Flashcards in saasd Deck (105):
1. Which of the following questions is NOT a typical opening question of a culturally competent
A. What do you expect of me?
B. How can I help you?
C. What do you think your problem is?
D. Do you have any belief?
E. What do you think the cause of the problem is?
2. Important points in constructing a “better healing story” are, EXCEPT
A. The story must be meaningful from the patient’s point of view
B. Patient has to accept that the story is about him/her personally
C. The story must not concentrate on the main complaint
D. The story must be biomedically sound
3. Which of the following can be the final manifestation of grief pathology?
A. Absence of grief
B. Dysfunctional denial
C. Manic escape
D. Dysfunctional hostility
E. Clinical depression
4. Means of patient empowerment can include, EXCEPT:
B. Emotional encouragement
C. Behaviour modification strategies
D. Giving the patient no information
5. Which of the following statements is true for the anger stage of dying?
A. It is an unnatural response to dying
B. A physician must ask the patient to stop being angry
C. Being angry is a natural response to the threat against personal integrity
D. Clinicians should become defensive when their patients are angry
E. Patients become angry when their physical needs are not met
6. Which is not an emotional consequence of physical, emotional or sexual abuse?
E. All of the above can be consequences
7. All are true EXCEPT:
A. Hallucination is a sensory impression that exists in the absence of a real external stimulus
B. Illusions are the misinterpretation of real external stimuli
C. Delusion is a false belief unique to the individual
D. Compulsions are repetitive irrational thoughts accompanied with anxiety
8. All of the following disorders can be induced by excessive alcohol consumption, EXCEPT:
A. Anxiety disorder
B. Mood disorder
D. Psychotic disorder
E. Sleep disorder
9. Doctor says patient: I understand that you are worried about the financial consequences of this
injury. It’s an example of:
10. A person who has unconscious violent feelings becomes a surgeon. This is an example of which
of the following defense mechanisms?
11. A 2-year old child is afraid of nurses in white uniform. When his grand-mother comes to visit him
wearing a white jacket, he begins to cry. The best explanation for this phenomenon is
A. Instrumental conditioning
B. Stimulus generalization
C. Learning by trial or error
D. Positive reinforcements
12. Which is true for sleep apnea
A. Mainly female’s disorder
B. Continue positive airway pressure mask could be a treatment choice
C. Has a higher frequency in young adulthood
D. Weight loss could not be beneficial
E. All of the above are true
13. Which is correct?
A. Homosexual actions are more frequent amongst women compared to men.
B. Sexual pain disorder is exclusively women’s condition
C. There are no gender differences in paraphilias
D. Erectile dysfunction is the sexual arousal disorder of men
E. The normal frequency of sexual intercourse of sexual intercourse amongst young adults is 3
14. What is false:
A. Long term REM deprivation can lead to death in animal models
B. REM may have an important role in memory consolidation
C. REM are characterized with dreaming
D. Muscular tone is increasing in REM
E. Pulse rate may increase and become irregular in REM
15. According to psychosocial developmental theories set forth by Erikson, a child works through
different developmental tasks at typical ages. Which is the typical age for phase labelled
“identity versus role confusion”?
A. 1 to 3 years
B. 3 to 6 years
C. 6 to 11 years
D. 12 years through adolescence
16. Which is NOT a parasomnia?
C. Sleep enuresis
17. Elements of sleep hygiene, except:
A. Regular sleep-wake schedule
B. One drink before go to bed
C. Eliminate caffeine and nicotine
D. Exercise during day
18. Which of the following techniques is useful in managing a somatising patient?
A. Explaining to the patient that he should not worry about his complaints, there is no organic
B. Evaluating each symptom with a careful interview, physical examination, and establish
appropriate goals and expectations for both the doctor and the patient
C. Avoiding the use of medications, as the problem is basically of psychological origin
D. Not giving fixed date follow-up appointment, but allowing the patient to call you if the
symptoms would worsen
19. Which of the following results in the highest mortality rates?
C. Tobacco use
D. Car accidents
20. What functions is the neocortex responsible for?
C. Skilled motor sequences
E. All of the above
21. Which condition increases an individual’s perception of pain?
B. Anti-social personality disorder
C. Depression (looked online and depression can also increase pain perception, but only one
correct answer for this question)
D. Alcohol dependence
22. Which of the follow is part of the DSM-IV criteria for obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A. Substance abuse dependence
B. Recurrent, intrusive, unwanted persistent thoughts, impulses, images
C. Persistent fear of specific situations
D. Panic attack
23. Risk factors for suicide DO NOT include:
A. Family history of mental disorder or substance abuse
B. Exposure to suicidal behaviour of others
D. Keeping firearms at home
24. In disorders of sexuality and sexual functioning, the term paraphilias refers to:
A. Problems with the normal sexual response cycle
B. Sexual urges or fantasies involving unusual sources of gratification problems
C. An individual is dissatisfied with their own biological sex and have a strong desire to be a
member of the opposite sex
D. Problems with sexual fantasies
25. Typical symptom of anorexia is:
B. Intense fear of gaining weight
C. Normal weight
26. What is not true about behavioural therapy?
A. Based on the assumption is that psychological problems stem from suppression of
experiences into the subconscious
B. Focus on changing a particular behaviour
C. Very often used to treat fears and phobias
D. Is used for shaping new behaviour
27. Which is one of the differences between Anorexia and Bulimia?
A. Anorexia is a mental illness, bulimia is not.
B. Bulimia is not as serious as anorexia
C. Only bulimics abuse laxatives
D. Anorexics can often be identified by low body weight, whereas bulimics have usually normal
28. In which stage of sleep are the muscles paralysed?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
D. Stage 4
29. Only observable behaviors should be studied, since internal stages such as cognitions, emotions,
and moods are too subjective. This is a typical statement of
C. Humanistic theory
D. Transpersonal theory
30. Which strategy would you use if your client is in the preparation stage or a behavior change?
A. Emphasize the risks of the current behaviour and encourage to consider to change it
B. Discuss action plan and set start date
C. Give information and help to identify pros and cons of the change
D. Show support and admiration for the efforts and ask about the difficulties met
31. What is more frequent in females than in males?
B. Substance abuse
32. Happens in stress EXCEPT
A. Decreased arousal
B. Increased heartbeat
C. Energy used from glucose
D. Increased sweating
33. What is the task of a doctor during closure of the interview?
A. Checking what wasn’t understood by the patient
B. Make a following appointment if appropriate
C. Exploring patient beliefs
D. Negotiate treatment options
34. Theory of object constancy / development of humans
B. Sigmund Freud
D. Margaret Mahler
35. According to Erikson, initiative vs. guilt:
A. 0-2 years
B. 3-6 years
C. 6-12 years
D. More than 12 years
A. Happens with external stimuli
B. With mood
C. Without mood
D. Happens without external stimuli
37. The doctor is seen as the patient’s father during therapy is an example of:
38. The doctor sees his own father in the patient is an example of:
B. Countertransferance (Transferance refers to the patient’s emotions, and
countertransferance refers to the doctor’s emotions)
39. Pharmacotherapy in eating disorders:
A. Should not be used as an exclusive treatment form
B. Can help anorexic patients to gain weight
C. Is more effective than psychotherapy
D. Ineffective in bulimia nervosa
40. Poor diet, physical inactivity and tobacco use are all proven behavioral risk factors for which of
the listed chronic diseases?
A. Breast cancer
B. Cardiovascular diseases (also associated with some cancers, but since osteoarthritis is not
one of them this has to be the answer)
D. All of them
41. Which of these is not a dyssomnia?
D. Fragmented sleep
42. In the CONES model the meaning of E is
B. Emotions (Context, Opening shot, Narrative, Emotions, Strategy and Summary)
43. Is it correct if the doctor advises to the patient: “Avoid stress in your life”?
A. Yes, it is very useful advice for everybody.
B. It is a very useful advice but only for patients suffering from high level of stress.
C. No, because stress is a part of life, so it’s impossible to avoid. They can ask how to handle
D. No, because this is a special advice for doctors and not for patients.
44. While giving bad news it is advisable
A. To have some paper tissues on the doctor’s desk
B. To sit as far as you can from the patient to be protected against the possible reaction of
C. To apply the method of “repetition”
D. To hug the patient
c and a
45. Conscious awareness is related to
A. Decreased activity in the posterior parietal cortex/precuneus
B. Increased activity in the posterior parietal cortex/precuneus
C. Fronto-parietal disintegration/disconnectivity
D. Fronto-parietal integration/connectivity
E. Specific reflex functions
b and d
46. Which of the following(s) is/are true?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder is associated with delusions
B. Cognitive behavior therapy has been show to be the most effective psychological
treatment for insomnia
C. A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between anxiety and mania
D. Depression can cause insomnia
47. Which of the following(s) is/are NOT true about the DSM-IV?
A. The DSM stands for Diagnostic Science of the Mind
B. The DSM-IV axis II. Represents clinical mental disorders
C. Personality disorders are grouped into four clusters in the DSM-IV
D. Paranoid, schizoid and schizotypal personality disorders are classified under cluster A
(odd-eccentric) of the DSM-IV
a and c
48. Which of the following may be additional problems may occur in the bulimia nervosa:
A. Transient delusions
B. Substance abuse
D. Problems with impulse control
d and b
49. What is characteristic of REM sleep?
A. Brain activity is similar to the waking state
B. Usually involves dreaming
C. Physiological responses increase
D. Difficult to wake somebody in this stage
c b a
50. What are the basic elements of the client centered therapy?
a b c
51. The therapy of burnout syndrome can be implemented on the level
C. Crisis intervention
c and a
52. Stress related disorders are:
A. Coronary heart disease
D. Prostate hyperplasia
a b c
53. The causes of sexual dysfunctions:
B. Substance abuse
C. Performance anxiety
54. Which is true for the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?
A. It has three stages: the alarm, the resistance and the exhaustion stage.
B. It describes the stages of behaviour change from precontemplation to relapse.
C. It is an inadaptive emotion focus coping strategy.
D. It is the fight of flight reaction described by Walter Cannon.
55. The apparently lack of empathy and the tendency to exploit others for self-benefit, has lead
psychologists to compare narcissistic personality disorder with which one of the following?
A. Histrionic personality disorder
B. Antisocial personality disorder
C. Paranoid personality disorder
D. Schizotypal personality disorder
56. Which of the following is NOT normal in grief?
A. Somatic distress
B. Feeling of guilt
D. Elevated mood
57. What kinds of events or experiences are NOT likely to cause symptoms of dissociation?
A. Natural disasters
B. Chronic illnesses
D. Sexual abuse
58. Hallucinations can be:
A. Congruent with mood
B. Incongruent with mood
59. Therapy for anorexia nervosa:
A. Social therapy
C. Family involvement
60. The doctor says “many people would feel the same way if they had been as injured as you
were,” this is an example of:
61. Which is not a stage of grief?
62. Which emotional disorder causes social, physical, and perceptual changes?
A. Mood disorder
B. Anxiety disorder
63. Which of the following are true:
A. Adherence reports, surprisingly have at least the same accuracy by self-report than be
B. Physicians tend to overestimate their own patient’s degree of adherence
C. Although physicians overestimate a bit their patient’s degree of adherence, they can
well distinguish between adhering and nonadhering patients (They do overestimate but
I am not sure whether they are good at distinguishing adhering and non adhering)
D. Physicians tend to be poor at distinguishing their adhering from their non adhering
64. Stereotypic reasoning can lead to biased decision. This type of bias typically occurs when
communication between doctor and patient is affected by differences
A. In social class
B. In ethnicity
C. In sex
D. In age
65. Behavioural management programs can be very useful in efforts aimed at long-term
improvements in health-related behaviors. Which of the following elements should
incorporated into such typical programs?
A. Self monitoring
B. Aversive conditioning training
C. Support group
D. Background motivation training
a and c
66. A mental status examination should include, among others, the following fields:
A. Motor behaviour
B. Range of emotional expressions
C. Biological indicators of affect
D. Thought processes
67. Which of the following statements are false
A. Family factors, like family break-up or parental conflict put children at greater risk for
drug and alcohol abuse
B. Among adults, crime rates for the divorced triple those of never married
C. Children of divorced parents are at a greater risk for poor self-concepts
D. Divorce rates are lower than the average among those who cohabited before marrying
b and d
68. Which are the levels of pain?
B. Unpleasant subjective painful experience
C. Suffering or pain behavior
D. Seeking treatment
a b c
69. Which conditions are highly prevalent among chronic pain patients?
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Panic disorders
70. Which of the following behaviors influences the course of malignant disease negatively?
B. Increase in physical activity
C. Poor adherence to treatment
D. Getting a second opinion from another physician
a and c
71. Which of the following are red flags to lethal violence?
A. Prior history of domestic violence
B. Drug and/or alcohol use before the fatal episode
C. Threats to kill
D. Possessive beliefs and morbid jealousy
72. Which of the following are symptoms of anorexia nervosa?
A. Lack of exercise, social withdrawal
B. Drastic restriction of food intake
C. Fear of being contaminated and infected via food intake
b and d
73. Alcohol abuse is associated with which of the following?
A. Domestic violence
C. Child abuse and neglect
D. Criminal act
74. Which are the doctor’s tasks at the opening phase of the medical interview?
A. Assessing the patient’s ability to communicate.
B. Asking specific questions on the patient’s symptoms.
C. Introducing of self, and role in the health care team.
D. Exploring the patient’s beliefs about his problem
a and c
75. Which of the following is/are function(s) of the superego?
A. Maintaining relationship with the outside world (ego does this)
B. Reality testing (ego does this)
C. Problem solving (ego does this)
D. Controlling id impulses
76. Which of the following is/are element(s) of classical (respondent) conditioning?
A. Unconditioned stimulus
B. Acquisition phase
C. Conditioned response
a b c
77. Elements of sexual therapy:
A. Dual sex therapy
B. Individual sex therapy
C. Challenging disharmony and misunderstanding
D. Clarifying unconscious drives of libido
a and c
78. It is true that:
A. DSM IV, axis I, represents clinical mental disorders
B. Axis II represents global level of functioning
C. Axis III, represents general medical conditions
D. Axis IV, represents mental retardation and dementia
a and c
79. Symptoms of post traumatic stress disorder
A. Intrusive though, memories, and nightmares concerning the traumatic event
B. Hallucinations about the traumatic event
C. Startle response and increase reactibility of the alarm system
D. Inappropriate sexual behaviour
a and c
80. Symptoms of depression:
A. Diminished interest
B. Sleep disturbances
C. Negative thinking
D. Decreased motivation
81. Endocrine contributors of stress response:
a and c
82. Long term health consequences of chronic stress
A. Coronary artery problems
C. Impaired effectiveness of immune system
a b c
83. The Default Mode Network of the brain
A. Is a concept that originates in the reflex theory of brain functioning (Sir Charles
B. Is a concept that originates in the theory of intrinsic activity of the brain (Thomas
C. Is characterized by task-induced activations
D. Is characterized by task-induced deactivations
E. Is characterized by intrinsic connectivity of the occipital and the parietal lobes
b and d
84. Which of the following are true?
A. Reinforcements are much more effective than punishments
B. Punishment may model aggressive behaviour
C. With punishment, negative emotional responses may be conditioned incidences
D. Negative reinforcements decrease the probability of the targeted behaviour
a b c
85. Symptom(s) of depression:
A. Negative emotionality
B. Low self-esteem
C. Recurrent suicidal thoughts
D. A tendency to blame others for bad things that happen
86. Characteristics of antisocial personality disorder:
A. Unlawful behaviour
B. Self harming behaviour
C. Lack of remorse
D. Preoccupation with order and details
a and c
87. Which of the following is/are a direct treatment method which deals with symptoms of
A. Squeeze technique
B. Tickle technique
C. Start-stop technique
D. Tease technique
a and c
88. Effective treatment of anorexia nervosa include:
A. Pharmacological treatment
B. Family therapy
C. Cognitive behavioural psychotherapy
a b c
89. What factors directly influence circadian rhythms?
A. Lack of exercise???
B. Drinking alcohol???
C. Social activity
D. Light and dark
90. Anorexia nervosa is also associated with:
91. While disclosing a medical error it is advisable to
A. Make a promise you can’t deliver for calming the patient or relative down
B. Start the conversation with a warning statement
C. Avoid empathic responses for strong emotions
D. Make links between the past information and the present reality
b and d
92. A doctor who treats a cancer patient tends to talk about the technical details with other doctors.
This is an example of:
93. What is the age, according to Erikson’s theory that correlated with industry vs. inferiority?
A. 1-3 years old
B. 3-5 years old
C. 6-11 years old
D. 12-20 years old
94. The following conditions happen in stress except:
A. Increased energy use from glucose, fats, and proteins
B. Increased heart rate
C. Decreased arousal state
D. Increased sweating
95. What is the most appropriate to do during closure of interview?
A. Making a follow up appointment, if appropriate
B. Exploring patients belief
C. Negotiate treatment options
D. Clarify what patient should do in the interim
a and d
96. What is the most common symptom in a craving patient?
97. A patient comes for chemotherapy 4 times. The fourth time she feels nausea as she enters the
clinic. This condition is called:
A. Classical conditioning
B. Operant conditioning
C. Air conditioning
D. Positive reinforcement
98. Diabetic patient exercises in order to consume less insulin (painful). This is called:
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Negative reinforcement
C. Classical conditioning
D. Positive conditioning
99. The correct order of dying stage is:
A. Anger, denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance
B. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
C. Depression, denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance
100. What is adaptive coping?
A. Avoiding the problem
B. Solving the problem
C. Using pain killers
D. Denying the problem exists
101. Stress can lead to:
B. Prostatic hypertrophy
D. Chronic depression
a c d
102. Biofeedback therapy is commonly used to treat:
A. Tension headaches
a and b
103. What is NOT true about DSM-IV categorization?
C. Non axial (it is multi-axial!)
104. What does NOT happen in the fight or flight response?
A. Heart rate increases
B. Arousal decreases
C. Glucose uptake decreases