SAC 1 Aos 1 Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

What are the five ethical concepts?

A

Integrity
Justice
Respect
Beneficence
Non-maleficence

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2
Q

What are the three ethical approaches?

A

Consequence based
Duty/Rule based
Virtue based

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3
Q

What is the ethical concept of integrity?

A

Is the commitment to knowledge.
It encourages people to act honestly and truthfully, especially when presenting results.
It encourages scrutiny or criticism, and prioritises accurate understanding and representation of the facts.

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4
Q

What is the ethical concept of justice?

A

Is the commitment to fairness.
It encourages consideration of people’s opinions and positions, especially if they are marginalised by a course of action.

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5
Q

What is the ethical concept of beneficence?

A

Is committed to maximising the most good.
It encourages people to act in ways that benefit others.
It promotes wellbeing and good for other people, especially direct stakeholders like patients.

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6
Q

What is the ethical concept of non-maleficence?

A

Is committed to minimising harm.
It encourages people to act in ways that remove as much harm as possible.
To minimise harm it can sometimes be a detriment to people’s freedom and autonomy.

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7
Q

What is a consequence-based approach?

A

The individual must be driven by consideration for the consequences that are likely to result. The aim is to maximise positive results, while minimising negative effects.

Key terms: outcomes, benefits, consequences, effects

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8
Q

What is a duty/rule based approach?

A

The individual must be driven by a fundamental duty to act in a certain way. The aim is to follow a set of rules and responsibilities without regard for the consequences that may result.

Key terms: rules, duty, responsibility, commitment

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9
Q

What is a virtue-based approach?

A

The individual must be driven by their character, rather than by any rules or consequences. The aim is to emphasise the moral nature of the individual, and provide guidance to the behaviours a morally good person would hope to achieve.

Key terms: any reference to virtues, such as good and caring

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10
Q

What are the levels of protein structure?

A

Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary

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11
Q

What is primary structure?

A

the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain

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12
Q

What is secondary structure?

A

When a polypeptide chain folds by forming hydrogen bonds and creates structures such as: alpha helices, beta pleated sheets and random coils

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13
Q

What is tertiary structure?

A

Refers to the overall functions, the 3D shape of a protein. (For a protein to be functional, this is the minimum structure it must have)

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14
Q

What is quaternary structure?

A

It is formed when two or more polypeptide chains with tertiary structure join together.

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15
Q

What is a protein?

A

A biomacromolecule made of amino acid chains folded into a 3D shape.

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16
Q

What are the monomers of proteins?

A

Amino acids are the monomers of ALL proteins

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17
Q

What are the properties of the genetic code?

A

Univeral
Degenerate
Non-overlapping
Unambiguous

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18
Q

What is the universal property of the genetic code?

A

All living things use the same codons to code for specific amino acids

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19
Q

What is the unambiguous property of the genetic code?

A

Each codon is only capable of coding for one specific amino acid.
E.G: UUA only codes for leucine

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20
Q

What is the degenerate property of the genetic code?

A

While each codon only codes for one specific amino acid, each amino acids may be coded for by multiple codons.

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21
Q

What is the process of RNA Processing?

A

The addition of a 5’ methyl-G cap and a 3’ poly-A tail.
The removal of introns and the splicing of exons (perfomred by a spliceosome enzyme)
Only occurs in eukaryotes, results in pre-mRNA becoming mRNA.

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22
Q

What is the non-overlapping proptery of the genetic code?

A

Each triplet or codon is read independantly, with overlapping fmor adjacent triplets or codons.

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23
Q

What is the process of translation?

A

The mRNA exits the nucleus.
5’ end binds to the ribosome and is read until the start codon is recognised.
tRNA molecules with complimentary anticodons bind to the ribosome to deliver amino acid.
tRNA anticodons are complementary the mRNA codons and bring corresponding amino acids to the ribosome.
Adjacent amino acids are joined together into a polypeptide chain via a condensation reaction .

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24
Q

What is the process of transcription?

A

RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region.
It signals for the weak hydrogen bonds between the two DNA strand to break, they unzip.
RNA polymerase moves along the template strand and reads the nucleotide sequence and uses free floating nucleotides to produce a new single stranded RNA molecule called pre-mRNA.
The pre-mRNA is made in a 5’ to 3’ direction, no new nucleotides are added to the 5’ end.
The pre-mRNA strand is complementary to the template strand and identical to the coding strand (U instead of T)

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25
What does the ribosome do in the protein secretory pathway?
Synthesises proteins. They are the site of protein synthesis. They assemble polypeptides chains to form amino acids by translating mRNA.
26
What does the rough ER do in the protein secretory pathway?
Folds and transports proteins. The ribosome synthesising the mRNA is attached to the rough ER, the rough ER folds the proteins to give them their functional shape.
27
What does the transport vesicle do in the protein secretory pathway?
Transports proteins A transport vesicle containing the protein buds off the rough ER and travels to the Golgi apparatus. The vesicle fuses with the Golgi membrane and releases it into the lumen.
28
What does the Golgi apparatus do in the protein secretory pathway?
Modifies and packages proteins Proteins can have chemical groups added/removed. The protein is packed into a secretory vesicle for export, or it is released into the cytosol for the cell to use.
29
What does the secretory vesicle do in the protein secretory pathway?
Transports proteins Secretory vesicles containing proteins bud off the Golgi apparatus and travel through the cytosol and fuse with the plasma membrane and releases the contents out of the cell.
30
What is exocytosis?
It is the process by which the contents of a vesicle are released from the cell. It is a from of bulk transport, which allows for the movement of large substances out of the cell. it is a form of active transport so it requires energy.
31
What is a restriction endonuclease?
A restriction endonuclease is an enzyme found in bacteria that cuts DNA at a specific recognition site. They act as molecular scissors to precisely cleave DNA strands a particular points.
32
What is a recognition site?
Usually consists of 4-6 nucleotides in length and are specific to each enzyme. Generally recognition sequences are palindromes, meaning the 5' to 3' sequence of the template strand is the same as the 5' to 3' sequence of the non-coding strand.
33
What are sticky and blunt ends?
restriction endonuclease cause either sticky or blunt ends: Blunt ends - involve a straight cut with no over hanging nucleotides. Sticky ends - involve a staggered cut the leaves overhanging, unpaired nucleotides. (they are called sticky ends because they will be attracted to another complementary set of unpaired nucleotides)
34
What is the rule for the number of DNA fragments?
Circular DNA (plasmids) - number of fragments will equal the number of cuts. Linear DNA - the number of fragments will equal number of recognition sites PLUS ONE!
35
What is the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction?
To rapidly produce (amplify) many copies of a specific segment of DNA.
36
What happens after each PCR cycle?
After each cycle the amount of DNA is doubled.
37
What materials are needed for PCR?
DNA sample Taq polymerase Nucleotides Sequence specific DNA primers
38
What are the stages of PCR?
A mixture of the required material is placed into a thermal cycler Denaturation Annealing Elongation Repeat
39
What is the process of denaturation?
DNA is heated to to approx 90-95 to break the hydrogen binds between the bases and separates the strands forming single stranded DNA
40
What is the process of annealing?
The single stranded DNA is cooled to approx 50-55 to allow primers (starting point for polymerase) to bind to complementary sequences on the single stranded DNA at the 3' ends
41
What is the process of elongation?
DNA is heated to 72 which allows Taq polymerase to work optimally. it binds to the primer (as a starting point) and beings synthesising a new complementary strand of DNA
42
What is the process of repeating (in PCR)?
Steps 1-3 are repeated multiple times to create more copies of DNA
43
What are forward primers?
They will bind to the 3' end of the template strand, causing Taq polymerase to synthesise a ew DNA strand in the same direction RNA polymerase would function.
44
What are revers primers?
They will bind to the 3' end of the coding strand, causing Taq polymerase to synthesise a new DNA strand in the reverse direction that RNA polymerase would function.
45
What is gel electrophoesis?
It is a laboratory technique used to measure the the size of DNA fragments
46
What is step one of gel electrophoresis?
DNA samples are placed in wells at the end of the gel. A standard ladder of DNA fragments with known sizes are loaded into one well (required for estimating the size of any unknown fragments) The gel is made of agarose, a sponge-like jelly filled with tiny pores to allow DNA movement The agarose is immersed in a buffer solution which helps carry an electric current
47
What is step three of gel electrophoresis?
Smaller fragments move faster through the gel and so so they travel further than the larger fragments which dont move as easily. After a few hours the current is turned off and the fragments stop moving and settle into bands. The fragments have been separated based on size.
48
What is step two of gel electrophoresis?
An electric current is passed through the the gel using two electrode (+/-). The negatively charged DNA fragments moves from the wells through the tiny pores in the gel towards the positive electrode.
49
What is step four of gel electrophoresis?
DNA is difficult to see with the naked eye so the gel is stained with fluorescent dye (ethidium bromide). This allows the bands of DNA to be seen under a UV lamp.
50
What is a standard ladder?
It contains a number of different DNA fragments with a known molecular size. Molecular size indicates the length of a nucleic acid sequence. It is measured in base pairs (bp) or kilobases (kb) The size of a fragment can be estimates based on the position of its band compared to the standard ladder.
51
What does it mean when there is a thicker band in gel electrophoresis?
There is more DNA contained into that band. If you are looking at alleles, they are homozygous for that allele.
52
Why are standard ladders so important?
Because DNA fragments of the same size won't always travel the same distance every time they are put through the gel. The ladder is always subjected to the same environment as the fragments, this makes sure that the standard ladder and the measuring of the fragments is relative. Things that affect this: - Voltage generated by electrode -Time -Gel composition -Buffer concentration
53
What are the steps of CRISPR?
Exposure Expression Extermination
54
What is the process of exposure in CRISPR?
The bacteriophage injects its DNA into bacteria, which identifies the viral DNA as a foreign substance. CAS1 and CAS2 cut a short section of the viral DNA (~30 nucleotides long, after recognising the PAM sequence, nGG) This is known as a protospacer, which is then inserted into the bacterium's CRISPR system as a spacer
55
What is a PAM?
A protospacer adjacent motif A short (2-6 nucleotides) sequence of nucleotides that CAS1 and CAS2 can recognise. When they recognise the PAM they extract a protospacer from the viral DNA. The enzymes cut just before the PAM so it isn't included in the final protospacer. This means the bacteria never have a PAM sequence in the CRISPR repeats of their own DNA to ensure that CAS( doesn't cut up the bacterias own DNA.
56
What is expression in CRISPR?
The CRISPR spacers are transcribes (along with the palindrome from the repeats either side of it) and coverts it into an RNA molecule called guide RNA. The gRNA binds to CAS9 to create a CRISPR-CAS9 complex which is directed to any viral DNA inside the cell that is complementary to the gRNA The gRNA forms a hairpin loop structure due to the transcribed palindromic repeats either side of it.
57
What is extermination in CRISPR?
The CRISPR-CAS9 complex scans the cells for invading bacteriophage DNA that is complementary to the gRNA. When it finds it CAS9 cleaves the phosphate-sugar backbone to inactivate the virus. CAS9 has two active sites to cut both strands of DNA and create blunt ends. When the viral DNA is cut enzymes within the bacteria will naturally try to repair it. However the repair mechanisms are error prone and can result in mutations that can inactivate the gene. If a mutation doesn't occur the gRNA will find the gene again and repeat the whole process until a mutation does occur.
58
What are the seps of gene editing with CRISPR-CAS9?
Synthetic sgRNA is created un a lab that has a complementary spacer to the target DNA that scientists want to cut. A CAS9 enzyme is obtained with an appropriate target sequence. CAS9 and sgRNA are added together in a mixture and bind together to create the CRISPR-CAS9 complex The sgRNA -CAS9 mixture is then injected into a specific cell like a zygote The CAS9 finds the target DNA sequence and checks whether the sgRNA aligns with the DNA CAS9 cuts the selected sequence of DNA The DNA has a blunt ends that the cell will attempt to repair When repairing the DNA the cell may introduce new nucleotides into the DNA at this site. Scientists may inject particular nucleotide sequences into the cell with the hope they will ligate the gap.
59
What are the 8 functions of proteins?
Enzymes Transport Structural Hormones Receptors Defence Motor/Contractile Storage
60
What do proteins do with enzymes?
Proteins make up enzymes. Enzymes are organic catalysts that speed up chemical reactions.
61
How do proteins function transport?
Proteins are embedded in membranes, controlling the entry and exit of substances from the cell.
62
How do proteins help with structural function?
Proteins support the cell and tissue shape.
63
What do proteins for in hormes?
Hormones are proteins. They are chemical messengers used to communicate and induces changes in cells.
64
What do proteins do for receptors?
Receptors are made of proteins. They receive signals from the environment.
65
What do proteins do in defence?
They are involved in the immune system by recognising and destroying pathogens.
66
How are proteins involved in motor/contractile?
Proteins are involved in the contraction and movement of muscles, the movement or internal cell contents around the cytoplasm and the movement of cilia and flagella.
67
How are proteins involved in storage?
Proteins act are reserves for metal ions and other molecules in organisms.
68
what are amino acids?
Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. They consist of a: - Carboxyl group (COOH) - Amino group (NH2) - Variable R-group
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70
What is the ethical concept of respect?
Is the commitment to consideration. Encourages individuals to the values of others, including welfare and beliefs. Aims to avoid exploitation.