. Limits DF 3. No clinical indications 4. Weak plantarflexors 5. Weak extensors 6. Assists PF A. Anterior pin B. Anterior spring

Answer 68

1. A 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. B

Question 69

Matching Type: 1. For subtalar joint control to limit varus or valgus. 2. For active pts, controls but does not eliminate motion in all planes bc of its design 3. Reduces the amount of weight transmitted to the foot 4. Control the tendency of the foot to assume an equinovarus posture 5. Allows for controlled mobility A. BiCAAL B. Spiral AFO C. Patellar-Tendon-Bearing Brim D. Tone Reducing Orthosis E. Supramalleolar Orthosis

Answer 69

1. E 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. A

Question 70

Enumerate 4 types of superstructure

Answer 70

1. Spiral AFO 2. Tone Reducing Orthosis 3. Patellar-Tendon-Bearing brim 4. Calf band

Question 71

Fill in the blanks: The tone reducing orthoses are plastic AFOs designed for children with spastic (1)__ and adults with spastic (2)__.

Answer 71

1. cerebral palsy 2. hemiplegia

Question 72

TRUE OR FALSE: The tone reducing orthosis is useful for individuals who have min spasticity with varus instability, but do not have fixed deformity.

Answer 72

False Reason: It should be mod spasticity

Question 73

Fill in the blanks: In the tone reducing orthosis, footplate and broad upright are designed to modify reflex (1)__ by applying constant pressure to the (2)__ and (3)__.

Answer 73

1. hypertonicity 2. plantarflexors 3. invertors

Question 74

Matching Type: 1. Heavy and cumbersome 2. Lumbosacral orthosis attached KAFOs 3. From ankle & foot to midthigh to provide control in allowed motions of knee joint 4. Addition of a pelvic band and hip joints 5. Locked hip joints, restrict gait to swing-to or swing-through pattern A. THKAFO B. HKAFO C. KAFO

Answer 74

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B

Question 75

Identification: Primarily used for pediatrics. It May be achieved with plastic calf shells shaped to apply corrective force for genu valgum or genu varum.

Answer 75

Frontal plate control Additional: To reduce genu valgum, the medial portion of shell extends proximally to apply laterally directed force at the knee.

Question 76

TRUE OR FALSE: Hip joint is placed on the lateral side of brace until the axis of the joint is at the measured distance from knee joint axis to greater trochanter.

Answer 76

True

Question 77

Fill in the blanks: In hip joints, two-position lock stabilizes the pt in hip (1)__ for standing and walking, and (2)__ of hip flexion for sitting.

Answer 77

1. extension 2. 90º

Question 78

Fill in the blanks: Hip joints are attached to KAFO which allows (1)___ only. They prevent (2)__, (3)__, & (4)__.

Answer 78

1. flexion-extension 2. adduction 3. abduction 4. rotation

Question 79

Identification: A metal hinge that connects the lateral upright of the KAFO to a pelvic band.

Answer 79

Hip Joint

Question 80

Matching Type: 1. Applies a posteriorly directed force to complement the anteriorly directed forces from back of the shoe and thigh band 2. Locks automatically when the knee is 0º. 3. Allows mechanical axis to be posterior to anatomical axis, thus improve stability 4. Provides simultaneous locking of both uprights 5. Most common knee control, manual control at proximal uprights A. Off-set joint B. PAWL Lock with Bail Release C. Knee Cap D. Drop-Ring Lock

Answer 80

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D

Question 81

Matching Type 1. Does not hamper knee flexion during swing or sitting, only stabilizes during knee extension 2. Joint may flex inadvertently or knee buckling when the wearer walks on ramps 3. Contraindicated for knee flexion contracture 4. When the client stands with the knee fully extended, the ring drops, preventing the uprights from bending 5. Hinge placed posterior to the midline of the leg A. Off-set joint B. PAWL Lock with Bail Release C. Knee Cap D. Drop-Ring Lock

Answer 81

1. A 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. A

Question 82

Cause of excessive medial or lateral foot contact

Answer 82

Transverse plane malalignment

Question 83

Common gait deviation in late stance is the inadequate transition: delayed or (1)__ transfer of weight over the (2)__. Orthotic causes are (3)__ stop & (4)__ dorsiflexion stop.

Answer 83

1. absent 2. forefoot 3. plantarflexion 4. inadequate

Question 84

Determine which deviations occur in the phases of the gait cycle. 1. Vaulting 2. Foot slap 3. Inadequate transition 4. Anterior trunk bending 5. Hip hiking A. Early Stance B. Late Stance C. Swing

Answer 84

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C

Question 85

Determine which deviations occur in the phases of the gait cycle. 1. Toes first 2. Toe drag 3. Circumduction 4. Hyperextended knee 5. Flat foot contact A. Early Stance B. Late Stance C. Swing

Answer 85

1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. A

Question 86

Determine which deviations occur in the phases of the gait cycle. 1. Wide walking base 2. Excessive medial or lateral foot contact 3. Posterior trunk bending 4. Internal or external rotation 5. Excessive knee flexion 6. Lateral trunk bending A. Early Stance B. Late Stance C. Swing

Answer 86

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. A

Question 87

Orthotic causes of wide walking base: Excessive height of (1)__ upright of KAFO; Excessive (2)__ of hip joint of HKAFO; Insufficient lift on (3)__ shoe; Knee lock; Requires (4)__.

Answer 87

1. medial 2. abduction 3. contralateral 4. walking aid

Question 88

Lower extremity swings outward in a semicircular arc

Answer 88

Circumduction

Question 89

Lower extremity elevated at pelvis to enable the limb to swing forward

Answer 89

Hip hiking

Question 90

Exaggerated plantarflexion of contralateral lower extremity to enable the limb to swing forward

Answer 90

Vaulting

Question 91

Toes maintain contact with ground

Answer 91

Toe drag

Question 92

In a wide walking base, heel centers more than ____ apart.

Answer 92

4 inches (10 cm)

Question 93

Tiptoe posture may or may not be maintained throughout stance

Answer 93

Toes first

Question 94

Entire foot contacts ground initially

Answer 94

Flat foot contact

Question 95

Knee collapses when foot contacts ground

Answer 95

Excessive knee flexion

Question 96

In lateral trunk bending, the patient leans toward ____ as weight is transferred to LE.

Answer 96

Stance leg

Question 97

Conducted with the orthosis on the patient while standing and sitting, as well as examination of the device off the individual

Answer 97

Static examination

Question 98

TRUE OR FALSE: In dynamic examination, the gait pattern exhibited by the person who wears an orthosis reflects both the contribution of the wearer’s general health status and the orthotic motion control and assistance.

Answer 98

True

Question 99

TRUE OR FALSE: In LE Orthosis Examination, the fit and alignment of the shoe, ankle joint, calf band, shell or PTB brim, mechanical knee joint, knee lock, medial uprights, and pelvic joint must be checked.

Answer 99

True

Question 100

Anterior trunk bending is caused by inadequate (1)__ lock. Anatomical causes may be (2)__ muscles are weak, and hip and knee (3)__ contractures.

Answer 100

1. knee 2. quadriceps 3. flexion

Question 101

In posterior trunk bending, the (1)__ muscle may be weak and there is (2)__ ankylosis. Orthotic causes are inadequate (3)__ lock and the (4)__ lock.

Answer 101

1. gluteus maximus 2. knee 3. hip 4. knee

Question 102

Wide walking base is anatomically caused by (1)__ contracture, (2)__ balance, and a (3)__ contralateral LE.

Answer 102

1. abduction 2. poor 3. short

Question 103

Inadequte transition in late stance may be caused by weak (1)__, (2)__ sprain or rupture, pes (3)__, and (4)__ pain.

Answer 103

1. plantarflexors 2. achilles tendon 3. calcaneus 4. forefoot

Question 104

Anatomic causes of toe drag are weak (1)__, plantar flexor (2)__, pes (3)__, and weak hip (4)__.

Answer 104

1. dorsiflexors 2. spasticity 3. equinus 4. flexors

Question 105

Foot slap is anatomically caused by

Answer 105

Weak dorsiflexors

Question 106

TRUE OR FALSE: Toes first is anatomically caused by short LE, pes equinus, extensor spasticity, and heel pain

Answer 106

True

Question 107

TRUE OR FALSE: Poor balance and pes calcaneus can cause flat foot contact. Its orthotic causes are requiring a walking aid, and inadequate traction from sole and inadequate dorsiflexion stop.

Answer 107

True

Question 108

TRUE OR FALSE: Excessive medial or lateral foot contact is anatomically caused by weak invertors or evertors, pes valgus or varus, and genu valgum or varum

Answer 108

True

Question 109

TRUE OR FALSE: Internal or external rotation may be caused by weak or spastic internal or external rotators, anteversion or retroversion, and weak quadriceps (ER).

Answer 109

True

Question 110

TRUE OR FALSE: Hip hiking & circumduction may be caused by extensor synergy, while vaulting may be caused by extensor spasticity.

Answer 110

True

Question 111

Excessive knee flexion can be caused by inadequate knee lock, inadequate (1)__ stop, plantarflexion (2)__ and inadequate (3)__ shoe lift

Answer 111

1. dorsiflexion 2. restriction (stop) 3. contralateral

Question 112

Hyperextended knee may be caused by excessively (1)__ calf band, inadequate knee lock, pes (2)__ uncompensated by contralateral shoe lift, and (3)__ inadequately controlled by plantarflexion stop.

Answer 112

1. concave / deep 2. equinus 3. genu recurvatum

Question 113

Uprights incorrectly aligned in ___ plane and requires orthotic control are orthotic causes of internal or external rotation.

Answer 113

transverse

Question 114

TRUE OR FALSE: Lateral trunk bending may be caused by excessive height of medial upright of KAFO, excessive abduction of hip joint of HKAFO, requires walking aid, and insufficient shoe lift

Answer 114

True